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gambling
compulsive behaviors
ammunition
assault rifle
black jack
Boko Haram
bondage
child abuse
cocaine
Daech
drug paraphernalia
explosion
gun
human trafficking
ISIL
ISIS
Islamic caliphate
Islamic state
mixed martial arts
MMA
molestation
national rifle association
NRA
nsfw
pedophile
pedophilia
poker
porn
pornography
psychedelic drug
recreational drug
sex slave rings
slot machine
terrorism
terrorist
Texas hold 'em
UFC
substance abuse
abuseed
abuseer
abusees
abuseing
abusely
abuses
aeolus
aeolused
aeoluser
aeoluses
aeolusing
aeolusly
aeoluss
ahole
aholeed
aholeer
aholees
aholeing
aholely
aholes
alcohol
alcoholed
alcoholer
alcoholes
alcoholing
alcoholly
alcohols
allman
allmaned
allmaner
allmanes
allmaning
allmanly
allmans
alted
altes
alting
altly
alts
analed
analer
anales
analing
anally
analprobe
analprobeed
analprobeer
analprobees
analprobeing
analprobely
analprobes
anals
anilingus
anilingused
anilinguser
anilinguses
anilingusing
anilingusly
anilinguss
anus
anused
anuser
anuses
anusing
anusly
anuss
areola
areolaed
areolaer
areolaes
areolaing
areolaly
areolas
areole
areoleed
areoleer
areolees
areoleing
areolely
areoles
arian
arianed
arianer
arianes
arianing
arianly
arians
aryan
aryaned
aryaner
aryanes
aryaning
aryanly
aryans
asiaed
asiaer
asiaes
asiaing
asialy
asias
ass
ass hole
ass lick
ass licked
ass licker
ass lickes
ass licking
ass lickly
ass licks
assbang
assbanged
assbangeded
assbangeder
assbangedes
assbangeding
assbangedly
assbangeds
assbanger
assbanges
assbanging
assbangly
assbangs
assbangsed
assbangser
assbangses
assbangsing
assbangsly
assbangss
assed
asser
asses
assesed
asseser
asseses
assesing
assesly
assess
assfuck
assfucked
assfucker
assfuckered
assfuckerer
assfuckeres
assfuckering
assfuckerly
assfuckers
assfuckes
assfucking
assfuckly
assfucks
asshat
asshated
asshater
asshates
asshating
asshatly
asshats
assholeed
assholeer
assholees
assholeing
assholely
assholes
assholesed
assholeser
assholeses
assholesing
assholesly
assholess
assing
assly
assmaster
assmastered
assmasterer
assmasteres
assmastering
assmasterly
assmasters
assmunch
assmunched
assmuncher
assmunches
assmunching
assmunchly
assmunchs
asss
asswipe
asswipeed
asswipeer
asswipees
asswipeing
asswipely
asswipes
asswipesed
asswipeser
asswipeses
asswipesing
asswipesly
asswipess
azz
azzed
azzer
azzes
azzing
azzly
azzs
babeed
babeer
babees
babeing
babely
babes
babesed
babeser
babeses
babesing
babesly
babess
ballsac
ballsaced
ballsacer
ballsaces
ballsacing
ballsack
ballsacked
ballsacker
ballsackes
ballsacking
ballsackly
ballsacks
ballsacly
ballsacs
ballsed
ballser
ballses
ballsing
ballsly
ballss
barf
barfed
barfer
barfes
barfing
barfly
barfs
bastard
bastarded
bastarder
bastardes
bastarding
bastardly
bastards
bastardsed
bastardser
bastardses
bastardsing
bastardsly
bastardss
bawdy
bawdyed
bawdyer
bawdyes
bawdying
bawdyly
bawdys
beaner
beanered
beanerer
beaneres
beanering
beanerly
beaners
beardedclam
beardedclamed
beardedclamer
beardedclames
beardedclaming
beardedclamly
beardedclams
beastiality
beastialityed
beastialityer
beastialityes
beastialitying
beastialityly
beastialitys
beatch
beatched
beatcher
beatches
beatching
beatchly
beatchs
beater
beatered
beaterer
beateres
beatering
beaterly
beaters
beered
beerer
beeres
beering
beerly
beeyotch
beeyotched
beeyotcher
beeyotches
beeyotching
beeyotchly
beeyotchs
beotch
beotched
beotcher
beotches
beotching
beotchly
beotchs
biatch
biatched
biatcher
biatches
biatching
biatchly
biatchs
big tits
big titsed
big titser
big titses
big titsing
big titsly
big titss
bigtits
bigtitsed
bigtitser
bigtitses
bigtitsing
bigtitsly
bigtitss
bimbo
bimboed
bimboer
bimboes
bimboing
bimboly
bimbos
bisexualed
bisexualer
bisexuales
bisexualing
bisexually
bisexuals
bitch
bitched
bitcheded
bitcheder
bitchedes
bitcheding
bitchedly
bitcheds
bitcher
bitches
bitchesed
bitcheser
bitcheses
bitchesing
bitchesly
bitchess
bitching
bitchly
bitchs
bitchy
bitchyed
bitchyer
bitchyes
bitchying
bitchyly
bitchys
bleached
bleacher
bleaches
bleaching
bleachly
bleachs
blow job
blow jobed
blow jober
blow jobes
blow jobing
blow jobly
blow jobs
blowed
blower
blowes
blowing
blowjob
blowjobed
blowjober
blowjobes
blowjobing
blowjobly
blowjobs
blowjobsed
blowjobser
blowjobses
blowjobsing
blowjobsly
blowjobss
blowly
blows
boink
boinked
boinker
boinkes
boinking
boinkly
boinks
bollock
bollocked
bollocker
bollockes
bollocking
bollockly
bollocks
bollocksed
bollockser
bollockses
bollocksing
bollocksly
bollockss
bollok
bolloked
bolloker
bollokes
bolloking
bollokly
bolloks
boner
bonered
bonerer
boneres
bonering
bonerly
boners
bonersed
bonerser
bonerses
bonersing
bonersly
bonerss
bong
bonged
bonger
bonges
bonging
bongly
bongs
boob
boobed
boober
boobes
boobies
boobiesed
boobieser
boobieses
boobiesing
boobiesly
boobiess
boobing
boobly
boobs
boobsed
boobser
boobses
boobsing
boobsly
boobss
booby
boobyed
boobyer
boobyes
boobying
boobyly
boobys
booger
boogered
boogerer
boogeres
boogering
boogerly
boogers
bookie
bookieed
bookieer
bookiees
bookieing
bookiely
bookies
bootee
booteeed
booteeer
booteees
booteeing
booteely
bootees
bootie
bootieed
bootieer
bootiees
bootieing
bootiely
booties
booty
bootyed
bootyer
bootyes
bootying
bootyly
bootys
boozeed
boozeer
boozees
boozeing
boozely
boozer
boozered
boozerer
boozeres
boozering
boozerly
boozers
boozes
boozy
boozyed
boozyer
boozyes
boozying
boozyly
boozys
bosomed
bosomer
bosomes
bosoming
bosomly
bosoms
bosomy
bosomyed
bosomyer
bosomyes
bosomying
bosomyly
bosomys
bugger
buggered
buggerer
buggeres
buggering
buggerly
buggers
bukkake
bukkakeed
bukkakeer
bukkakees
bukkakeing
bukkakely
bukkakes
bull shit
bull shited
bull shiter
bull shites
bull shiting
bull shitly
bull shits
bullshit
bullshited
bullshiter
bullshites
bullshiting
bullshitly
bullshits
bullshitsed
bullshitser
bullshitses
bullshitsing
bullshitsly
bullshitss
bullshitted
bullshitteded
bullshitteder
bullshittedes
bullshitteding
bullshittedly
bullshitteds
bullturds
bullturdsed
bullturdser
bullturdses
bullturdsing
bullturdsly
bullturdss
bung
bunged
bunger
bunges
bunging
bungly
bungs
busty
bustyed
bustyer
bustyes
bustying
bustyly
bustys
butt
butt fuck
butt fucked
butt fucker
butt fuckes
butt fucking
butt fuckly
butt fucks
butted
buttes
buttfuck
buttfucked
buttfucker
buttfuckered
buttfuckerer
buttfuckeres
buttfuckering
buttfuckerly
buttfuckers
buttfuckes
buttfucking
buttfuckly
buttfucks
butting
buttly
buttplug
buttpluged
buttpluger
buttpluges
buttpluging
buttplugly
buttplugs
butts
caca
cacaed
cacaer
cacaes
cacaing
cacaly
cacas
cahone
cahoneed
cahoneer
cahonees
cahoneing
cahonely
cahones
cameltoe
cameltoeed
cameltoeer
cameltoees
cameltoeing
cameltoely
cameltoes
carpetmuncher
carpetmunchered
carpetmuncherer
carpetmuncheres
carpetmunchering
carpetmuncherly
carpetmunchers
cawk
cawked
cawker
cawkes
cawking
cawkly
cawks
chinc
chinced
chincer
chinces
chincing
chincly
chincs
chincsed
chincser
chincses
chincsing
chincsly
chincss
chink
chinked
chinker
chinkes
chinking
chinkly
chinks
chode
chodeed
chodeer
chodees
chodeing
chodely
chodes
chodesed
chodeser
chodeses
chodesing
chodesly
chodess
clit
clited
cliter
clites
cliting
clitly
clitoris
clitorised
clitoriser
clitorises
clitorising
clitorisly
clitoriss
clitorus
clitorused
clitoruser
clitoruses
clitorusing
clitorusly
clitoruss
clits
clitsed
clitser
clitses
clitsing
clitsly
clitss
clitty
clittyed
clittyer
clittyes
clittying
clittyly
clittys
cocain
cocaine
cocained
cocaineed
cocaineer
cocainees
cocaineing
cocainely
cocainer
cocaines
cocaining
cocainly
cocains
cock
cock sucker
cock suckered
cock suckerer
cock suckeres
cock suckering
cock suckerly
cock suckers
cockblock
cockblocked
cockblocker
cockblockes
cockblocking
cockblockly
cockblocks
cocked
cocker
cockes
cockholster
cockholstered
cockholsterer
cockholsteres
cockholstering
cockholsterly
cockholsters
cocking
cockknocker
cockknockered
cockknockerer
cockknockeres
cockknockering
cockknockerly
cockknockers
cockly
cocks
cocksed
cockser
cockses
cocksing
cocksly
cocksmoker
cocksmokered
cocksmokerer
cocksmokeres
cocksmokering
cocksmokerly
cocksmokers
cockss
cocksucker
cocksuckered
cocksuckerer
cocksuckeres
cocksuckering
cocksuckerly
cocksuckers
coital
coitaled
coitaler
coitales
coitaling
coitally
coitals
commie
commieed
commieer
commiees
commieing
commiely
commies
condomed
condomer
condomes
condoming
condomly
condoms
coon
cooned
cooner
coones
cooning
coonly
coons
coonsed
coonser
coonses
coonsing
coonsly
coonss
corksucker
corksuckered
corksuckerer
corksuckeres
corksuckering
corksuckerly
corksuckers
cracked
crackwhore
crackwhoreed
crackwhoreer
crackwhorees
crackwhoreing
crackwhorely
crackwhores
crap
craped
craper
crapes
craping
craply
crappy
crappyed
crappyer
crappyes
crappying
crappyly
crappys
cum
cumed
cumer
cumes
cuming
cumly
cummin
cummined
cumminer
cummines
cumming
cumminged
cumminger
cumminges
cumminging
cummingly
cummings
cummining
cumminly
cummins
cums
cumshot
cumshoted
cumshoter
cumshotes
cumshoting
cumshotly
cumshots
cumshotsed
cumshotser
cumshotses
cumshotsing
cumshotsly
cumshotss
cumslut
cumsluted
cumsluter
cumslutes
cumsluting
cumslutly
cumsluts
cumstain
cumstained
cumstainer
cumstaines
cumstaining
cumstainly
cumstains
cunilingus
cunilingused
cunilinguser
cunilinguses
cunilingusing
cunilingusly
cunilinguss
cunnilingus
cunnilingused
cunnilinguser
cunnilinguses
cunnilingusing
cunnilingusly
cunnilinguss
cunny
cunnyed
cunnyer
cunnyes
cunnying
cunnyly
cunnys
cunt
cunted
cunter
cuntes
cuntface
cuntfaceed
cuntfaceer
cuntfacees
cuntfaceing
cuntfacely
cuntfaces
cunthunter
cunthuntered
cunthunterer
cunthunteres
cunthuntering
cunthunterly
cunthunters
cunting
cuntlick
cuntlicked
cuntlicker
cuntlickered
cuntlickerer
cuntlickeres
cuntlickering
cuntlickerly
cuntlickers
cuntlickes
cuntlicking
cuntlickly
cuntlicks
cuntly
cunts
cuntsed
cuntser
cuntses
cuntsing
cuntsly
cuntss
dago
dagoed
dagoer
dagoes
dagoing
dagoly
dagos
dagosed
dagoser
dagoses
dagosing
dagosly
dagoss
dammit
dammited
dammiter
dammites
dammiting
dammitly
dammits
damn
damned
damneded
damneder
damnedes
damneding
damnedly
damneds
damner
damnes
damning
damnit
damnited
damniter
damnites
damniting
damnitly
damnits
damnly
damns
dick
dickbag
dickbaged
dickbager
dickbages
dickbaging
dickbagly
dickbags
dickdipper
dickdippered
dickdipperer
dickdipperes
dickdippering
dickdipperly
dickdippers
dicked
dicker
dickes
dickface
dickfaceed
dickfaceer
dickfacees
dickfaceing
dickfacely
dickfaces
dickflipper
dickflippered
dickflipperer
dickflipperes
dickflippering
dickflipperly
dickflippers
dickhead
dickheaded
dickheader
dickheades
dickheading
dickheadly
dickheads
dickheadsed
dickheadser
dickheadses
dickheadsing
dickheadsly
dickheadss
dicking
dickish
dickished
dickisher
dickishes
dickishing
dickishly
dickishs
dickly
dickripper
dickrippered
dickripperer
dickripperes
dickrippering
dickripperly
dickrippers
dicks
dicksipper
dicksippered
dicksipperer
dicksipperes
dicksippering
dicksipperly
dicksippers
dickweed
dickweeded
dickweeder
dickweedes
dickweeding
dickweedly
dickweeds
dickwhipper
dickwhippered
dickwhipperer
dickwhipperes
dickwhippering
dickwhipperly
dickwhippers
dickzipper
dickzippered
dickzipperer
dickzipperes
dickzippering
dickzipperly
dickzippers
diddle
diddleed
diddleer
diddlees
diddleing
diddlely
diddles
dike
dikeed
dikeer
dikees
dikeing
dikely
dikes
dildo
dildoed
dildoer
dildoes
dildoing
dildoly
dildos
dildosed
dildoser
dildoses
dildosing
dildosly
dildoss
diligaf
diligafed
diligafer
diligafes
diligafing
diligafly
diligafs
dillweed
dillweeded
dillweeder
dillweedes
dillweeding
dillweedly
dillweeds
dimwit
dimwited
dimwiter
dimwites
dimwiting
dimwitly
dimwits
dingle
dingleed
dingleer
dinglees
dingleing
dinglely
dingles
dipship
dipshiped
dipshiper
dipshipes
dipshiping
dipshiply
dipships
dizzyed
dizzyer
dizzyes
dizzying
dizzyly
dizzys
doggiestyleed
doggiestyleer
doggiestylees
doggiestyleing
doggiestylely
doggiestyles
doggystyleed
doggystyleer
doggystylees
doggystyleing
doggystylely
doggystyles
dong
donged
donger
donges
donging
dongly
dongs
doofus
doofused
doofuser
doofuses
doofusing
doofusly
doofuss
doosh
dooshed
doosher
dooshes
dooshing
dooshly
dooshs
dopeyed
dopeyer
dopeyes
dopeying
dopeyly
dopeys
douchebag
douchebaged
douchebager
douchebages
douchebaging
douchebagly
douchebags
douchebagsed
douchebagser
douchebagses
douchebagsing
douchebagsly
douchebagss
doucheed
doucheer
douchees
doucheing
douchely
douches
douchey
doucheyed
doucheyer
doucheyes
doucheying
doucheyly
doucheys
drunk
drunked
drunker
drunkes
drunking
drunkly
drunks
dumass
dumassed
dumasser
dumasses
dumassing
dumassly
dumasss
dumbass
dumbassed
dumbasser
dumbasses
dumbassesed
dumbasseser
dumbasseses
dumbassesing
dumbassesly
dumbassess
dumbassing
dumbassly
dumbasss
dummy
dummyed
dummyer
dummyes
dummying
dummyly
dummys
dyke
dykeed
dykeer
dykees
dykeing
dykely
dykes
dykesed
dykeser
dykeses
dykesing
dykesly
dykess
erotic
eroticed
eroticer
erotices
eroticing
eroticly
erotics
extacy
extacyed
extacyer
extacyes
extacying
extacyly
extacys
extasy
extasyed
extasyer
extasyes
extasying
extasyly
extasys
fack
facked
facker
fackes
facking
fackly
facks
fag
faged
fager
fages
fagg
fagged
faggeded
faggeder
faggedes
faggeding
faggedly
faggeds
fagger
fagges
fagging
faggit
faggited
faggiter
faggites
faggiting
faggitly
faggits
faggly
faggot
faggoted
faggoter
faggotes
faggoting
faggotly
faggots
faggs
faging
fagly
fagot
fagoted
fagoter
fagotes
fagoting
fagotly
fagots
fags
fagsed
fagser
fagses
fagsing
fagsly
fagss
faig
faiged
faiger
faiges
faiging
faigly
faigs
faigt
faigted
faigter
faigtes
faigting
faigtly
faigts
fannybandit
fannybandited
fannybanditer
fannybandites
fannybanditing
fannybanditly
fannybandits
farted
farter
fartes
farting
fartknocker
fartknockered
fartknockerer
fartknockeres
fartknockering
fartknockerly
fartknockers
fartly
farts
felch
felched
felcher
felchered
felcherer
felcheres
felchering
felcherly
felchers
felches
felching
felchinged
felchinger
felchinges
felchinging
felchingly
felchings
felchly
felchs
fellate
fellateed
fellateer
fellatees
fellateing
fellately
fellates
fellatio
fellatioed
fellatioer
fellatioes
fellatioing
fellatioly
fellatios
feltch
feltched
feltcher
feltchered
feltcherer
feltcheres
feltchering
feltcherly
feltchers
feltches
feltching
feltchly
feltchs
feom
feomed
feomer
feomes
feoming
feomly
feoms
fisted
fisteded
fisteder
fistedes
fisteding
fistedly
fisteds
fisting
fistinged
fistinger
fistinges
fistinging
fistingly
fistings
fisty
fistyed
fistyer
fistyes
fistying
fistyly
fistys
floozy
floozyed
floozyer
floozyes
floozying
floozyly
floozys
foad
foaded
foader
foades
foading
foadly
foads
fondleed
fondleer
fondlees
fondleing
fondlely
fondles
foobar
foobared
foobarer
foobares
foobaring
foobarly
foobars
freex
freexed
freexer
freexes
freexing
freexly
freexs
frigg
frigga
friggaed
friggaer
friggaes
friggaing
friggaly
friggas
frigged
frigger
frigges
frigging
friggly
friggs
fubar
fubared
fubarer
fubares
fubaring
fubarly
fubars
fuck
fuckass
fuckassed
fuckasser
fuckasses
fuckassing
fuckassly
fuckasss
fucked
fuckeded
fuckeder
fuckedes
fuckeding
fuckedly
fuckeds
fucker
fuckered
fuckerer
fuckeres
fuckering
fuckerly
fuckers
fuckes
fuckface
fuckfaceed
fuckfaceer
fuckfacees
fuckfaceing
fuckfacely
fuckfaces
fuckin
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Aortic dissection: Prompt diagnosis and emergency treatment are critical
A 50-year-old man developed severe chest pain and collapsed to the floor. The pain was sudden in onset, was burning in quality, and was located in the center of his chest. Emergency medical services arrived a few minutes later and found the patient diaphoretic and cyanotic, with an initial blood pressure of 74/54 mm Hg and a heart rate of 125 beats per minute. He was rushed to the hospital.
His medical history was unremarkable. He smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years. His father died of a “heart attack” at age 52.
In the emergency department he underwent echocardiography with a portable handheld unit, which showed a pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade. He was sent for emergency computed tomography of the chest, which revealed an aneurysm of the aortic root and acute type A (Stanford classification) aortic dissection with hemopericardium.
He underwent emergency cardiac surgery. At the time of surgery, he was in cardiogenic shock from aortic dissection complicated by severe aortic regurgitation and cardiac tamponade with hemopericardium. The aortic valve was trileaflet. A 27-mm St. Jude composite valve graft root replacement was performed.
The patient did well and was discharged home 7 days after surgery. Pathologic study of the aorta revealed cystic medial degeneration. He did not have any features of Marfan syndrome or Loeys-Dietz syndrome. His three children underwent evaluation, and each had a normal physical examination and echocardiographic test results.
A HIGH INDEX OF SUSPICION IS CRITICAL
Acute aortic dissection is the most common aortic catastrophe, with an incidence estimated at 5 to 30 per 1 million people per year, amounting to nearly 10,000 cases per year in the United States.1–4
The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection has many potential pitfalls.2,3 Aortic dissection may mimic other more common conditions, such as coronary ischemia, pleurisy, heart failure, stroke, and acute abdominal illness. Because acute aortic dissection may be rapidly fatal, one must maintain a high index of suspicion.2,3 Prompt diagnosis and emergency treatment are critical.
WHAT CAUSES AORTIC DISSECTION?
One hypothesis is that acute aortic dissection is caused by a primary tear in the aortic intima, with blood from the aortic lumen penetrating into the diseased media leading to dissection and creating a true and false lumen.2 Another is that rupture of the vasa vasorum leads to hemorrhage in the aortic wall with subsequent intimal disruption, creating the intimal tear and aortic dissection.
Once a dissection starts, pulsatile flow of blood within the aortic wall causes it to extend. The dissection flap may be localized, but it often spirals the entire length of the aorta. Distention of the false lumen with blood may cause the intimal flap to compress the true lumen and potentially lead to malperfusion syndromes.
CLASSIFIED ACCORDING TO LOCATION
It is important to recognize the location of the dissection, as the prognosis and treatment depend on whether the ascending aorta is involved.2,3 For classification purposes, the ascending aorta is the portion proximal to the brachiocephalic artery, while the descending aorta is the portion distal to the left subclavian artery.3
The DeBakey classification defines a type I aortic dissection as one that begins in the ascending aorta and extends at least to the aortic arch or beyond. Type II dissections involve the ascending aorta only, while type III dissections begin in the descending aorta, most often just distal to the left subclavian artery.
The Stanford classification scheme divides dissections into type A and type B. Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, while type B dissections do not involve the ascending aorta.
Which classification scheme is used is not important. However, identifying patients with dissection of the ascending aorta (DeBakey type I or type II or Stanford type A) is critical, as emergency cardiac surgery is recommended for this type of dissection.2,3 For the purposes of this paper, the Stanford classification scheme will be used.
Dissection that involves the ascending aorta most commonly occurs in people ages 50 to 60, whereas acute dissection of the descending aorta typically occurs in people 10 years older.1,2
An acute aortic dissection is one that has occurred within 2 weeks of symptom onset. A chronic dissection is one that occurred more than 2 weeks after symptoms began.
DISEASES AND CONDITIONS ASSOCIATED WITH AORTIC DISSECTION
Hypertension and disorders leading to disruption of the normal structure and function of the aortic wall. About 75% of patients with acute aortic dissection have underlying hypertension.1–3
Cystic medial degeneration is a common pathologic feature in many cases of aortic dissection.
Cocaine use and intense weight-lifting increase the shear stresses on the aorta.2,3
Inflammatory aortic diseases such as giant cell arteritis.
Pregnancy can be complicated by aortic dissection, usually in the setting of an underlying aortopathy.5
Iatrogenic aortic dissection accounts for about 4% of cases, as a result of cardiac surgery, catheterization, stenting, or use of an intra-aortic balloon pump.1
Aortic aneurysm. Patients with thoracic aortic aneurysm are at higher risk of aortic dissection, and the larger the aortic diameter, the higher the risk.2,3,6 In the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD), the average size of the aorta was about 5.3 cm at the time of acute dissection. Importantly, about 40% of acute dissections of the ascending aorta occur in patients with ascending aortic diameters less than 5.0 cm.7,8
Thus, many factors are associated with acute dissection, and specific reasons leading to an individual’s susceptibility to sudden dissection are poorly understood.
CLINICAL FEATURES OF ACUTE AORTIC DISSECTION
Because the symptoms of acute dissection may mimic other, more common conditions, one of the most important factors in the diagnosis of aortic dissection is a high clinical suspicion.1–3
What is the pretest risk of disease?
Recently, the American College of Cardiology (ACC) and the American Heart Association (AHA) released joint guidelines on thoracic aortic disease.3 These guidelines provide an approach to patients who have complaints that may represent acute thoracic aortic dissection, the intent being to establish a pretest risk of disease to be used to guide decision-making.3
The focused evaluation includes specific questions about underlying conditions, symptoms, and findings on examination that may greatly increase the likelihood of acute dissection. These include:
- High-risk conditions and historical features associated with aortic dissection, such as Marfan syndrome and other genetic disorders (Table 2), bicuspid aortic valve, family history of thoracic aortic aneurysm or dissection, known thoracic aortic aneurysm, and recent aortic manipulation
- Pain in the chest, back, or abdomen with high-risk features (eg, abrupt onset, severe intensity, or a ripping or tearing quality)
- High-risk findings on examination (eg, pulse deficits, new aortic regurgitation, hypotension, shock, or systolic blood pressure differences).
Using this information, expedited aortic imaging and treatment algorithms have been devised to improve the diagnosis.3
Using the IRAD database of more than 2,500 acute dissections, the diagnostic algorithm proposed in the ACC/AHA guidelines was shown to be highly sensitive (about 95%) for detecting acute aortic dissection.4 In addition, using this score may expedite evaluation by classifying certain patients as being at high risk of acute dissection.3,4
Important to recognize is that almost two-thirds of patients who suffered dissection in this large database did not have one of the “high-risk conditions” associated with dissection.4 Additionally, the specificity of the ACC/AHA algorithm is unknown, and further testing is necessary.4
Acute onset of severe pain
More than 90% of acute dissections present with acute pain in the chest or the back, or both.1–3 The pain is usually severe, of sudden onset, and often described as sharp or, occasionally, tearing, ripping, or stabbing. The pain usually differs from that of coronary ischemia, being most severe at its onset as opposed to the less intense, crescendo-like pain of angina or myocardial infarction. The pain may migrate as the dissection progresses along the length of the aorta or to branch vessels. It may abate, leading to a false sense of security in the patient and the physician.3 “Painless” dissection occurs in a minority, usually in those with syncope, neurologic symptoms, or heart failure.1–3
The patient with acute dissection may be anxious and may feel a sense of doom.
Acute heart failure, related to severe aortic regurgitation, may be a predominant symptom in dissection of the ascending aorta.
Syncope may occur as a result of aortic rupture, hemopericardium with cardiac tamponade, or acute neurologic complications.
Vascular insufficiency may occur in any branch vessel, leading to clinical syndromes that include acute myocardial infarction, stroke, paraplegia, paraparesis, mesenteric ischemia, and limb ischemia.
PHYSICAL FINDINGS CAN VARY WIDELY
Findings on physical examination in acute aortic dissection vary widely depending on underlying conditions and on the specific complications of the dissection.
Although the classic presentation is acute, severe pain in the chest or back in a severely hypertensive patient with aortic regurgitation and pulse deficits, most patients do not have all these characteristics.4 Most patients with type B dissection are hypertensive on presentation, but many with type A dissection present with normal blood pressure or hypotension.1 Pulse deficits (unequal or absent pulses) are reported in 10% to 30% of acute dissections and may be intermittent as the dynamic movement of the dissection flap interferes with branch vessel perfusion.1–3
- Aortic leaflet prolapse or distortion of the leaflet alignment
- Malcoaptation of the aortic leaflets from dilation of the aortic root and annulus
- Prolapse of the intimal flap across the aortic valve, interfering with valve function
- Preexisting aortic regurgitation from underlying aortic root aneurysm or primary aortic valve disease (such as a bicuspid aortic valve).
Neurologic manifestations are most common in dissection of the ascending aorta and are particularly important to recognize, as they may dominate the clinical presentation and lead to delay in the diagnosis of dissection.2,3 Neurologic syndromes include:
- Persistent or transient ischemic stroke
- Spinal cord ischemia
- Ischemic neuropathy
- Hypoxic encephalopathy.
These manifestations are related to malperfusion to branches supplying the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves.9
Syncope is relatively common in aortic dissection and may be related to acute hypotension caused by cardiac tamponade or aortic rupture, cerebral vessel obstruction, or activation of cerebral baroreceptors.2,9 It is important to consider aortic dissection in the differential diagnosis in cases of unexplained syncope.3
Aortic dissections may extend into the abdominal aorta, leading to vascular complications involving one or more branch vessels.10 The renal artery is involved in at least 5% to 10% of cases and may lead to renal ischemia, infarction, renal insufficiency, or refractory hypertension.2Mesenteric ischemia or infarction occurs in about 5% of dissections, may be difficult to diagnose, and is particularly dangerous.2,8 Aortic dissection may extend into the iliac arteries and may cause acute lower extremity ischemia.
Acute myocardial infarction due to involvement of the dissection flap causing malperfusion of a coronary artery occurs in 1% to 7% of acute type A aortic dissections.1–3 The right coronary artery (Figure 2) is most commonly involved, leading to acute inferior myocardial infarction. Acute myocardial ischemia and infarction in the setting of dissection may lead to a delay in the diagnosis of dissection and to bleeding complications from antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs given to treat the acute coronary syndrome.
Cardiac tamponade, occurring in about 10% of acute type A dissections, portends a higher risk of death.2,3
Additional clinical features of aortic dissection include a left-sided pleural effusion, usually related to an inflammatory response. An acute hemothorax may occur from rupture or leaking of a descending aortic dissection.
FINDINGS ON RADIOGRAPHY AND ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY
Electrocardiography usually has normal or nonspecific findings, unless acute myocardial infarction complicates the dissection.
D-DIMER LEVELS
Biomarkers for the diagnosis of acute aortic dissection are of great interest.
D-dimer levels rise in acute aortic dissection as they do in pulmonary embolism.11 A D-dimer level greater than 1,600 ng/mL within the first 6 hours has a very high positive likelihood ratio for dissection, so this test may be useful in identifying patients with a high probability for dissection. In the first 24 hours after symptom onset, a D-dimer level of less than 500 ng/mL has a negative predictive value of 95%. Thus, elevations in D-dimer may help decide which imaging to perform in a patient presenting with chest pain or suspicion of dissection.11
However, D-dimer levels may not be elevated in dissection variants, such as aortic intramural hematoma or penetrating aortic ulcer. Additionally, once 24 hours have elapsed since the dissection started, D-dimer levels may no longer be elevated. The current ACC/AHA guidelines on thoracic aortic disease concluded that the D-dimer level cannot be used to rule out aortic dissection in high-risk individuals.3
Additional studies may clarify the appropriate role of the D-dimer assay in diagnosing aortic dissection.
DEFINITIVE IMAGING STUDIES: CT, MRI, TEE
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) all have very high sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of aortic dissection.2,3 The choice of imaging study often depends on the availability of these studies, with CT and TEE being the most commonly performed initial studies.
MRI is outstanding for detecting and following aortic dissection, but it is usually not the initial study performed because of the time required for image acquisition and because it is generally not available on an emergency basis.
While transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) can detect aortic dissection, its sensitivity is much lower than that of other imaging tests.2,3 Therefore, negative findings on TTE do not exclude aortic dissection.
MANAGEMENT OF AORTIC DISSECTION
When acute aortic dissection is diagnosed, multidisciplinary evaluation and treatment are necessary. Time is of the essence, as the death rate in acute dissection may be as high as 1% per hour during the first 24 hours.1–3 All patients with acute aortic dissection, whether type A or type B, should be transferred to a tertiary care center with a staff experienced in managing aortic dissection and its complications.3 Emergency surgery is recommended for type A aortic dissection, whereas type B dissection is generally treated medically unless complications occur.2,3
The cornerstone of drug therapy is the prompt reduction in blood pressure with a beta-blocker to reduce shear stresses on the aorta. Intravenous agents such as esmolol (Brevibloc) or labetalol (Normodyne) are usually chosen. Sodium nitroprusside may be added to beta-blocker therapy for rapid blood pressure control in appropriate patients. The patient may require multiple antihypertensive medications. If hypertension is refractory, one must consider renal artery hypertension due to the dissection causing renal malperfusion.2 Acute pain may also worsen hypertension, and appropriate analgesia should be used.
Definitive therapy in acute dissection
Patients with acute type A dissection require emergency surgery,2,3 as they are at risk for life-threatening complications including cardiac tamponade from hemopericardium, aortic rupture, stroke, visceral ischemia, and heart failure due to severe aortic regurgitation. When aortic regurgitation complicates acute type A dissection, some patients are adequately treated by resuspension of the aortic valve leaflets, while others require valve-sparing root replacement or prosthetic aortic valve replacement.
Surgical therapy is associated with a survival benefit compared with medical therapy in acute type A dissection.1 The 14-day mortality rate for acute type A dissection treated surgically is about 25%.1 Patients with high-risk features such as heart failure, shock, tamponade, and mesenteric ischemia have a worse prognosis compared with those without these features.2,12,13
Acute type B aortic dissection carries a lower rate of death than type A dissection.1–3 In the IRAD cohort, the early mortality rate in those with type B dissection treated medically was about 10%.1 However, when complications such as malperfusion, shock, or requirement for surgery occur in type B dissection, the mortality rate is much higher,2,14 with rates of 25% to 50% reported.2
Thus, initial medical therapy is the preferred approach to acute type B dissection, and surgery or endovascular therapy is reserved for patients with acute complications.2,3 Typical indications for surgery or endovascular therapy in type B dissection include visceral or limb ischemia, aortic rupture, refractory pain, and aneurysmal dilation (Table 3).2
Endovascular therapy in aortic dissection
The high mortality rate with open surgery in acute type B dissection has spurred tremendous interest in endovascular treatments for complications involving the descending aorta and branch vessels.2
Fenestration of the aorta and stenting of branch vessels were the earliest techniques used in complicated type B dissection. By fenestrating (ie, opening) the intimal flap, blood can flow from the false lumen into the true lumen, decompressing the distended false lumen.
Endovascular stenting is used for acute aortic rupture, for malperfusion syndromes, and for rapidly enlarging false lumens. Endovascular grafts may cover the area of a primary intimal tear and thus eliminate the flow into the false channel and promote false-lumen thrombosis. Many patients with complicated type B dissection are treated with a hybrid approach, in which one segment of the aorta, such as the aortic arch, is treated surgically, while the descending aorta receives an endovascular graft.2
Patients with a type B dissection treated medically are at risk for late complications, including aneurysmal enlargement and subsequent aortic rupture. The Investigation of Stent Grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) trial included 140 patients with uncomplicated type B dissection and compared drug therapy with endovascular stent grafting.15 After 2 years of follow-up, there was no difference in the rate of death between the two treatment groups. Patients receiving endovascular grafts had a higher rate of false-lumen thrombosis.
More studies are under way to examine the role of endovascular therapy in uncomplicated type B dissection.
AORTIC DISSECTION VARIANTS
Aortic intramural hematoma
Aortic intramural hematoma is a form of acute aortic syndrome in which a hematoma develops in the aortic media and no intimal flap is visualized either by imaging or at surgery.2,3,16 It is important to recognize this clinical entity in a patient presenting with acute chest or back pain, as sometimes it is mistaken for a “thrombus in a nonaneurysmal aorta.” Intramural hematoma accounts for 5% to 25% of acute aortic syndromes, depending on the study population (it is more common in Asian studies).2,3,17 It may present with symptoms similar to classic aortic dissection and is classified as type A or type B, depending on whether the ascending aorta is involved.
Patients with an intramural hematoma may progress to having complications such as hemopericardium, classic aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or aneurysmal dilation.2,3 However, many cases of type B aortic intramural hematoma result in complete resorption of the hematoma over time. In general, like classic aortic dissection, type A intramural hematoma is treated with emergency surgery and type B with initial medical therapy.2,3
There are reports from Southeast Asia of successful initial medical therapy for type A intramural hematoma, with surgery used for acute complications.18 In the Western literature, improved outcomes are reported with initial surgical therapy.17 Given the unpredictable nature of type A intramural hematoma, most experts recommend surgical therapy for appropriate candidates with acute type A intramural hematoma.2,3,19
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta, another acute aortic syndrome, results from acute penetration of an atherosclerotic aortic lesion through the internal elastic lamina into the media.2,3,20 It is often associated with bleeding into the media, or intramural hematoma. While the ulcer may be found incidentally on imaging studies, especially in patients with severe aortic atherosclerosis, the typical presentation is acute, severe chest or back pain. It occurs most often in the descending aorta and the abdominal aorta.
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer may lead to pseudoaneurysm formation, focal aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or late aortic aneurysm.2
LONG-TERM MANAGEMENT AFTER AORTIC DISSECTION
After hospital discharge, patients with aortic dissection require lifelong management. This includes blood pressure control, lifestyle modification, serial imaging of the aorta with CT or MRI, patient education about the condition, and, when appropriate, screening of family members for aortic disease.5,21
Reported survival rates after hospitalization for type A dissection are 52% to 94% at 1 year and 45% to 88% at 5 years.2,22 The 10-year actuarial survival rate for those with acute dissection who survive the acute hospitalization is reported as 30% to 60%. Long-term survival rates after acute type B dissection have been reported at 56% to 92% at 1 year and 48% to 82% at 5 years.23 Survival rates depend on many factors, including the underlying condition, the age of the patient, and comorbidities.
It is important to treat hypertension after aortic dissection, with a goal blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg or less for most patients. Older studies found higher mortality rates with poorly controlled hypertension. Beta-blockers are the drugs of first choice. Even in the absence of hypertension, long-term beta-blocker therapy should be used to lessen the aortic stress and force of ventricular contraction.
Genetic evaluation
Genetically triggered causes of aortic dissection should be considered. In many circumstances, referral to a medical geneticist or other practitioner knowledgeable in these conditions is important when these disorders are being evaluated (Table 2).
Many of these disorders have an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the patient should be asked about a family history of aortic disease, aortic dissection, or unexplained sudden death. Features of Marfan syndrome, Loeys-Dietz syndrome, and familial thoracic aortic aneurysm syndromes should be sought. Through comprehensive family studies, it is now recognized that up to 20% of patients with thoracic aortic disease (such as aneurysm or dissection) have another first-degree relative with thoracic aortic disease.2,3,24 Thus, first-degree relatives of patients with aortic aneurysm or dissection should be screened for thoracic aortic aneurysm disease.
Research into molecular genetics is providing a better understanding of the genetics of aortic dissection.3 New mutations associated with aortic dissection are being discovered in signaling pathways as well as elements critical for the integrity of the vascular wall.2,3 However, at present, most patients with aortic dissection will not have a specific identifiable genetic defect.
Not only does genetic testing enable the accurate diagnosis of the affected individual, but also treatments are often based on this diagnosis.3 Importantly, the identification of a specific gene mutation (ie, in TGFBR1 or 2, FBN1, ACTA2, MYH11, and COL3A1) in an affected individual has the potential to identify other family members at risk.3
Follow-up imaging
It is important to continue to image the aorta after aortic dissection. Patients may develop progressive dilation or aneurysm formation of the dissected aorta, pseudoaneurysm formation after repair, or recurrent dissection. Many patients require additional surgery on the aorta because of late aneurysm formation.
CT or MRI is usually performed at least every 6 months in the first 2 years after dissection and at least annually thereafter. More centers are choosing MRI for long-term follow-up to avoid the repeated radiation exposure with serial CT.
Patient education
Besides receiving medical therapy and undergoing imaging, patients with aortic dissection should be educated about this condition.5,21 The patient should be aware of symptoms suggesting dissection and should be instructed to seek attention for any concerning symptoms.
Lifestyle modifications are also important. The patient should be educated about safe activity levels and to avoid heavy isometric exercise, such as weight-lifting. Some patients will have to cease their current occupation because of activity restrictions.
- Hagan PG, Nienaber CA, Isselbacher EM, et al. International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD): new insights from an old disease. JAMA 2000; 283:897–903.
- Braverman AC, Thompson R, Sanchez L. Diseases of the aorta. In:Bonow RO, Mann DL, Zipes DP, Libby P. Braunwald’s Heart Disease, 9th Edition. Elsevier, Philadelphia, 2011.
- Hiratzka LF, Bakris GL, Beckman JA, et al. American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines; American Association for Thoracic Surgery; American College of Radiology; American Stroke Association; Society of Cardiovascular Anesthesiologists; Society for Cardiovascular Angiography and Interventions; Society of Interventional Radiology; Society of Thoracic Surgeons; Society for Vascular Medicine. Guidelines for the management of patients with thoracic aortic disease. Circulation 2010; 121:e266–e369.
- Rogers AM, Herman LK, Booher AM, et al. Sensitivity of the aortic dissection detection risk score, a novel guideline-based tool for identification of acute aortic dissection at initial presentation. Results from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2011; 123:2213–2228.
- Braverman AC. Acute aortic dissection: clinician update. Circulation 2010; 122:184–188.
- Davies RR, Gallo A, Coady MA, et al. Novel measurement of relative aortic size predicts rupture of thoracic aortic aneurysms. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 81:169–177.
- Pape LA, Tsai TT, Isselbacher EM, et al. Aortic diameter >5.5 cm is not a good predictor of type A aortic dissection. Observations from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2007; 116:1120–1127.
- Parish LM, Gorman JH, Kahn S, et al. Aortic size in acute type A dissection: implications for preventative ascending aortic replacement. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2009; 35:941–945.
- Gaul C, Dietrich W, Erbguth FJ. Neurological symptoms in acute aortic dissection: a challenge for neurologists. Cerebrovasc Dis 2008; 26:1–8.
- Upchurch GR, Nienaber C, Fattori R, et al Acute aortic dissection presenting with primarily abdominal pain: a rare manifestation of a deadly disease. Ann Vasc Surg 2005; 19:367–373.
- Suzuki T, Distante A, Zizza A, et al. Diagnosis of acute aortic dissection by D-dimer: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection substudy on biomarkers (IRAD-bio) experience. Circulation 2009; 119:2702–2707.
- Tsai TT, Trimarchi S, Neinaber CA. Acute aortic dissection: perspectives from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Eur J Vasc Endovasc Surg 2009; 37:149–159.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Contemporary results of surgery in acute type A aortic dissection: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection experience. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg 2005; 129:112–122.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Role and results of surgery in acute type B aortic dissection. Insights from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Circulation 2006; 114(suppl 1):I-357–I-364.
- Nienaber CA, Rousseau H, Eggbrecht H, et al. Randomized comparison of strategies for type B aortic dissection. The Investigation of STEnt grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) Trial. Circulation 2009; 120:2519–2528.
- Evangelista A, Mukherjee D, Mehta RH, et al. Acute intramural hematoma of the aorta. Circulation 2005; 111:1063–1070.
- Pelzel JM, Braverman AC, Hirsch AT, Harris KM. International heterogeneity in diagnostic frequency and clinical outcomes of ascending aortic intramural hematoma. J Am Soc Echo 2007; 20:1260–1268.
- Song JK, Yim JH, Ahn JM, et al. Outcomes of patients with acute type A aortic intramural hematoma. Circulation 2009; 120:2046–2052.
- Harris KM, Pelzel JM, Braverman AC. Letter regarding article, “Outcomes of patients with acute type A intramural hematoma.” Circulation 2010; 121:e456.
- Sundt TM. Intramural hematoma and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta. Ann Thorac Surg 2007; 83:S835–S841.
- Juang D, Braverman A, Eagle K. Aortic dissection. Circulation 2008; 118:e507–e510.
- Tsai TT, Evangelista A, Nienaber CA, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type A acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114(suppl I):I-350–I-356.
- Tsai TT, Fattori R, Trimarchi S, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type B acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114:2226–2231.
- Albornoz G, Coady MA, Roberts M, et al. Familial thoracic aortic aneurysms and dissections: incidence, modes of inheritance, and phenotypic patterns. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 82:1400–1405.
A 50-year-old man developed severe chest pain and collapsed to the floor. The pain was sudden in onset, was burning in quality, and was located in the center of his chest. Emergency medical services arrived a few minutes later and found the patient diaphoretic and cyanotic, with an initial blood pressure of 74/54 mm Hg and a heart rate of 125 beats per minute. He was rushed to the hospital.
His medical history was unremarkable. He smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years. His father died of a “heart attack” at age 52.
In the emergency department he underwent echocardiography with a portable handheld unit, which showed a pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade. He was sent for emergency computed tomography of the chest, which revealed an aneurysm of the aortic root and acute type A (Stanford classification) aortic dissection with hemopericardium.
He underwent emergency cardiac surgery. At the time of surgery, he was in cardiogenic shock from aortic dissection complicated by severe aortic regurgitation and cardiac tamponade with hemopericardium. The aortic valve was trileaflet. A 27-mm St. Jude composite valve graft root replacement was performed.
The patient did well and was discharged home 7 days after surgery. Pathologic study of the aorta revealed cystic medial degeneration. He did not have any features of Marfan syndrome or Loeys-Dietz syndrome. His three children underwent evaluation, and each had a normal physical examination and echocardiographic test results.
A HIGH INDEX OF SUSPICION IS CRITICAL
Acute aortic dissection is the most common aortic catastrophe, with an incidence estimated at 5 to 30 per 1 million people per year, amounting to nearly 10,000 cases per year in the United States.1–4
The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection has many potential pitfalls.2,3 Aortic dissection may mimic other more common conditions, such as coronary ischemia, pleurisy, heart failure, stroke, and acute abdominal illness. Because acute aortic dissection may be rapidly fatal, one must maintain a high index of suspicion.2,3 Prompt diagnosis and emergency treatment are critical.
WHAT CAUSES AORTIC DISSECTION?
One hypothesis is that acute aortic dissection is caused by a primary tear in the aortic intima, with blood from the aortic lumen penetrating into the diseased media leading to dissection and creating a true and false lumen.2 Another is that rupture of the vasa vasorum leads to hemorrhage in the aortic wall with subsequent intimal disruption, creating the intimal tear and aortic dissection.
Once a dissection starts, pulsatile flow of blood within the aortic wall causes it to extend. The dissection flap may be localized, but it often spirals the entire length of the aorta. Distention of the false lumen with blood may cause the intimal flap to compress the true lumen and potentially lead to malperfusion syndromes.
CLASSIFIED ACCORDING TO LOCATION
It is important to recognize the location of the dissection, as the prognosis and treatment depend on whether the ascending aorta is involved.2,3 For classification purposes, the ascending aorta is the portion proximal to the brachiocephalic artery, while the descending aorta is the portion distal to the left subclavian artery.3
The DeBakey classification defines a type I aortic dissection as one that begins in the ascending aorta and extends at least to the aortic arch or beyond. Type II dissections involve the ascending aorta only, while type III dissections begin in the descending aorta, most often just distal to the left subclavian artery.
The Stanford classification scheme divides dissections into type A and type B. Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, while type B dissections do not involve the ascending aorta.
Which classification scheme is used is not important. However, identifying patients with dissection of the ascending aorta (DeBakey type I or type II or Stanford type A) is critical, as emergency cardiac surgery is recommended for this type of dissection.2,3 For the purposes of this paper, the Stanford classification scheme will be used.
Dissection that involves the ascending aorta most commonly occurs in people ages 50 to 60, whereas acute dissection of the descending aorta typically occurs in people 10 years older.1,2
An acute aortic dissection is one that has occurred within 2 weeks of symptom onset. A chronic dissection is one that occurred more than 2 weeks after symptoms began.
DISEASES AND CONDITIONS ASSOCIATED WITH AORTIC DISSECTION
Hypertension and disorders leading to disruption of the normal structure and function of the aortic wall. About 75% of patients with acute aortic dissection have underlying hypertension.1–3
Cystic medial degeneration is a common pathologic feature in many cases of aortic dissection.
Cocaine use and intense weight-lifting increase the shear stresses on the aorta.2,3
Inflammatory aortic diseases such as giant cell arteritis.
Pregnancy can be complicated by aortic dissection, usually in the setting of an underlying aortopathy.5
Iatrogenic aortic dissection accounts for about 4% of cases, as a result of cardiac surgery, catheterization, stenting, or use of an intra-aortic balloon pump.1
Aortic aneurysm. Patients with thoracic aortic aneurysm are at higher risk of aortic dissection, and the larger the aortic diameter, the higher the risk.2,3,6 In the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD), the average size of the aorta was about 5.3 cm at the time of acute dissection. Importantly, about 40% of acute dissections of the ascending aorta occur in patients with ascending aortic diameters less than 5.0 cm.7,8
Thus, many factors are associated with acute dissection, and specific reasons leading to an individual’s susceptibility to sudden dissection are poorly understood.
CLINICAL FEATURES OF ACUTE AORTIC DISSECTION
Because the symptoms of acute dissection may mimic other, more common conditions, one of the most important factors in the diagnosis of aortic dissection is a high clinical suspicion.1–3
What is the pretest risk of disease?
Recently, the American College of Cardiology (ACC) and the American Heart Association (AHA) released joint guidelines on thoracic aortic disease.3 These guidelines provide an approach to patients who have complaints that may represent acute thoracic aortic dissection, the intent being to establish a pretest risk of disease to be used to guide decision-making.3
The focused evaluation includes specific questions about underlying conditions, symptoms, and findings on examination that may greatly increase the likelihood of acute dissection. These include:
- High-risk conditions and historical features associated with aortic dissection, such as Marfan syndrome and other genetic disorders (Table 2), bicuspid aortic valve, family history of thoracic aortic aneurysm or dissection, known thoracic aortic aneurysm, and recent aortic manipulation
- Pain in the chest, back, or abdomen with high-risk features (eg, abrupt onset, severe intensity, or a ripping or tearing quality)
- High-risk findings on examination (eg, pulse deficits, new aortic regurgitation, hypotension, shock, or systolic blood pressure differences).
Using this information, expedited aortic imaging and treatment algorithms have been devised to improve the diagnosis.3
Using the IRAD database of more than 2,500 acute dissections, the diagnostic algorithm proposed in the ACC/AHA guidelines was shown to be highly sensitive (about 95%) for detecting acute aortic dissection.4 In addition, using this score may expedite evaluation by classifying certain patients as being at high risk of acute dissection.3,4
Important to recognize is that almost two-thirds of patients who suffered dissection in this large database did not have one of the “high-risk conditions” associated with dissection.4 Additionally, the specificity of the ACC/AHA algorithm is unknown, and further testing is necessary.4
Acute onset of severe pain
More than 90% of acute dissections present with acute pain in the chest or the back, or both.1–3 The pain is usually severe, of sudden onset, and often described as sharp or, occasionally, tearing, ripping, or stabbing. The pain usually differs from that of coronary ischemia, being most severe at its onset as opposed to the less intense, crescendo-like pain of angina or myocardial infarction. The pain may migrate as the dissection progresses along the length of the aorta or to branch vessels. It may abate, leading to a false sense of security in the patient and the physician.3 “Painless” dissection occurs in a minority, usually in those with syncope, neurologic symptoms, or heart failure.1–3
The patient with acute dissection may be anxious and may feel a sense of doom.
Acute heart failure, related to severe aortic regurgitation, may be a predominant symptom in dissection of the ascending aorta.
Syncope may occur as a result of aortic rupture, hemopericardium with cardiac tamponade, or acute neurologic complications.
Vascular insufficiency may occur in any branch vessel, leading to clinical syndromes that include acute myocardial infarction, stroke, paraplegia, paraparesis, mesenteric ischemia, and limb ischemia.
PHYSICAL FINDINGS CAN VARY WIDELY
Findings on physical examination in acute aortic dissection vary widely depending on underlying conditions and on the specific complications of the dissection.
Although the classic presentation is acute, severe pain in the chest or back in a severely hypertensive patient with aortic regurgitation and pulse deficits, most patients do not have all these characteristics.4 Most patients with type B dissection are hypertensive on presentation, but many with type A dissection present with normal blood pressure or hypotension.1 Pulse deficits (unequal or absent pulses) are reported in 10% to 30% of acute dissections and may be intermittent as the dynamic movement of the dissection flap interferes with branch vessel perfusion.1–3
- Aortic leaflet prolapse or distortion of the leaflet alignment
- Malcoaptation of the aortic leaflets from dilation of the aortic root and annulus
- Prolapse of the intimal flap across the aortic valve, interfering with valve function
- Preexisting aortic regurgitation from underlying aortic root aneurysm or primary aortic valve disease (such as a bicuspid aortic valve).
Neurologic manifestations are most common in dissection of the ascending aorta and are particularly important to recognize, as they may dominate the clinical presentation and lead to delay in the diagnosis of dissection.2,3 Neurologic syndromes include:
- Persistent or transient ischemic stroke
- Spinal cord ischemia
- Ischemic neuropathy
- Hypoxic encephalopathy.
These manifestations are related to malperfusion to branches supplying the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves.9
Syncope is relatively common in aortic dissection and may be related to acute hypotension caused by cardiac tamponade or aortic rupture, cerebral vessel obstruction, or activation of cerebral baroreceptors.2,9 It is important to consider aortic dissection in the differential diagnosis in cases of unexplained syncope.3
Aortic dissections may extend into the abdominal aorta, leading to vascular complications involving one or more branch vessels.10 The renal artery is involved in at least 5% to 10% of cases and may lead to renal ischemia, infarction, renal insufficiency, or refractory hypertension.2Mesenteric ischemia or infarction occurs in about 5% of dissections, may be difficult to diagnose, and is particularly dangerous.2,8 Aortic dissection may extend into the iliac arteries and may cause acute lower extremity ischemia.
Acute myocardial infarction due to involvement of the dissection flap causing malperfusion of a coronary artery occurs in 1% to 7% of acute type A aortic dissections.1–3 The right coronary artery (Figure 2) is most commonly involved, leading to acute inferior myocardial infarction. Acute myocardial ischemia and infarction in the setting of dissection may lead to a delay in the diagnosis of dissection and to bleeding complications from antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs given to treat the acute coronary syndrome.
Cardiac tamponade, occurring in about 10% of acute type A dissections, portends a higher risk of death.2,3
Additional clinical features of aortic dissection include a left-sided pleural effusion, usually related to an inflammatory response. An acute hemothorax may occur from rupture or leaking of a descending aortic dissection.
FINDINGS ON RADIOGRAPHY AND ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY
Electrocardiography usually has normal or nonspecific findings, unless acute myocardial infarction complicates the dissection.
D-DIMER LEVELS
Biomarkers for the diagnosis of acute aortic dissection are of great interest.
D-dimer levels rise in acute aortic dissection as they do in pulmonary embolism.11 A D-dimer level greater than 1,600 ng/mL within the first 6 hours has a very high positive likelihood ratio for dissection, so this test may be useful in identifying patients with a high probability for dissection. In the first 24 hours after symptom onset, a D-dimer level of less than 500 ng/mL has a negative predictive value of 95%. Thus, elevations in D-dimer may help decide which imaging to perform in a patient presenting with chest pain or suspicion of dissection.11
However, D-dimer levels may not be elevated in dissection variants, such as aortic intramural hematoma or penetrating aortic ulcer. Additionally, once 24 hours have elapsed since the dissection started, D-dimer levels may no longer be elevated. The current ACC/AHA guidelines on thoracic aortic disease concluded that the D-dimer level cannot be used to rule out aortic dissection in high-risk individuals.3
Additional studies may clarify the appropriate role of the D-dimer assay in diagnosing aortic dissection.
DEFINITIVE IMAGING STUDIES: CT, MRI, TEE
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) all have very high sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of aortic dissection.2,3 The choice of imaging study often depends on the availability of these studies, with CT and TEE being the most commonly performed initial studies.
MRI is outstanding for detecting and following aortic dissection, but it is usually not the initial study performed because of the time required for image acquisition and because it is generally not available on an emergency basis.
While transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) can detect aortic dissection, its sensitivity is much lower than that of other imaging tests.2,3 Therefore, negative findings on TTE do not exclude aortic dissection.
MANAGEMENT OF AORTIC DISSECTION
When acute aortic dissection is diagnosed, multidisciplinary evaluation and treatment are necessary. Time is of the essence, as the death rate in acute dissection may be as high as 1% per hour during the first 24 hours.1–3 All patients with acute aortic dissection, whether type A or type B, should be transferred to a tertiary care center with a staff experienced in managing aortic dissection and its complications.3 Emergency surgery is recommended for type A aortic dissection, whereas type B dissection is generally treated medically unless complications occur.2,3
The cornerstone of drug therapy is the prompt reduction in blood pressure with a beta-blocker to reduce shear stresses on the aorta. Intravenous agents such as esmolol (Brevibloc) or labetalol (Normodyne) are usually chosen. Sodium nitroprusside may be added to beta-blocker therapy for rapid blood pressure control in appropriate patients. The patient may require multiple antihypertensive medications. If hypertension is refractory, one must consider renal artery hypertension due to the dissection causing renal malperfusion.2 Acute pain may also worsen hypertension, and appropriate analgesia should be used.
Definitive therapy in acute dissection
Patients with acute type A dissection require emergency surgery,2,3 as they are at risk for life-threatening complications including cardiac tamponade from hemopericardium, aortic rupture, stroke, visceral ischemia, and heart failure due to severe aortic regurgitation. When aortic regurgitation complicates acute type A dissection, some patients are adequately treated by resuspension of the aortic valve leaflets, while others require valve-sparing root replacement or prosthetic aortic valve replacement.
Surgical therapy is associated with a survival benefit compared with medical therapy in acute type A dissection.1 The 14-day mortality rate for acute type A dissection treated surgically is about 25%.1 Patients with high-risk features such as heart failure, shock, tamponade, and mesenteric ischemia have a worse prognosis compared with those without these features.2,12,13
Acute type B aortic dissection carries a lower rate of death than type A dissection.1–3 In the IRAD cohort, the early mortality rate in those with type B dissection treated medically was about 10%.1 However, when complications such as malperfusion, shock, or requirement for surgery occur in type B dissection, the mortality rate is much higher,2,14 with rates of 25% to 50% reported.2
Thus, initial medical therapy is the preferred approach to acute type B dissection, and surgery or endovascular therapy is reserved for patients with acute complications.2,3 Typical indications for surgery or endovascular therapy in type B dissection include visceral or limb ischemia, aortic rupture, refractory pain, and aneurysmal dilation (Table 3).2
Endovascular therapy in aortic dissection
The high mortality rate with open surgery in acute type B dissection has spurred tremendous interest in endovascular treatments for complications involving the descending aorta and branch vessels.2
Fenestration of the aorta and stenting of branch vessels were the earliest techniques used in complicated type B dissection. By fenestrating (ie, opening) the intimal flap, blood can flow from the false lumen into the true lumen, decompressing the distended false lumen.
Endovascular stenting is used for acute aortic rupture, for malperfusion syndromes, and for rapidly enlarging false lumens. Endovascular grafts may cover the area of a primary intimal tear and thus eliminate the flow into the false channel and promote false-lumen thrombosis. Many patients with complicated type B dissection are treated with a hybrid approach, in which one segment of the aorta, such as the aortic arch, is treated surgically, while the descending aorta receives an endovascular graft.2
Patients with a type B dissection treated medically are at risk for late complications, including aneurysmal enlargement and subsequent aortic rupture. The Investigation of Stent Grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) trial included 140 patients with uncomplicated type B dissection and compared drug therapy with endovascular stent grafting.15 After 2 years of follow-up, there was no difference in the rate of death between the two treatment groups. Patients receiving endovascular grafts had a higher rate of false-lumen thrombosis.
More studies are under way to examine the role of endovascular therapy in uncomplicated type B dissection.
AORTIC DISSECTION VARIANTS
Aortic intramural hematoma
Aortic intramural hematoma is a form of acute aortic syndrome in which a hematoma develops in the aortic media and no intimal flap is visualized either by imaging or at surgery.2,3,16 It is important to recognize this clinical entity in a patient presenting with acute chest or back pain, as sometimes it is mistaken for a “thrombus in a nonaneurysmal aorta.” Intramural hematoma accounts for 5% to 25% of acute aortic syndromes, depending on the study population (it is more common in Asian studies).2,3,17 It may present with symptoms similar to classic aortic dissection and is classified as type A or type B, depending on whether the ascending aorta is involved.
Patients with an intramural hematoma may progress to having complications such as hemopericardium, classic aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or aneurysmal dilation.2,3 However, many cases of type B aortic intramural hematoma result in complete resorption of the hematoma over time. In general, like classic aortic dissection, type A intramural hematoma is treated with emergency surgery and type B with initial medical therapy.2,3
There are reports from Southeast Asia of successful initial medical therapy for type A intramural hematoma, with surgery used for acute complications.18 In the Western literature, improved outcomes are reported with initial surgical therapy.17 Given the unpredictable nature of type A intramural hematoma, most experts recommend surgical therapy for appropriate candidates with acute type A intramural hematoma.2,3,19
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta, another acute aortic syndrome, results from acute penetration of an atherosclerotic aortic lesion through the internal elastic lamina into the media.2,3,20 It is often associated with bleeding into the media, or intramural hematoma. While the ulcer may be found incidentally on imaging studies, especially in patients with severe aortic atherosclerosis, the typical presentation is acute, severe chest or back pain. It occurs most often in the descending aorta and the abdominal aorta.
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer may lead to pseudoaneurysm formation, focal aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or late aortic aneurysm.2
LONG-TERM MANAGEMENT AFTER AORTIC DISSECTION
After hospital discharge, patients with aortic dissection require lifelong management. This includes blood pressure control, lifestyle modification, serial imaging of the aorta with CT or MRI, patient education about the condition, and, when appropriate, screening of family members for aortic disease.5,21
Reported survival rates after hospitalization for type A dissection are 52% to 94% at 1 year and 45% to 88% at 5 years.2,22 The 10-year actuarial survival rate for those with acute dissection who survive the acute hospitalization is reported as 30% to 60%. Long-term survival rates after acute type B dissection have been reported at 56% to 92% at 1 year and 48% to 82% at 5 years.23 Survival rates depend on many factors, including the underlying condition, the age of the patient, and comorbidities.
It is important to treat hypertension after aortic dissection, with a goal blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg or less for most patients. Older studies found higher mortality rates with poorly controlled hypertension. Beta-blockers are the drugs of first choice. Even in the absence of hypertension, long-term beta-blocker therapy should be used to lessen the aortic stress and force of ventricular contraction.
Genetic evaluation
Genetically triggered causes of aortic dissection should be considered. In many circumstances, referral to a medical geneticist or other practitioner knowledgeable in these conditions is important when these disorders are being evaluated (Table 2).
Many of these disorders have an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the patient should be asked about a family history of aortic disease, aortic dissection, or unexplained sudden death. Features of Marfan syndrome, Loeys-Dietz syndrome, and familial thoracic aortic aneurysm syndromes should be sought. Through comprehensive family studies, it is now recognized that up to 20% of patients with thoracic aortic disease (such as aneurysm or dissection) have another first-degree relative with thoracic aortic disease.2,3,24 Thus, first-degree relatives of patients with aortic aneurysm or dissection should be screened for thoracic aortic aneurysm disease.
Research into molecular genetics is providing a better understanding of the genetics of aortic dissection.3 New mutations associated with aortic dissection are being discovered in signaling pathways as well as elements critical for the integrity of the vascular wall.2,3 However, at present, most patients with aortic dissection will not have a specific identifiable genetic defect.
Not only does genetic testing enable the accurate diagnosis of the affected individual, but also treatments are often based on this diagnosis.3 Importantly, the identification of a specific gene mutation (ie, in TGFBR1 or 2, FBN1, ACTA2, MYH11, and COL3A1) in an affected individual has the potential to identify other family members at risk.3
Follow-up imaging
It is important to continue to image the aorta after aortic dissection. Patients may develop progressive dilation or aneurysm formation of the dissected aorta, pseudoaneurysm formation after repair, or recurrent dissection. Many patients require additional surgery on the aorta because of late aneurysm formation.
CT or MRI is usually performed at least every 6 months in the first 2 years after dissection and at least annually thereafter. More centers are choosing MRI for long-term follow-up to avoid the repeated radiation exposure with serial CT.
Patient education
Besides receiving medical therapy and undergoing imaging, patients with aortic dissection should be educated about this condition.5,21 The patient should be aware of symptoms suggesting dissection and should be instructed to seek attention for any concerning symptoms.
Lifestyle modifications are also important. The patient should be educated about safe activity levels and to avoid heavy isometric exercise, such as weight-lifting. Some patients will have to cease their current occupation because of activity restrictions.
A 50-year-old man developed severe chest pain and collapsed to the floor. The pain was sudden in onset, was burning in quality, and was located in the center of his chest. Emergency medical services arrived a few minutes later and found the patient diaphoretic and cyanotic, with an initial blood pressure of 74/54 mm Hg and a heart rate of 125 beats per minute. He was rushed to the hospital.
His medical history was unremarkable. He smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years. His father died of a “heart attack” at age 52.
In the emergency department he underwent echocardiography with a portable handheld unit, which showed a pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade. He was sent for emergency computed tomography of the chest, which revealed an aneurysm of the aortic root and acute type A (Stanford classification) aortic dissection with hemopericardium.
He underwent emergency cardiac surgery. At the time of surgery, he was in cardiogenic shock from aortic dissection complicated by severe aortic regurgitation and cardiac tamponade with hemopericardium. The aortic valve was trileaflet. A 27-mm St. Jude composite valve graft root replacement was performed.
The patient did well and was discharged home 7 days after surgery. Pathologic study of the aorta revealed cystic medial degeneration. He did not have any features of Marfan syndrome or Loeys-Dietz syndrome. His three children underwent evaluation, and each had a normal physical examination and echocardiographic test results.
A HIGH INDEX OF SUSPICION IS CRITICAL
Acute aortic dissection is the most common aortic catastrophe, with an incidence estimated at 5 to 30 per 1 million people per year, amounting to nearly 10,000 cases per year in the United States.1–4
The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection has many potential pitfalls.2,3 Aortic dissection may mimic other more common conditions, such as coronary ischemia, pleurisy, heart failure, stroke, and acute abdominal illness. Because acute aortic dissection may be rapidly fatal, one must maintain a high index of suspicion.2,3 Prompt diagnosis and emergency treatment are critical.
WHAT CAUSES AORTIC DISSECTION?
One hypothesis is that acute aortic dissection is caused by a primary tear in the aortic intima, with blood from the aortic lumen penetrating into the diseased media leading to dissection and creating a true and false lumen.2 Another is that rupture of the vasa vasorum leads to hemorrhage in the aortic wall with subsequent intimal disruption, creating the intimal tear and aortic dissection.
Once a dissection starts, pulsatile flow of blood within the aortic wall causes it to extend. The dissection flap may be localized, but it often spirals the entire length of the aorta. Distention of the false lumen with blood may cause the intimal flap to compress the true lumen and potentially lead to malperfusion syndromes.
CLASSIFIED ACCORDING TO LOCATION
It is important to recognize the location of the dissection, as the prognosis and treatment depend on whether the ascending aorta is involved.2,3 For classification purposes, the ascending aorta is the portion proximal to the brachiocephalic artery, while the descending aorta is the portion distal to the left subclavian artery.3
The DeBakey classification defines a type I aortic dissection as one that begins in the ascending aorta and extends at least to the aortic arch or beyond. Type II dissections involve the ascending aorta only, while type III dissections begin in the descending aorta, most often just distal to the left subclavian artery.
The Stanford classification scheme divides dissections into type A and type B. Type A dissections involve the ascending aorta, while type B dissections do not involve the ascending aorta.
Which classification scheme is used is not important. However, identifying patients with dissection of the ascending aorta (DeBakey type I or type II or Stanford type A) is critical, as emergency cardiac surgery is recommended for this type of dissection.2,3 For the purposes of this paper, the Stanford classification scheme will be used.
Dissection that involves the ascending aorta most commonly occurs in people ages 50 to 60, whereas acute dissection of the descending aorta typically occurs in people 10 years older.1,2
An acute aortic dissection is one that has occurred within 2 weeks of symptom onset. A chronic dissection is one that occurred more than 2 weeks after symptoms began.
DISEASES AND CONDITIONS ASSOCIATED WITH AORTIC DISSECTION
Hypertension and disorders leading to disruption of the normal structure and function of the aortic wall. About 75% of patients with acute aortic dissection have underlying hypertension.1–3
Cystic medial degeneration is a common pathologic feature in many cases of aortic dissection.
Cocaine use and intense weight-lifting increase the shear stresses on the aorta.2,3
Inflammatory aortic diseases such as giant cell arteritis.
Pregnancy can be complicated by aortic dissection, usually in the setting of an underlying aortopathy.5
Iatrogenic aortic dissection accounts for about 4% of cases, as a result of cardiac surgery, catheterization, stenting, or use of an intra-aortic balloon pump.1
Aortic aneurysm. Patients with thoracic aortic aneurysm are at higher risk of aortic dissection, and the larger the aortic diameter, the higher the risk.2,3,6 In the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD), the average size of the aorta was about 5.3 cm at the time of acute dissection. Importantly, about 40% of acute dissections of the ascending aorta occur in patients with ascending aortic diameters less than 5.0 cm.7,8
Thus, many factors are associated with acute dissection, and specific reasons leading to an individual’s susceptibility to sudden dissection are poorly understood.
CLINICAL FEATURES OF ACUTE AORTIC DISSECTION
Because the symptoms of acute dissection may mimic other, more common conditions, one of the most important factors in the diagnosis of aortic dissection is a high clinical suspicion.1–3
What is the pretest risk of disease?
Recently, the American College of Cardiology (ACC) and the American Heart Association (AHA) released joint guidelines on thoracic aortic disease.3 These guidelines provide an approach to patients who have complaints that may represent acute thoracic aortic dissection, the intent being to establish a pretest risk of disease to be used to guide decision-making.3
The focused evaluation includes specific questions about underlying conditions, symptoms, and findings on examination that may greatly increase the likelihood of acute dissection. These include:
- High-risk conditions and historical features associated with aortic dissection, such as Marfan syndrome and other genetic disorders (Table 2), bicuspid aortic valve, family history of thoracic aortic aneurysm or dissection, known thoracic aortic aneurysm, and recent aortic manipulation
- Pain in the chest, back, or abdomen with high-risk features (eg, abrupt onset, severe intensity, or a ripping or tearing quality)
- High-risk findings on examination (eg, pulse deficits, new aortic regurgitation, hypotension, shock, or systolic blood pressure differences).
Using this information, expedited aortic imaging and treatment algorithms have been devised to improve the diagnosis.3
Using the IRAD database of more than 2,500 acute dissections, the diagnostic algorithm proposed in the ACC/AHA guidelines was shown to be highly sensitive (about 95%) for detecting acute aortic dissection.4 In addition, using this score may expedite evaluation by classifying certain patients as being at high risk of acute dissection.3,4
Important to recognize is that almost two-thirds of patients who suffered dissection in this large database did not have one of the “high-risk conditions” associated with dissection.4 Additionally, the specificity of the ACC/AHA algorithm is unknown, and further testing is necessary.4
Acute onset of severe pain
More than 90% of acute dissections present with acute pain in the chest or the back, or both.1–3 The pain is usually severe, of sudden onset, and often described as sharp or, occasionally, tearing, ripping, or stabbing. The pain usually differs from that of coronary ischemia, being most severe at its onset as opposed to the less intense, crescendo-like pain of angina or myocardial infarction. The pain may migrate as the dissection progresses along the length of the aorta or to branch vessels. It may abate, leading to a false sense of security in the patient and the physician.3 “Painless” dissection occurs in a minority, usually in those with syncope, neurologic symptoms, or heart failure.1–3
The patient with acute dissection may be anxious and may feel a sense of doom.
Acute heart failure, related to severe aortic regurgitation, may be a predominant symptom in dissection of the ascending aorta.
Syncope may occur as a result of aortic rupture, hemopericardium with cardiac tamponade, or acute neurologic complications.
Vascular insufficiency may occur in any branch vessel, leading to clinical syndromes that include acute myocardial infarction, stroke, paraplegia, paraparesis, mesenteric ischemia, and limb ischemia.
PHYSICAL FINDINGS CAN VARY WIDELY
Findings on physical examination in acute aortic dissection vary widely depending on underlying conditions and on the specific complications of the dissection.
Although the classic presentation is acute, severe pain in the chest or back in a severely hypertensive patient with aortic regurgitation and pulse deficits, most patients do not have all these characteristics.4 Most patients with type B dissection are hypertensive on presentation, but many with type A dissection present with normal blood pressure or hypotension.1 Pulse deficits (unequal or absent pulses) are reported in 10% to 30% of acute dissections and may be intermittent as the dynamic movement of the dissection flap interferes with branch vessel perfusion.1–3
- Aortic leaflet prolapse or distortion of the leaflet alignment
- Malcoaptation of the aortic leaflets from dilation of the aortic root and annulus
- Prolapse of the intimal flap across the aortic valve, interfering with valve function
- Preexisting aortic regurgitation from underlying aortic root aneurysm or primary aortic valve disease (such as a bicuspid aortic valve).
Neurologic manifestations are most common in dissection of the ascending aorta and are particularly important to recognize, as they may dominate the clinical presentation and lead to delay in the diagnosis of dissection.2,3 Neurologic syndromes include:
- Persistent or transient ischemic stroke
- Spinal cord ischemia
- Ischemic neuropathy
- Hypoxic encephalopathy.
These manifestations are related to malperfusion to branches supplying the brain, spinal cord, or peripheral nerves.9
Syncope is relatively common in aortic dissection and may be related to acute hypotension caused by cardiac tamponade or aortic rupture, cerebral vessel obstruction, or activation of cerebral baroreceptors.2,9 It is important to consider aortic dissection in the differential diagnosis in cases of unexplained syncope.3
Aortic dissections may extend into the abdominal aorta, leading to vascular complications involving one or more branch vessels.10 The renal artery is involved in at least 5% to 10% of cases and may lead to renal ischemia, infarction, renal insufficiency, or refractory hypertension.2Mesenteric ischemia or infarction occurs in about 5% of dissections, may be difficult to diagnose, and is particularly dangerous.2,8 Aortic dissection may extend into the iliac arteries and may cause acute lower extremity ischemia.
Acute myocardial infarction due to involvement of the dissection flap causing malperfusion of a coronary artery occurs in 1% to 7% of acute type A aortic dissections.1–3 The right coronary artery (Figure 2) is most commonly involved, leading to acute inferior myocardial infarction. Acute myocardial ischemia and infarction in the setting of dissection may lead to a delay in the diagnosis of dissection and to bleeding complications from antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs given to treat the acute coronary syndrome.
Cardiac tamponade, occurring in about 10% of acute type A dissections, portends a higher risk of death.2,3
Additional clinical features of aortic dissection include a left-sided pleural effusion, usually related to an inflammatory response. An acute hemothorax may occur from rupture or leaking of a descending aortic dissection.
FINDINGS ON RADIOGRAPHY AND ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY
Electrocardiography usually has normal or nonspecific findings, unless acute myocardial infarction complicates the dissection.
D-DIMER LEVELS
Biomarkers for the diagnosis of acute aortic dissection are of great interest.
D-dimer levels rise in acute aortic dissection as they do in pulmonary embolism.11 A D-dimer level greater than 1,600 ng/mL within the first 6 hours has a very high positive likelihood ratio for dissection, so this test may be useful in identifying patients with a high probability for dissection. In the first 24 hours after symptom onset, a D-dimer level of less than 500 ng/mL has a negative predictive value of 95%. Thus, elevations in D-dimer may help decide which imaging to perform in a patient presenting with chest pain or suspicion of dissection.11
However, D-dimer levels may not be elevated in dissection variants, such as aortic intramural hematoma or penetrating aortic ulcer. Additionally, once 24 hours have elapsed since the dissection started, D-dimer levels may no longer be elevated. The current ACC/AHA guidelines on thoracic aortic disease concluded that the D-dimer level cannot be used to rule out aortic dissection in high-risk individuals.3
Additional studies may clarify the appropriate role of the D-dimer assay in diagnosing aortic dissection.
DEFINITIVE IMAGING STUDIES: CT, MRI, TEE
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) all have very high sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of aortic dissection.2,3 The choice of imaging study often depends on the availability of these studies, with CT and TEE being the most commonly performed initial studies.
MRI is outstanding for detecting and following aortic dissection, but it is usually not the initial study performed because of the time required for image acquisition and because it is generally not available on an emergency basis.
While transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) can detect aortic dissection, its sensitivity is much lower than that of other imaging tests.2,3 Therefore, negative findings on TTE do not exclude aortic dissection.
MANAGEMENT OF AORTIC DISSECTION
When acute aortic dissection is diagnosed, multidisciplinary evaluation and treatment are necessary. Time is of the essence, as the death rate in acute dissection may be as high as 1% per hour during the first 24 hours.1–3 All patients with acute aortic dissection, whether type A or type B, should be transferred to a tertiary care center with a staff experienced in managing aortic dissection and its complications.3 Emergency surgery is recommended for type A aortic dissection, whereas type B dissection is generally treated medically unless complications occur.2,3
The cornerstone of drug therapy is the prompt reduction in blood pressure with a beta-blocker to reduce shear stresses on the aorta. Intravenous agents such as esmolol (Brevibloc) or labetalol (Normodyne) are usually chosen. Sodium nitroprusside may be added to beta-blocker therapy for rapid blood pressure control in appropriate patients. The patient may require multiple antihypertensive medications. If hypertension is refractory, one must consider renal artery hypertension due to the dissection causing renal malperfusion.2 Acute pain may also worsen hypertension, and appropriate analgesia should be used.
Definitive therapy in acute dissection
Patients with acute type A dissection require emergency surgery,2,3 as they are at risk for life-threatening complications including cardiac tamponade from hemopericardium, aortic rupture, stroke, visceral ischemia, and heart failure due to severe aortic regurgitation. When aortic regurgitation complicates acute type A dissection, some patients are adequately treated by resuspension of the aortic valve leaflets, while others require valve-sparing root replacement or prosthetic aortic valve replacement.
Surgical therapy is associated with a survival benefit compared with medical therapy in acute type A dissection.1 The 14-day mortality rate for acute type A dissection treated surgically is about 25%.1 Patients with high-risk features such as heart failure, shock, tamponade, and mesenteric ischemia have a worse prognosis compared with those without these features.2,12,13
Acute type B aortic dissection carries a lower rate of death than type A dissection.1–3 In the IRAD cohort, the early mortality rate in those with type B dissection treated medically was about 10%.1 However, when complications such as malperfusion, shock, or requirement for surgery occur in type B dissection, the mortality rate is much higher,2,14 with rates of 25% to 50% reported.2
Thus, initial medical therapy is the preferred approach to acute type B dissection, and surgery or endovascular therapy is reserved for patients with acute complications.2,3 Typical indications for surgery or endovascular therapy in type B dissection include visceral or limb ischemia, aortic rupture, refractory pain, and aneurysmal dilation (Table 3).2
Endovascular therapy in aortic dissection
The high mortality rate with open surgery in acute type B dissection has spurred tremendous interest in endovascular treatments for complications involving the descending aorta and branch vessels.2
Fenestration of the aorta and stenting of branch vessels were the earliest techniques used in complicated type B dissection. By fenestrating (ie, opening) the intimal flap, blood can flow from the false lumen into the true lumen, decompressing the distended false lumen.
Endovascular stenting is used for acute aortic rupture, for malperfusion syndromes, and for rapidly enlarging false lumens. Endovascular grafts may cover the area of a primary intimal tear and thus eliminate the flow into the false channel and promote false-lumen thrombosis. Many patients with complicated type B dissection are treated with a hybrid approach, in which one segment of the aorta, such as the aortic arch, is treated surgically, while the descending aorta receives an endovascular graft.2
Patients with a type B dissection treated medically are at risk for late complications, including aneurysmal enlargement and subsequent aortic rupture. The Investigation of Stent Grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) trial included 140 patients with uncomplicated type B dissection and compared drug therapy with endovascular stent grafting.15 After 2 years of follow-up, there was no difference in the rate of death between the two treatment groups. Patients receiving endovascular grafts had a higher rate of false-lumen thrombosis.
More studies are under way to examine the role of endovascular therapy in uncomplicated type B dissection.
AORTIC DISSECTION VARIANTS
Aortic intramural hematoma
Aortic intramural hematoma is a form of acute aortic syndrome in which a hematoma develops in the aortic media and no intimal flap is visualized either by imaging or at surgery.2,3,16 It is important to recognize this clinical entity in a patient presenting with acute chest or back pain, as sometimes it is mistaken for a “thrombus in a nonaneurysmal aorta.” Intramural hematoma accounts for 5% to 25% of acute aortic syndromes, depending on the study population (it is more common in Asian studies).2,3,17 It may present with symptoms similar to classic aortic dissection and is classified as type A or type B, depending on whether the ascending aorta is involved.
Patients with an intramural hematoma may progress to having complications such as hemopericardium, classic aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or aneurysmal dilation.2,3 However, many cases of type B aortic intramural hematoma result in complete resorption of the hematoma over time. In general, like classic aortic dissection, type A intramural hematoma is treated with emergency surgery and type B with initial medical therapy.2,3
There are reports from Southeast Asia of successful initial medical therapy for type A intramural hematoma, with surgery used for acute complications.18 In the Western literature, improved outcomes are reported with initial surgical therapy.17 Given the unpredictable nature of type A intramural hematoma, most experts recommend surgical therapy for appropriate candidates with acute type A intramural hematoma.2,3,19
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta, another acute aortic syndrome, results from acute penetration of an atherosclerotic aortic lesion through the internal elastic lamina into the media.2,3,20 It is often associated with bleeding into the media, or intramural hematoma. While the ulcer may be found incidentally on imaging studies, especially in patients with severe aortic atherosclerosis, the typical presentation is acute, severe chest or back pain. It occurs most often in the descending aorta and the abdominal aorta.
Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer may lead to pseudoaneurysm formation, focal aortic dissection, aortic rupture, or late aortic aneurysm.2
LONG-TERM MANAGEMENT AFTER AORTIC DISSECTION
After hospital discharge, patients with aortic dissection require lifelong management. This includes blood pressure control, lifestyle modification, serial imaging of the aorta with CT or MRI, patient education about the condition, and, when appropriate, screening of family members for aortic disease.5,21
Reported survival rates after hospitalization for type A dissection are 52% to 94% at 1 year and 45% to 88% at 5 years.2,22 The 10-year actuarial survival rate for those with acute dissection who survive the acute hospitalization is reported as 30% to 60%. Long-term survival rates after acute type B dissection have been reported at 56% to 92% at 1 year and 48% to 82% at 5 years.23 Survival rates depend on many factors, including the underlying condition, the age of the patient, and comorbidities.
It is important to treat hypertension after aortic dissection, with a goal blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg or less for most patients. Older studies found higher mortality rates with poorly controlled hypertension. Beta-blockers are the drugs of first choice. Even in the absence of hypertension, long-term beta-blocker therapy should be used to lessen the aortic stress and force of ventricular contraction.
Genetic evaluation
Genetically triggered causes of aortic dissection should be considered. In many circumstances, referral to a medical geneticist or other practitioner knowledgeable in these conditions is important when these disorders are being evaluated (Table 2).
Many of these disorders have an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the patient should be asked about a family history of aortic disease, aortic dissection, or unexplained sudden death. Features of Marfan syndrome, Loeys-Dietz syndrome, and familial thoracic aortic aneurysm syndromes should be sought. Through comprehensive family studies, it is now recognized that up to 20% of patients with thoracic aortic disease (such as aneurysm or dissection) have another first-degree relative with thoracic aortic disease.2,3,24 Thus, first-degree relatives of patients with aortic aneurysm or dissection should be screened for thoracic aortic aneurysm disease.
Research into molecular genetics is providing a better understanding of the genetics of aortic dissection.3 New mutations associated with aortic dissection are being discovered in signaling pathways as well as elements critical for the integrity of the vascular wall.2,3 However, at present, most patients with aortic dissection will not have a specific identifiable genetic defect.
Not only does genetic testing enable the accurate diagnosis of the affected individual, but also treatments are often based on this diagnosis.3 Importantly, the identification of a specific gene mutation (ie, in TGFBR1 or 2, FBN1, ACTA2, MYH11, and COL3A1) in an affected individual has the potential to identify other family members at risk.3
Follow-up imaging
It is important to continue to image the aorta after aortic dissection. Patients may develop progressive dilation or aneurysm formation of the dissected aorta, pseudoaneurysm formation after repair, or recurrent dissection. Many patients require additional surgery on the aorta because of late aneurysm formation.
CT or MRI is usually performed at least every 6 months in the first 2 years after dissection and at least annually thereafter. More centers are choosing MRI for long-term follow-up to avoid the repeated radiation exposure with serial CT.
Patient education
Besides receiving medical therapy and undergoing imaging, patients with aortic dissection should be educated about this condition.5,21 The patient should be aware of symptoms suggesting dissection and should be instructed to seek attention for any concerning symptoms.
Lifestyle modifications are also important. The patient should be educated about safe activity levels and to avoid heavy isometric exercise, such as weight-lifting. Some patients will have to cease their current occupation because of activity restrictions.
- Hagan PG, Nienaber CA, Isselbacher EM, et al. International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD): new insights from an old disease. JAMA 2000; 283:897–903.
- Braverman AC, Thompson R, Sanchez L. Diseases of the aorta. In:Bonow RO, Mann DL, Zipes DP, Libby P. Braunwald’s Heart Disease, 9th Edition. Elsevier, Philadelphia, 2011.
- Hiratzka LF, Bakris GL, Beckman JA, et al. American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines; American Association for Thoracic Surgery; American College of Radiology; American Stroke Association; Society of Cardiovascular Anesthesiologists; Society for Cardiovascular Angiography and Interventions; Society of Interventional Radiology; Society of Thoracic Surgeons; Society for Vascular Medicine. Guidelines for the management of patients with thoracic aortic disease. Circulation 2010; 121:e266–e369.
- Rogers AM, Herman LK, Booher AM, et al. Sensitivity of the aortic dissection detection risk score, a novel guideline-based tool for identification of acute aortic dissection at initial presentation. Results from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2011; 123:2213–2228.
- Braverman AC. Acute aortic dissection: clinician update. Circulation 2010; 122:184–188.
- Davies RR, Gallo A, Coady MA, et al. Novel measurement of relative aortic size predicts rupture of thoracic aortic aneurysms. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 81:169–177.
- Pape LA, Tsai TT, Isselbacher EM, et al. Aortic diameter >5.5 cm is not a good predictor of type A aortic dissection. Observations from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2007; 116:1120–1127.
- Parish LM, Gorman JH, Kahn S, et al. Aortic size in acute type A dissection: implications for preventative ascending aortic replacement. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2009; 35:941–945.
- Gaul C, Dietrich W, Erbguth FJ. Neurological symptoms in acute aortic dissection: a challenge for neurologists. Cerebrovasc Dis 2008; 26:1–8.
- Upchurch GR, Nienaber C, Fattori R, et al Acute aortic dissection presenting with primarily abdominal pain: a rare manifestation of a deadly disease. Ann Vasc Surg 2005; 19:367–373.
- Suzuki T, Distante A, Zizza A, et al. Diagnosis of acute aortic dissection by D-dimer: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection substudy on biomarkers (IRAD-bio) experience. Circulation 2009; 119:2702–2707.
- Tsai TT, Trimarchi S, Neinaber CA. Acute aortic dissection: perspectives from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Eur J Vasc Endovasc Surg 2009; 37:149–159.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Contemporary results of surgery in acute type A aortic dissection: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection experience. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg 2005; 129:112–122.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Role and results of surgery in acute type B aortic dissection. Insights from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Circulation 2006; 114(suppl 1):I-357–I-364.
- Nienaber CA, Rousseau H, Eggbrecht H, et al. Randomized comparison of strategies for type B aortic dissection. The Investigation of STEnt grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) Trial. Circulation 2009; 120:2519–2528.
- Evangelista A, Mukherjee D, Mehta RH, et al. Acute intramural hematoma of the aorta. Circulation 2005; 111:1063–1070.
- Pelzel JM, Braverman AC, Hirsch AT, Harris KM. International heterogeneity in diagnostic frequency and clinical outcomes of ascending aortic intramural hematoma. J Am Soc Echo 2007; 20:1260–1268.
- Song JK, Yim JH, Ahn JM, et al. Outcomes of patients with acute type A aortic intramural hematoma. Circulation 2009; 120:2046–2052.
- Harris KM, Pelzel JM, Braverman AC. Letter regarding article, “Outcomes of patients with acute type A intramural hematoma.” Circulation 2010; 121:e456.
- Sundt TM. Intramural hematoma and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta. Ann Thorac Surg 2007; 83:S835–S841.
- Juang D, Braverman A, Eagle K. Aortic dissection. Circulation 2008; 118:e507–e510.
- Tsai TT, Evangelista A, Nienaber CA, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type A acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114(suppl I):I-350–I-356.
- Tsai TT, Fattori R, Trimarchi S, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type B acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114:2226–2231.
- Albornoz G, Coady MA, Roberts M, et al. Familial thoracic aortic aneurysms and dissections: incidence, modes of inheritance, and phenotypic patterns. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 82:1400–1405.
- Hagan PG, Nienaber CA, Isselbacher EM, et al. International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD): new insights from an old disease. JAMA 2000; 283:897–903.
- Braverman AC, Thompson R, Sanchez L. Diseases of the aorta. In:Bonow RO, Mann DL, Zipes DP, Libby P. Braunwald’s Heart Disease, 9th Edition. Elsevier, Philadelphia, 2011.
- Hiratzka LF, Bakris GL, Beckman JA, et al. American College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines; American Association for Thoracic Surgery; American College of Radiology; American Stroke Association; Society of Cardiovascular Anesthesiologists; Society for Cardiovascular Angiography and Interventions; Society of Interventional Radiology; Society of Thoracic Surgeons; Society for Vascular Medicine. Guidelines for the management of patients with thoracic aortic disease. Circulation 2010; 121:e266–e369.
- Rogers AM, Herman LK, Booher AM, et al. Sensitivity of the aortic dissection detection risk score, a novel guideline-based tool for identification of acute aortic dissection at initial presentation. Results from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2011; 123:2213–2228.
- Braverman AC. Acute aortic dissection: clinician update. Circulation 2010; 122:184–188.
- Davies RR, Gallo A, Coady MA, et al. Novel measurement of relative aortic size predicts rupture of thoracic aortic aneurysms. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 81:169–177.
- Pape LA, Tsai TT, Isselbacher EM, et al. Aortic diameter >5.5 cm is not a good predictor of type A aortic dissection. Observations from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection. Circulation 2007; 116:1120–1127.
- Parish LM, Gorman JH, Kahn S, et al. Aortic size in acute type A dissection: implications for preventative ascending aortic replacement. Eur J Cardiothorac Surg 2009; 35:941–945.
- Gaul C, Dietrich W, Erbguth FJ. Neurological symptoms in acute aortic dissection: a challenge for neurologists. Cerebrovasc Dis 2008; 26:1–8.
- Upchurch GR, Nienaber C, Fattori R, et al Acute aortic dissection presenting with primarily abdominal pain: a rare manifestation of a deadly disease. Ann Vasc Surg 2005; 19:367–373.
- Suzuki T, Distante A, Zizza A, et al. Diagnosis of acute aortic dissection by D-dimer: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection substudy on biomarkers (IRAD-bio) experience. Circulation 2009; 119:2702–2707.
- Tsai TT, Trimarchi S, Neinaber CA. Acute aortic dissection: perspectives from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Eur J Vasc Endovasc Surg 2009; 37:149–159.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Contemporary results of surgery in acute type A aortic dissection: the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection experience. J Thorac Cardiovasc Surg 2005; 129:112–122.
- Trimarchi S, Nienaber CA, Rampoldi V, et al. Role and results of surgery in acute type B aortic dissection. Insights from the International Registry of Acute Aortic Dissection (IRAD). Circulation 2006; 114(suppl 1):I-357–I-364.
- Nienaber CA, Rousseau H, Eggbrecht H, et al. Randomized comparison of strategies for type B aortic dissection. The Investigation of STEnt grafts in Aortic Dissection (INSTEAD) Trial. Circulation 2009; 120:2519–2528.
- Evangelista A, Mukherjee D, Mehta RH, et al. Acute intramural hematoma of the aorta. Circulation 2005; 111:1063–1070.
- Pelzel JM, Braverman AC, Hirsch AT, Harris KM. International heterogeneity in diagnostic frequency and clinical outcomes of ascending aortic intramural hematoma. J Am Soc Echo 2007; 20:1260–1268.
- Song JK, Yim JH, Ahn JM, et al. Outcomes of patients with acute type A aortic intramural hematoma. Circulation 2009; 120:2046–2052.
- Harris KM, Pelzel JM, Braverman AC. Letter regarding article, “Outcomes of patients with acute type A intramural hematoma.” Circulation 2010; 121:e456.
- Sundt TM. Intramural hematoma and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer of the aorta. Ann Thorac Surg 2007; 83:S835–S841.
- Juang D, Braverman A, Eagle K. Aortic dissection. Circulation 2008; 118:e507–e510.
- Tsai TT, Evangelista A, Nienaber CA, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type A acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114(suppl I):I-350–I-356.
- Tsai TT, Fattori R, Trimarchi S, et al. Long-term survival in patients presenting with type B acute aortic dissection. Insights from the international registry of acute aortic dissection. Circulation 2006; 114:2226–2231.
- Albornoz G, Coady MA, Roberts M, et al. Familial thoracic aortic aneurysms and dissections: incidence, modes of inheritance, and phenotypic patterns. Ann Thorac Surg 2006; 82:1400–1405.
KEY POINTS
- Aortic surgery is the treatment of choice for dissection of the ascending aorta, whereas dissection of the descending aorta is initially managed medically.
- Look for an underlying genetic predisposition to aortic disease and, in many instances, screen first-degree relatives for aortic disease.
- Long-term management requires serial imaging of the aorta, blood pressure control, and, for many, future aortic procedures.
- Measuring the D-dimer levels may help in decision-making for appropriate imaging in patients presenting with chest pain, as an elevated level raises the suspicion of dissection. However, more study of this and other biomarkers is needed.
- Advances in molecular genetics and the biology of the aortic wall promise to improve the diagnosis and prognosis of aortic disease.
Venous thromboembolism: What to do after anticoagulation is started
Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism are collectively referred to as venous thromboembolic (VTE) disease. They affect approximately 100,000 to 300,000 patients per year in the United States.1 Although patients with deep vein thrombosis can be treated as outpatients, many are admitted for the initiation of anticoagulation. Initial anticoagulation usually requires the overlap of a parenteral anticoagulant (unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin [LMWH] or fondaparinux) with warfarin for a minimum of 5 days and until the international normalized ratio (INR) of the prothrombin time is above 2.0 for at least 24 hours.2
Three clinical issues need to be addressed after the initiation of anticoagulation for VTE:
- Determination of the length of anticoagulation with the correct anticoagulant
- Prevention of postthrombotic syndrome
- Appropriate screening for occult malignancy.
HOW LONG SHOULD VTE BE TREATED?
The duration of anticoagulation has been a matter of debate.
The risk of recurrent VTE appears related to clinical risk factors that a patient has at the time of the initial thrombotic event. An epidemiologic study3 found that patients with VTE treated for approximately 6 months had a low rate of recurrence (0% at 2 years of follow-up) if surgery was the risk factor. The risk climbed to 9% if the risk factor was nonsurgical and to 19% if there were no provoking risk factors.
The likelihood of VTE recurrence and therefore the recommended duration of treatment depend on whether the VTE event was provoked, cancer-related, recurrent, thrombophilia-related, or idiopathic. We address each of these scenarios below.
HOW LONG TO TREAT PROVOKED VTE
A VTE event is considered provoked if the patient had a clear inciting risk factor. As defined in various clinical trials, these risk factors include:
- Hospitalization with confinement to bed for 3 or more consecutive days in the last 3 months
- Surgery or general anesthesia in the last 3 months
- Immobilization for more than 7 days, regardless of the cause
- Trauma in the last 3 months
- Pregnancy
- Use of an oral contraceptive, regardless of which estrogen or progesterone analogue it contains
- Travel for more than 4 hours
- Recent childbirth.
However, the trials that tested different lengths of anticoagulation have varied markedly in how they defined provoked deep vein thrombosis.4–7
Recommendation: Warfarin or equivalent for 3 months
The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) recommends 3 months of anticoagulation with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist for patients with VTE secondary to a transient (reversible) risk factor,2 and we agree.
HOW LONG TO TREAT CANCER-RELATED VTE
Patients with cancer are at higher risk of developing VTE. Furthermore, in one study,9 compared with other patients with VTE, patients with cancer were three times more likely to have another episode of VTE, with a cumulative rate of recurrence at 1 year of 21% vs 7%. Cancer patients were also twice as likely to suffer major bleeding complications while on anticoagulation.9
Warfarin is a difficult drug to manage because it has many interactions with foods, diseases, and other drugs. These difficulties are amplified in many cancer patients during chemotherapy.
Warfarin was compared with a LMWH in four randomized trials in cancer patients, and a meta-analysis10 found a 50% relative reduction in the rates of recurrent deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism with LMWH treatment. These results were driven primarily by the CLOT trial (Comparison of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin Versus Oral Anticoagulant Therapy for the Prevention of Recurrent Venous Thromboembolism in Patients With Cancer),11 which showed an 8% absolute risk reduction (number needed to treat 13) without an increase in major bleeding when cancer-related VTE was treated with an LMWH—ie, dalteparin (Fragmin)—for 6 months compared with warfarin.
Current thinking suggests that VTE should be treated until the cancer is resolved. However, this hypothesis has not been adequately tested, and consequently, the ACCP gives it only a level 1C recommendation.2 The largest of the four trials comparing warfarin and an LMWH lasted only 6 months. The safety of extending LMWH treatment beyond 6 months is currently unknown but is under investigation (clinicaltrials.gov identifier NCT00942968).
Recommendation: LMWH therapy for at least 6 months
The ACCP guidelines recommend LMWH therapy for 3 to 6 months, followed by warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist or continued LMWH treatment until the cancer is resolved.2
The National Comprehensive Cancer Network guidelines recommend an LMWH for 6 months as monotherapy and indefinite anticoagulation if the cancer is still active.12
The American Society of Clinical Oncology guidelines recommend an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulant therapy for selected patients with active cancer.13
We agree that patients with active cancer should receive an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulation until the cancer is resolved.
In our experience, many patients are reluctant to give themselves the daily injections that LMWH therapy requires, and so they need to be well-informed about the marked decrease in VTE recurrence with this less-convenient and more-expensive therapy. Many patients face insurance barriers to cover the cost of LMWH therapy; however, careful attention to preauthorization can usually overcome this obstacle.
HOW LONG TO TREAT RECURRENT VTE
It makes clinical sense that patients who have a second VTE event should be treated indefinitely. This theory was tested in a randomized clinical trial14 in which patients with provoked or unprovoked VTE were randomized after their second event to receive anticoagulation for 6 months vs indefinitely.
After 4 years of follow-up, the recurrence rate was 21% in patients assigned to 6 months of treatment and only 3% in patients who continued anticoagulation throughout the trial. On the other hand, major hemorrhage occurred in 3% of patients treated for 6 months and in 9% in patients who continued anticoagulation indefinitely.
Of note, most of the patients in this trial had unprovoked (idiopathic) VTE, so the results should not be extrapolated to patients with provoked VTE, who accounted for only 20% of the study population.14
Recommendation: Long-term anticoagulation
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients who have had a second episode of unprovoked VTE should receive long-term anticoagulation. Because of a lack of data, the duration of therapy for patients with a second episode of provoked VTE should be individualized.
HOW LONG TO TREAT THROMBOPHILIA-RELATED VTE
Inherited thrombophilias
Patients with VTE that is not related to a clear provoking risk factor or cancer frequently have testing to evaluate for a hypercoagulable state. This workup traditionally includes the most common inherited thrombophilias for gene mutations for factor V and prothrombin as well as for deficiencies in protein C, protein S, antithrombin and the acquired antiphospholipid syndrome.
The key questions that should be asked prior to embarking on this workup are:
- Will the results change the length of therapy for the patient?
- Will testing the patient help with genetic counseling and possible testing of family members?
- Will the results change the targeted INR range for warfarin or other vitamin K antagonist therapy?
Patients with inherited thrombophilia have a greater risk of developing an initial VTE event; however, these tests do not help predict the recurrence of VTE in patients with established disease more than clinical risk factors do. A prospective study demonstrated this by looking at the effect of thrombophilia and clinical factors on the recurrence of venous thrombosis and found that inherited prothrombotic abnormalities do not appear to play an important role in the risk of a recurrent event.15 On the other hand, clinical factors, such as whether the first event was idiopathic or provoked, appear more important in determining the duration of anticoagulation therapy.15 A systematic review of the common inherited thrombophilias showed the VTE recurrence rate of patients with factor V Leiden was higher than in patients without the mutation; however, the absolute rates of recurrence were not much different than what would be expected in patients with idiopathic VTE.16
A retrospective study involving a large cohort of families of patients who already had experienced a first episode of either idiopathic or provoked VTE showed high annual risks of recurrent VTE associated with hereditary deficiencies of protein S (8.4%), protein C (6.0%), and antithrombin (10%).17 However, for the more commonly occurring genetic thrombophilias, the factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A mutations, family members with either gene abnormality had low rates of VTE, suggesting that testing of relatives of probands is not clinically useful.16
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired thrombophilia. A patient has thrombotic antiphospholipid syndrome when there is a history of vascular thrombosis in the presence of persistently positive tests (at least 12 weeks apart) for lupus anticoagulants, anticardiolipin antibodies, or anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I. A prospective study of 412 patients with a first episode of VTE found that 15% were positive for anticardiolipin antibody at the end of 6 months of anticoagulation. The risk of recurrent VTE after 4 years was 29% in patients with antibodies and 14% in those without antibodies (relative risk 2.1; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.3–3.3; P =.0013).18
Recent reviews advise indefinite warfarin anticoagulation in patients with VTE and persistence of antiphospholipid antibodies.19 However, the optimal duration of anticoagulation is uncertain. Until well-designed clinical trials are done, the current general consensus is to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.20,21 Retrospective studies had suggested that patients with antiphospholipid antibodies required a higher therapeutic INR range; however, this observation was tested in two trials that found no difference in thromboembolic rates when patients were randomized to an INR of 2.0–3.0 vs 3.1–4.0,22 or 2.0–3.0 vs 3.0–4.5.23
No formal recommendations
In the absence of strong evidence, the ACCP guidelines do not include a recommendation on the duration of anticoagulation treatment specific to inherited thrombophilias. We believe that clinical factors are more important than inherited thrombophilias for deciding the duration of anticoagulation, and that testing is almost never indicated or useful. However, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome are at high risk of recurrence, and it is our practice to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.
HOW LONG TO TREAT UNPROVOKED (IDIOPATHIC) VTE
A VTE event is thought to be idiopathic if it occurs without a clearly identified provoking factor.
In an observational study,3 patients with oral contraceptive use, transient illness, immobilization, or a history of travel had an 8.8% risk of recurrence vs 19.4% in patients with unprovoked VTE. The meta-analysis discussed above (Table 1)8 also shows that patients with these nonsurgical risk factors have a lower rate of recurrence than patients with idiopathic VTE.
The high rate of recurrence of idiopathic VTE (4% to 27% after 3 months of anticoagulation24–26) suggests that a longer duration of treatment is reasonable. However, increasing the length of therapy from 3 to 12 months delays but does not prevent recurrence, the risk of which begins to accumulate once anticoagulation is stopped.24,25
Three promising strategies to identify subgroups of patients with idiopathic VTE who are at highest risk of recurrence and who would benefit the most from prolonged anticoagulation are d-dimer testing, evaluation for residual vein thrombosis in patients who present with a deep vein thrombosis, and clinical prediction rules.
d-dimer testing
d-dimer is a degradation product of fibrin and is an indirect marker of residual thrombosis.30
In a systematic review of patients with a first episode of unprovoked VTE,31 a normal d-dimer concentration at the end of at least 3 months of anticoagulation was associated with a 3.5% annual risk of recurrence, whereas an elevated d-dimer level at that time was associated with an annual risk of 8.9%. These results were confirmed in a systematic review of individual patient data.32
In a randomized trial,28 patients with an idiopathic VTE event who received anticoagulation for at least 3 months had their d-dimer level measured 1 month after cessation of treatment. Those with an elevated level were randomized to either resume anticoagulation or not. Patients who resumed anticoagulation had an annual recurrence rate of 2%; however, those who were allocated not to restart anticoagulation had a recurrence rate of 10.9% per year. There was no difference in the rate of major bleeding between the two groups. Patients in this clinical trial who had a normal d-dimer level did not restart anticoagulation and had an annual recurrence rate of 4.4%.
Evaluation for residual thrombosis
A randomized trial34 in patients with both provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis showed a reduction in recurrence when those who had residual vein thrombosis were given extended anticoagulation. In the subset of patients whose deep vein thrombosis was idiopathic, the recurrence rate was 17% per year when treatment lasted only 3 months and 10% when it was extended for up to 1 year.
Another trial35 randomized patients with provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis to receive anticoagulation for the usual duration or to continue treatment until recanalization of the residual thrombus was demonstrated on follow-up Doppler ultrasonography. Patients who received this ultrasonography-tailored treatment had a lower rate of recurrence of VTE; however, the absolute reductions in recurrence rates cannot be calculated from this report for patients with idiopathic deep vein thrombosis.
A prospective observational study36 of the predictive value of d-dimer status and residual vein thrombus found that only d-dimer was an independent risk factor for recurrent VTE after vitamin K antagonist withdrawal.
A clinical prediction rule: ‘Men and HERDOO2’
A promising tool for predicting if a patient is at low risk of recurrent VTE after the first episode of proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism is known by the mnemonic device “Men and HERDOO2.” It is based on data prospectively derived by Rodger et al37 to identify patients with less than a 3% annual risk of recurrent VTE after their first event of idiopathic proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for recurrent VTE were male sex (the “men” of “Men and HERDOO2”), signs of postthrombotic syndrome, including hyperpigmentation of the lower extremities, edema or redness of either leg, a d-dimer level > 250 μg/L, obesity (body mass index > 30 kg/m2, and older age (> 65 years).
Overall, one-fourth of the population were women with no risk factors or one risk factor, and their risk of recurrence was 1.6% per year. Men and women who had two or more risk factors for postthrombotic syndrome (hyperpigmentation, edema, or redness), elevated d-dimer, obesity, or older age were predicted to be at higher risk of recurrent VTE. Patients such as this should be considered for indefinite anticoagulation.
Ideally, clinical prediction rules should be validated in a separate group of patients before they are used routinely in practice,38 and this clinical prediction rule is currently being tested in the REVERSE II study. If the results are consistent, this will be an easy-to-use tool to help identify patients who likely can safely stop anticoagulation therapy after 3 to 6 months (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00967304).
The location of the thrombosis also influences the likelihood of recurrence. Patients with isolated distal (calf) deep vein thrombosis are less likely to suffer recurrent VTE than those who present with proximal deep vein thrombosis. However, trials focusing specifically on the precise subset of idiopathic isolated distal deep vein thrombosis are lacking. In a randomized trial39 comparing 6 vs 12 weeks of anticoagulation for isolated distal deep vein thrombosis and 12 vs 24 weeks for proximal deep vein thrombosis, the annual rates of recurrence after 12 weeks of treatment were approximately 3.4% for isolated distal and 8.1% for proximal deep vein thrombosis.39
Recommendation: At least 3 months of warfarin or equivalent
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients with unprovoked VTE should receive at least 3 months of anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist.
If the patient has no risk factors for bleeding and good anticoagulant monitoring is achievable, we agree with long-term anticoagulation for proximal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, and 3 months of therapy for isolated distal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis.
Patient preferences and the risk of recurrence vs the risk of bleeding should be discussed with patients when contemplating indefinite anticoagulation.
If testing is being considered to assist in the decision to prescribe indefinite anticoagulation, we prefer using d-dimer levels rather than ultrasonography to detect residual venous thrombosis because of its ease of use and the strength of the current evidence.
PREVENTING POSTTHROMBOTIC SYNDROME
The postthrombotic (postphlebitic) syndrome is a chronic and burdensome consequence of deep vein thrombosis that occurs despite anticoagulation therapy. It is estimated to affect 23% to 60% of patients and typically manifests in the first 2 years.40 It is not only costly in clinical terms, with decreased quality of life for the patient, but health care expenditures have been estimated to range from $400 per year in a Brazilian study to $7,000 per year in a US study.40
Typical symptoms include leg pain, heaviness, swelling, and cramping. In severe cases, chronic venous ulcers can occur and are difficult to treat.41
The definition of postthrombotic syndrome has been unclear over the years, and six different scales that measure signs and symptoms have been reported.42
The Villalta scale has been proposed by the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis as a diagnostic standard to define postthrombotic syndrome.42 This validated scale is based on five clinical symptoms, six clinical signs, and the presence or absence of venous ulcers. Each clinical symptom and sign is scored as mild (1 point), moderate (2 points), or severe (3 points). Symptoms include pain, cramps, heaviness, paresthesia, and pruritus; the six clinical signs are pretibial edema, skin induration, hyperpigmentation, redness, venous ectasia, and pain on calf compression.
According to the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis, postthrombotic syndrome is present if the Villalta score is 5 or greater or if a venous ulcer is present in a leg with previous deep vein thrombosis. Further, using the Villalta scale, postthrombotic syndrome can be categorized as mild (score 5–9), moderate (10–14), or severe (≥ 15).
A limitation of the Villalta scale is that the presence or absence of a venous ulcer has not been assigned a score. Since a venous ulcer requires more aggressive measures, the society defines postthrombotic syndrome as severe if venous ulcers are present.42
Acute symptoms of deep vein thrombosis may take months to resolve and, indeed, acute symptoms may transition to chronic symptoms without a symptom-free interval. It is recommended that postthrombotic syndrome not be diagnosed before 3 months to avoid inappropriately attributing acute symptoms and signs of deep vein thrombosis to the postthrombotic syndrome.42
Studies of stockings
A systematic review of three randomized trials44 concluded that elastic compression stockings reduce the risk of postthrombotic syndrome (any severity) from 43% to 20% and severe postthrombotic syndrome from 15% to 7%.43
The first of these trials44 randomized patients soon after the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis to receive made-to-order compression stockings that were rated at 30 to 40 mm Hg or to be in a control group that did not receive stockings. The second trial45 randomized patients 1 year after the index event of deep vein thrombosis to receive 20- to 30-mm Hg stockings or stockings that were two sizes too large (the control group). The third study46 randomly allocated patients to receive “off-the-shelf” stockings (30–40 mm Hg) or no stockings. Each study used its own definition of postthrombotic syndrome.
Although these studies strongly suggest compression stockings prevent postthrombotic syndrome, several methodologic issues remain:
- A standard definition of postthrombotic syndrome was not used
- The amount of compression varied between studies
- The studies were not blinded.
Lack of blinding becomes most significant when an outcome is based on subjective findings, like the symptoms that make up a large part of the diagnosis of postthrombotic syndrome.
The SOX trial, currently under way, is designed to address these methodologic issues and should be completed in 2012 (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00143598).
Recommendation: Stockings for at least 2 years
We agree with the ACCP recommendation that a patient who has had a symptomatic proximal deep vein thrombosis should wear an elastic compression stocking with an ankle pressure gradient of 30 to 40 mm Hg as soon as possible after starting anticoagulant therapy and continuing for a minimum of 2 years.2
SCREENING FOR OCCULT MALIGNANCY
VTE can be the first manifestation of cancer.
French physician Armand Trousseau, in the 1860s, was the first to describe disseminated intravascular coagulation closely associated with adenocarcinoma. Ironically, several years later, after suffering for weeks from abdominal pain, he declared to one of his students that he had developed thrombosis, and he died of gastric cancer shortly thereafter.47
Since cancer is a well-known risk factor for VTE, it is logical to screen for cancer as an explanation for an idiopathic VTE event.48 To make an informed decision, one needs to understand the rate of occult cancer at the time VTE is diagnosed, the risk of future development of cancer, and the utility of extensive cancer screening.
The clinical efficacy, side effects, and cost-effectiveness of cancer screening in patients with idiopathic VTE are unknown. However, a systematic review47 of 34 studies found that, in patients with idiopathic VTE, cancer was diagnosed within 1 month in 6.1%, within 6 months in 8.6%, and within 1 year in 10.0% (95% CI 8.6–11.3).
A subset of studies compared two strategies for screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE: a strategy limited to the history, physical examination, basic blood work, and chest radiography vs an extensive screening strategy that also included serum tumor markers or abdominal ultrasonography or computed tomography. Limited screening detected 49% of the prevalent cancers; extensive screening increased this rate to 70%. Stated another way, the detection rate for prevalent cancers was 5% with limited screening and 7% with extensive screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE.47
Patients with idiopathic VTE had higher rates of cancer within 1 month of diagnosis than patients with provoked VTE (6.1% vs 1.9%), and this difference persisted at 1 year (10.0% vs 2.6%).47
Recommendation: Individualized cancer screening
Patients with idiopathic VTE have a significant risk of occult cancer within the first year after diagnosis, and cancer screening should be considered. Our practice for patients with idiopathic VTE is to perform a history and physical examination and ensure that the patient is up to date on age- and sex-specific cancer screening.
The use of additional imaging or biomarkers should be discussed with patients so they can balance the risks (radiation and potential false-positive results with their downstream consequences), costs, and potential benefits, given the lack of proven survival benefit or cost-effectiveness.
ORAL ANTICOAGULANT MANAGEMENT
Warfarin’s multiple interactions, along with the need for INR monitoring, make it a difficult medication to manage.
The Joint Commission, the US organization for health service accreditation and certification, has defined National Patient Safety Goals and quality measures for the management of anticoagulation.49 Organized anticoagulation management services, dosing algorithms, and patient self-testing using capillary INR meters or patient self-management of warfarin were recommended as tools to improve the time patients spend in the therapeutic INR range.50
Two new oral anticoagulants
The limitations of warfarin have stimulated the search for newer oral anticoagulants that do not require laboratory monitoring or have as many diet and drug interactions.
Two trials have been published with experimental oral anticoagulants that had similar efficacy and safety as warfarin in the treatment of VTE.
The study of dabigatran (Pradaxa) vs warfarin in the treatment of acute VTE (the RECOVER trial)51 randomized 2,539 patients with acute VTE to receive the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran or warfarin for approximately 6 months. Of note, each treatment group received a median of 6 days of heparin, LMWH, or fondaparinux at the beginning of blinded therapy. The rates of recurrent VTE and major bleeding were similar between the treatment arms, and overall bleeding was less with dabigatran. Dabigatran was approved in the United States in October 2010 for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation but has yet to be approved for the treatment of VTE pending further study (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00680186).
A study of oral rivaroxaban (Xarelto) for symptomatic VTE (the EINSTEIN-DVT trial) 52 randomized 3,449 patients with acute deep vein thrombosis to rivaroxaban or enoxaparin (Lovenox) overlapped with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist in the usual manner. No difference was noted between the treatments in the rate of recurrence of VTE or of major bleeding. Of note, patients randomized to rivaroxaban received 15 mg twice a day for the first 3 weeks of treatment and then 20 mg per day for the remainder of their therapy and did not require parenteral anticoagulant overlap.
The long-awaited promise of easier-to-use oral anticoagulants for the treatment of VTE is drawing near and has the potential to revolutionize the treatment of this common disorder. In the meantime, close monitoring of warfarin and careful patient education regarding its use are essential. And even with the development of new drugs in the future, it is still imperative that patients with acute VTE receive the correct length of anticoagulation treatment, are prescribed stockings to prevent postthrombotic syndrome, and are updated on routine cancer screening.
- Spencer FA, Emery C, Lessard D, et al. The Worcester Venous Thromboembolism study: a population-based study of the clinical epidemiology of venous thromboembolism. J Gen Intern Med 2006; 21:722–727.
- Kearon C, Kahn SR, Agnelli G, Goldhaber S, Raskob GE, Comerota AJ; American College of Chest Physicians. Antithrombotic therapy for venous thromboembolic disease: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133(suppl 6):454S–545S.
- Baglin T, Luddington R, Brown K, Baglin C. Incidence of recurrent venous thromboembolism in relation to clinical and thrombophilic risk factors: prospective cohort study. Lancet 2003; 362:523–526.
- Schulman S, Lockner D, Juhlin-Dannfelt A. The duration of oral anticoagulation after deep vein thrombosis. A randomized study. Acta Med Scand 1985; 217:547–552.
- Optimum duration of anticoagulation for deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Research Committee of the British Thoracic Society. Lancet 1992; 340:873–876.
- Schulman S, Rhedin AS, Lindmarker P, et al. A comparison of six weeks with six months of oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of venous thromboembolism. Duration of Anticoagulation Trial Study Group. N Engl J Med 1995; 332:1661–1665.
- Kearon C, Ginsberg JS, Anderson DR, et al. Comparison of 1 month with 3 months of anticoagulation for a first episode of venous thromboembolism associated with a transient risk factor. J Thromb Haemost 2004; 2:743–749.
- Iorio A, Kearon C, Filippucci E, et al. Risk of recurrence after a first episode of symptomatic venous thromboembolism provoked by a transient risk factor: a systematic review. Arch Intern Med 2010; 170:1710–1716.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Piccioli A, et al. Recurrent venous thromboembolism and bleeding complications during anticoagulant treatment in patients with cancer and venous thrombosis. Blood 2002; 100:3484–3488.
- Hull RD, Pineo GF, Brant RF, et al; LITE Trial Investigators. Long-term low-molecular-weight heparin versus usual care in proximal-vein thrombosis patients with cancer. Am J Med 2006; 119:1062–1072.
- Lee AY, Levine MN, Baker RI, et al; Randomized Comparison of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin versus Oral Anticoagulant Therapy for the Prevention of Recurrent Venous Thromboembolism in Patients with Cancer (CLOT) Investigators. Low-molecular-weight heparin versus a coumarin for the prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with cancer. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:146–153.
- National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN). NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology, Venous Thromboembolic Disease. http://www.nccn.org/professionals/physician_gls/pdf/vte.pdf. Accessed August 3, 2011.
- Lyman GH, Khorana AA, Falanga A, et al; American Society of Clinical Oncology. American Society of Clinical Oncology guideline: recommendations for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and treatment in patients with cancer. J Clin Oncol 2007; 25:5490–5505.
- Schulman S, Granqvist S, Holmström M, et al. The duration of oral anticoagulant therapy after a second episode of venous thromboembolism. The Duration of Anticoagulation Trial Study Group. N Engl J Med 1997; 336:393–398.
- Christiansen SC, Cannegieter SC, Koster T, Vandenbroucke JP, Rosendaal FR. Thrombophilia, clinical factors, and recurrent venous thrombotic events. JAMA 2005; 293:2352–2361.
- Segal JB, Brotman DJ, Necochea AJ, et al. Predictive value of factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A in adults with venous thromboembolism and in family members of those with a mutation: a systematic review. JAMA 2009; 301:2472–2485.
- Brouwer JL, Lijfering WM, Ten Kate MK, Kluin-Nelemans HC, Veeger NJ, van der Meer J. High long-term absolute risk of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with hereditary deficiencies of protein S, protein C or antithrombin. Thromb Haemost 2009; 101:93–99.
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- Derksen RH, de Groot PG. Towards evidence-based treatment of thrombotic antiphospholipid syndrome. Lupus 2010; 19:470–474.
- Lim W, Crowther MA, Eikelboom JW. Management of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome: a systematic review. JAMA 2006; 295:1050–1057.
- Fonseca AG, D’Cruz DP. Controversies in the antiphospholipid syndrome: can we ever stop warfarin? J Autoimmune Dis 2008; 5:6.
- Crowther MA, Ginsberg JS, Julian J, et al. A comparison of two intensities of warfarin for the prevention of recurrent thrombosis in patients with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:1133–1138.
- Finazzi G, Marchioli R, Brancaccio V, et al. A randomized clinical trial of high-intensity warfarin vs. conventional antithrombotic therapy for the prevention of recurrent thrombosis in patients with the antiphospholipid syndrome (WAPS). J Thromb Haemost 2005; 3:848–853.
- Agnelli G, Prandoni P, Becattini C, et al; Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. Extended oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of pulmonary embolism. Ann Intern Med 2003; 139:19–25.
- Agnelli G, Prandoni P, Santamaria MG, et al; Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. Three months versus one year of oral anticoagulant therapy for idiopathic deep venous thrombosis. Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. N Engl J Med 2001; 345:165–169.
- Kearon C, Gent M, Hirsh J, et al. A comparison of three months of anticoagulation with extended anticoagulation for a first episode of idiopathic venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 1999; 340:901–907.
- Kearon C, Ginsberg JS, Kovacs MJ, et al; Extended Low-Intensity Anticoagulation for Thrombo-Embolism Investigators. Comparison of low-intensity warfarin therapy with conventional-intensity warfarin therapy for long-term prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:631–639.
- Palareti G, Cosmi B, Legnani C, et al; PROLONG Investigators. D-dimer testing to determine the duration of anticoagulation therapy. N Engl J Med 2006; 355:1780–1789.
- Ridker PM, Goldhaber SZ, Glynn RJ. Low-intensity versus conventional-intensity warfarin for prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:2164–2167.
- Bockenstedt P. D-dimer in venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:1203–1204.
- Verhovsek M, Douketis JD, Yi Q, et al. Systematic review: D-dimer to predict recurrent disease after stopping anticoagulant therapy for unprovoked venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:481–490,W94.
- Douketis J, Tosetto A, Marcucci M, et al. Patient-level metaanalysis: effect of measurement timing, threshold, and patient age on ability of D-dimer testing to assess recurrence risk after unprovoked venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2010; 153:523–531.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Prins MH, et al. Residual venous thrombosis as a predictive factor of recurrent venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2002; 137:955–960.
- Siragusa S, Malato A, Anastasio R, et al. Residual vein thrombosis to establish duration of anticoagulation after a first episode of deep vein thrombosis: the Duration of Anticoagulation based on Compression UltraSonography (DACUS) study. Blood 2008; 112:511–515.
- Prandoni P, Prins MH, Lensing AW, et al; AESOPUS Investigators. Residual thrombosis on ultrasonography to guide the duration of anticoagulation in patients with deep venous thrombosis: a randomized trial. Ann Intern Med 2009; 150:577–585.
- Cosmi B, Legnani C, Cini M, Guazzaloca G, Palareti G. D-dimer levels in combination with residual venous obstruction and the risk of recurrence after anticoagulation withdrawal for a first idiopathic deep vein thrombosis. Thromb Haemost 2005; 94:969–974.
- Rodger MA, Kahn SR, Wells PS, et al. Identifying unprovoked thromboembolism patients at low risk for recurrence who can discontinue anticoagulant therapy. CMAJ 2008; 179:417–426.
- McGinn TG, Guyatt GH, Wyer PC, Naylor CD, Stiell IG, Richardson WS. Users’ guides to the medical literature: XXII: how to use articles about clinical decision rules. Evidence-Based Medicine Working Group. JAMA 2000; 284:79–84.
- Pinede L, Ninet J, Duhaut P, et al; Investigators of the “Durée Optimale du Traitement AntiVitamines K” (DOTAVK) Study. Comparison of 3 and 6 months of oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism and comparison of 6 and 12 weeks of therapy after isolated calf deep vein thrombosis. Circulation 2001; 103:2453–2460.
- Ashrani AA, Heit JA. Incidence and cost burden of postthrombotic syndrome. J Thromb Thrombolysis 2009; 28:465–476.
- Kahn SR, Shrier I, Julian JA, et al. Determinants and time course of the postthrombotic syndrome after acute deep venous thrombosis. Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:698–707.
- Kahn SR, Partsch H, Vedantham S, Prandoni P, Kearon C; Subcommittee on Control of Anticoagulation of the Scientific and Standardization Committee of the International Society on Thrombosis and Haemostasis. Definition of post-thrombotic syndrome of the leg for use in clinical investigations: a recommendation for standardization. J Thromb Haemost 2009; 7:879–883.
- Kolbach DN, Sandbrink MW, Hamulyak K, Neumann HA, Prins MH. Non-pharmaceutical measures for prevention of post-thrombotic syndrome. Cochrane Database Syst Rev 2004;CD004174.
- Brandjes DP, Büller HR, Heijboer H, et al. Randomised trial of effect of compression stockings in patients with symptomatic proximal-vein thrombosis. Lancet 1997; 349:759–762.
- Ginsberg JS, Hirsh J, Julian J, et al. Prevention and treatment of postphlebitic syndrome: results of a 3-part study. Arch Intern Med 2001; 161:2105–2109.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Prins MH, et al. Below-knee elastic compression stockings to prevent the post-thrombotic syndrome: a randomized, controlled trial. Ann Intern Med 2004; 141:249–256.
- Carrier M, Le Gal G, Wells PS, Fergusson D, Ramsay T, Rodger MA. Systematic review: the Trousseau syndrome revisited: should we screen extensively for cancer in patients with venous thromboembolism? Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:323–333.
- Blom JW, Doggen CJ, Osanto S, Rosendaal FR. Malignancies, prothrombotic mutations, and the risk of venous thrombosis. JAMA 2005; 293:715–722.
- Kaatz S. Impact on patient care: patient case through the continuum of care. J Thromb Thrombolysis 2010; 29:167–170.
- Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G; American College of Chest Physicians. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133(suppl 6):160S–198S.
- Schulman S, Kearon C, Kakkar AK, et al; for the RE-COVER Study Group. Dabigatran versus warfarin in the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2009; 361:2342–2452.
- The EINSTEIN Investigators. Oral rivaroxaban for symptomatic venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2010; 363;2499–2510.
Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism are collectively referred to as venous thromboembolic (VTE) disease. They affect approximately 100,000 to 300,000 patients per year in the United States.1 Although patients with deep vein thrombosis can be treated as outpatients, many are admitted for the initiation of anticoagulation. Initial anticoagulation usually requires the overlap of a parenteral anticoagulant (unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin [LMWH] or fondaparinux) with warfarin for a minimum of 5 days and until the international normalized ratio (INR) of the prothrombin time is above 2.0 for at least 24 hours.2
Three clinical issues need to be addressed after the initiation of anticoagulation for VTE:
- Determination of the length of anticoagulation with the correct anticoagulant
- Prevention of postthrombotic syndrome
- Appropriate screening for occult malignancy.
HOW LONG SHOULD VTE BE TREATED?
The duration of anticoagulation has been a matter of debate.
The risk of recurrent VTE appears related to clinical risk factors that a patient has at the time of the initial thrombotic event. An epidemiologic study3 found that patients with VTE treated for approximately 6 months had a low rate of recurrence (0% at 2 years of follow-up) if surgery was the risk factor. The risk climbed to 9% if the risk factor was nonsurgical and to 19% if there were no provoking risk factors.
The likelihood of VTE recurrence and therefore the recommended duration of treatment depend on whether the VTE event was provoked, cancer-related, recurrent, thrombophilia-related, or idiopathic. We address each of these scenarios below.
HOW LONG TO TREAT PROVOKED VTE
A VTE event is considered provoked if the patient had a clear inciting risk factor. As defined in various clinical trials, these risk factors include:
- Hospitalization with confinement to bed for 3 or more consecutive days in the last 3 months
- Surgery or general anesthesia in the last 3 months
- Immobilization for more than 7 days, regardless of the cause
- Trauma in the last 3 months
- Pregnancy
- Use of an oral contraceptive, regardless of which estrogen or progesterone analogue it contains
- Travel for more than 4 hours
- Recent childbirth.
However, the trials that tested different lengths of anticoagulation have varied markedly in how they defined provoked deep vein thrombosis.4–7
Recommendation: Warfarin or equivalent for 3 months
The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) recommends 3 months of anticoagulation with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist for patients with VTE secondary to a transient (reversible) risk factor,2 and we agree.
HOW LONG TO TREAT CANCER-RELATED VTE
Patients with cancer are at higher risk of developing VTE. Furthermore, in one study,9 compared with other patients with VTE, patients with cancer were three times more likely to have another episode of VTE, with a cumulative rate of recurrence at 1 year of 21% vs 7%. Cancer patients were also twice as likely to suffer major bleeding complications while on anticoagulation.9
Warfarin is a difficult drug to manage because it has many interactions with foods, diseases, and other drugs. These difficulties are amplified in many cancer patients during chemotherapy.
Warfarin was compared with a LMWH in four randomized trials in cancer patients, and a meta-analysis10 found a 50% relative reduction in the rates of recurrent deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism with LMWH treatment. These results were driven primarily by the CLOT trial (Comparison of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin Versus Oral Anticoagulant Therapy for the Prevention of Recurrent Venous Thromboembolism in Patients With Cancer),11 which showed an 8% absolute risk reduction (number needed to treat 13) without an increase in major bleeding when cancer-related VTE was treated with an LMWH—ie, dalteparin (Fragmin)—for 6 months compared with warfarin.
Current thinking suggests that VTE should be treated until the cancer is resolved. However, this hypothesis has not been adequately tested, and consequently, the ACCP gives it only a level 1C recommendation.2 The largest of the four trials comparing warfarin and an LMWH lasted only 6 months. The safety of extending LMWH treatment beyond 6 months is currently unknown but is under investigation (clinicaltrials.gov identifier NCT00942968).
Recommendation: LMWH therapy for at least 6 months
The ACCP guidelines recommend LMWH therapy for 3 to 6 months, followed by warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist or continued LMWH treatment until the cancer is resolved.2
The National Comprehensive Cancer Network guidelines recommend an LMWH for 6 months as monotherapy and indefinite anticoagulation if the cancer is still active.12
The American Society of Clinical Oncology guidelines recommend an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulant therapy for selected patients with active cancer.13
We agree that patients with active cancer should receive an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulation until the cancer is resolved.
In our experience, many patients are reluctant to give themselves the daily injections that LMWH therapy requires, and so they need to be well-informed about the marked decrease in VTE recurrence with this less-convenient and more-expensive therapy. Many patients face insurance barriers to cover the cost of LMWH therapy; however, careful attention to preauthorization can usually overcome this obstacle.
HOW LONG TO TREAT RECURRENT VTE
It makes clinical sense that patients who have a second VTE event should be treated indefinitely. This theory was tested in a randomized clinical trial14 in which patients with provoked or unprovoked VTE were randomized after their second event to receive anticoagulation for 6 months vs indefinitely.
After 4 years of follow-up, the recurrence rate was 21% in patients assigned to 6 months of treatment and only 3% in patients who continued anticoagulation throughout the trial. On the other hand, major hemorrhage occurred in 3% of patients treated for 6 months and in 9% in patients who continued anticoagulation indefinitely.
Of note, most of the patients in this trial had unprovoked (idiopathic) VTE, so the results should not be extrapolated to patients with provoked VTE, who accounted for only 20% of the study population.14
Recommendation: Long-term anticoagulation
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients who have had a second episode of unprovoked VTE should receive long-term anticoagulation. Because of a lack of data, the duration of therapy for patients with a second episode of provoked VTE should be individualized.
HOW LONG TO TREAT THROMBOPHILIA-RELATED VTE
Inherited thrombophilias
Patients with VTE that is not related to a clear provoking risk factor or cancer frequently have testing to evaluate for a hypercoagulable state. This workup traditionally includes the most common inherited thrombophilias for gene mutations for factor V and prothrombin as well as for deficiencies in protein C, protein S, antithrombin and the acquired antiphospholipid syndrome.
The key questions that should be asked prior to embarking on this workup are:
- Will the results change the length of therapy for the patient?
- Will testing the patient help with genetic counseling and possible testing of family members?
- Will the results change the targeted INR range for warfarin or other vitamin K antagonist therapy?
Patients with inherited thrombophilia have a greater risk of developing an initial VTE event; however, these tests do not help predict the recurrence of VTE in patients with established disease more than clinical risk factors do. A prospective study demonstrated this by looking at the effect of thrombophilia and clinical factors on the recurrence of venous thrombosis and found that inherited prothrombotic abnormalities do not appear to play an important role in the risk of a recurrent event.15 On the other hand, clinical factors, such as whether the first event was idiopathic or provoked, appear more important in determining the duration of anticoagulation therapy.15 A systematic review of the common inherited thrombophilias showed the VTE recurrence rate of patients with factor V Leiden was higher than in patients without the mutation; however, the absolute rates of recurrence were not much different than what would be expected in patients with idiopathic VTE.16
A retrospective study involving a large cohort of families of patients who already had experienced a first episode of either idiopathic or provoked VTE showed high annual risks of recurrent VTE associated with hereditary deficiencies of protein S (8.4%), protein C (6.0%), and antithrombin (10%).17 However, for the more commonly occurring genetic thrombophilias, the factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A mutations, family members with either gene abnormality had low rates of VTE, suggesting that testing of relatives of probands is not clinically useful.16
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired thrombophilia. A patient has thrombotic antiphospholipid syndrome when there is a history of vascular thrombosis in the presence of persistently positive tests (at least 12 weeks apart) for lupus anticoagulants, anticardiolipin antibodies, or anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I. A prospective study of 412 patients with a first episode of VTE found that 15% were positive for anticardiolipin antibody at the end of 6 months of anticoagulation. The risk of recurrent VTE after 4 years was 29% in patients with antibodies and 14% in those without antibodies (relative risk 2.1; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.3–3.3; P =.0013).18
Recent reviews advise indefinite warfarin anticoagulation in patients with VTE and persistence of antiphospholipid antibodies.19 However, the optimal duration of anticoagulation is uncertain. Until well-designed clinical trials are done, the current general consensus is to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.20,21 Retrospective studies had suggested that patients with antiphospholipid antibodies required a higher therapeutic INR range; however, this observation was tested in two trials that found no difference in thromboembolic rates when patients were randomized to an INR of 2.0–3.0 vs 3.1–4.0,22 or 2.0–3.0 vs 3.0–4.5.23
No formal recommendations
In the absence of strong evidence, the ACCP guidelines do not include a recommendation on the duration of anticoagulation treatment specific to inherited thrombophilias. We believe that clinical factors are more important than inherited thrombophilias for deciding the duration of anticoagulation, and that testing is almost never indicated or useful. However, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome are at high risk of recurrence, and it is our practice to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.
HOW LONG TO TREAT UNPROVOKED (IDIOPATHIC) VTE
A VTE event is thought to be idiopathic if it occurs without a clearly identified provoking factor.
In an observational study,3 patients with oral contraceptive use, transient illness, immobilization, or a history of travel had an 8.8% risk of recurrence vs 19.4% in patients with unprovoked VTE. The meta-analysis discussed above (Table 1)8 also shows that patients with these nonsurgical risk factors have a lower rate of recurrence than patients with idiopathic VTE.
The high rate of recurrence of idiopathic VTE (4% to 27% after 3 months of anticoagulation24–26) suggests that a longer duration of treatment is reasonable. However, increasing the length of therapy from 3 to 12 months delays but does not prevent recurrence, the risk of which begins to accumulate once anticoagulation is stopped.24,25
Three promising strategies to identify subgroups of patients with idiopathic VTE who are at highest risk of recurrence and who would benefit the most from prolonged anticoagulation are d-dimer testing, evaluation for residual vein thrombosis in patients who present with a deep vein thrombosis, and clinical prediction rules.
d-dimer testing
d-dimer is a degradation product of fibrin and is an indirect marker of residual thrombosis.30
In a systematic review of patients with a first episode of unprovoked VTE,31 a normal d-dimer concentration at the end of at least 3 months of anticoagulation was associated with a 3.5% annual risk of recurrence, whereas an elevated d-dimer level at that time was associated with an annual risk of 8.9%. These results were confirmed in a systematic review of individual patient data.32
In a randomized trial,28 patients with an idiopathic VTE event who received anticoagulation for at least 3 months had their d-dimer level measured 1 month after cessation of treatment. Those with an elevated level were randomized to either resume anticoagulation or not. Patients who resumed anticoagulation had an annual recurrence rate of 2%; however, those who were allocated not to restart anticoagulation had a recurrence rate of 10.9% per year. There was no difference in the rate of major bleeding between the two groups. Patients in this clinical trial who had a normal d-dimer level did not restart anticoagulation and had an annual recurrence rate of 4.4%.
Evaluation for residual thrombosis
A randomized trial34 in patients with both provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis showed a reduction in recurrence when those who had residual vein thrombosis were given extended anticoagulation. In the subset of patients whose deep vein thrombosis was idiopathic, the recurrence rate was 17% per year when treatment lasted only 3 months and 10% when it was extended for up to 1 year.
Another trial35 randomized patients with provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis to receive anticoagulation for the usual duration or to continue treatment until recanalization of the residual thrombus was demonstrated on follow-up Doppler ultrasonography. Patients who received this ultrasonography-tailored treatment had a lower rate of recurrence of VTE; however, the absolute reductions in recurrence rates cannot be calculated from this report for patients with idiopathic deep vein thrombosis.
A prospective observational study36 of the predictive value of d-dimer status and residual vein thrombus found that only d-dimer was an independent risk factor for recurrent VTE after vitamin K antagonist withdrawal.
A clinical prediction rule: ‘Men and HERDOO2’
A promising tool for predicting if a patient is at low risk of recurrent VTE after the first episode of proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism is known by the mnemonic device “Men and HERDOO2.” It is based on data prospectively derived by Rodger et al37 to identify patients with less than a 3% annual risk of recurrent VTE after their first event of idiopathic proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for recurrent VTE were male sex (the “men” of “Men and HERDOO2”), signs of postthrombotic syndrome, including hyperpigmentation of the lower extremities, edema or redness of either leg, a d-dimer level > 250 μg/L, obesity (body mass index > 30 kg/m2, and older age (> 65 years).
Overall, one-fourth of the population were women with no risk factors or one risk factor, and their risk of recurrence was 1.6% per year. Men and women who had two or more risk factors for postthrombotic syndrome (hyperpigmentation, edema, or redness), elevated d-dimer, obesity, or older age were predicted to be at higher risk of recurrent VTE. Patients such as this should be considered for indefinite anticoagulation.
Ideally, clinical prediction rules should be validated in a separate group of patients before they are used routinely in practice,38 and this clinical prediction rule is currently being tested in the REVERSE II study. If the results are consistent, this will be an easy-to-use tool to help identify patients who likely can safely stop anticoagulation therapy after 3 to 6 months (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00967304).
The location of the thrombosis also influences the likelihood of recurrence. Patients with isolated distal (calf) deep vein thrombosis are less likely to suffer recurrent VTE than those who present with proximal deep vein thrombosis. However, trials focusing specifically on the precise subset of idiopathic isolated distal deep vein thrombosis are lacking. In a randomized trial39 comparing 6 vs 12 weeks of anticoagulation for isolated distal deep vein thrombosis and 12 vs 24 weeks for proximal deep vein thrombosis, the annual rates of recurrence after 12 weeks of treatment were approximately 3.4% for isolated distal and 8.1% for proximal deep vein thrombosis.39
Recommendation: At least 3 months of warfarin or equivalent
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients with unprovoked VTE should receive at least 3 months of anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist.
If the patient has no risk factors for bleeding and good anticoagulant monitoring is achievable, we agree with long-term anticoagulation for proximal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, and 3 months of therapy for isolated distal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis.
Patient preferences and the risk of recurrence vs the risk of bleeding should be discussed with patients when contemplating indefinite anticoagulation.
If testing is being considered to assist in the decision to prescribe indefinite anticoagulation, we prefer using d-dimer levels rather than ultrasonography to detect residual venous thrombosis because of its ease of use and the strength of the current evidence.
PREVENTING POSTTHROMBOTIC SYNDROME
The postthrombotic (postphlebitic) syndrome is a chronic and burdensome consequence of deep vein thrombosis that occurs despite anticoagulation therapy. It is estimated to affect 23% to 60% of patients and typically manifests in the first 2 years.40 It is not only costly in clinical terms, with decreased quality of life for the patient, but health care expenditures have been estimated to range from $400 per year in a Brazilian study to $7,000 per year in a US study.40
Typical symptoms include leg pain, heaviness, swelling, and cramping. In severe cases, chronic venous ulcers can occur and are difficult to treat.41
The definition of postthrombotic syndrome has been unclear over the years, and six different scales that measure signs and symptoms have been reported.42
The Villalta scale has been proposed by the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis as a diagnostic standard to define postthrombotic syndrome.42 This validated scale is based on five clinical symptoms, six clinical signs, and the presence or absence of venous ulcers. Each clinical symptom and sign is scored as mild (1 point), moderate (2 points), or severe (3 points). Symptoms include pain, cramps, heaviness, paresthesia, and pruritus; the six clinical signs are pretibial edema, skin induration, hyperpigmentation, redness, venous ectasia, and pain on calf compression.
According to the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis, postthrombotic syndrome is present if the Villalta score is 5 or greater or if a venous ulcer is present in a leg with previous deep vein thrombosis. Further, using the Villalta scale, postthrombotic syndrome can be categorized as mild (score 5–9), moderate (10–14), or severe (≥ 15).
A limitation of the Villalta scale is that the presence or absence of a venous ulcer has not been assigned a score. Since a venous ulcer requires more aggressive measures, the society defines postthrombotic syndrome as severe if venous ulcers are present.42
Acute symptoms of deep vein thrombosis may take months to resolve and, indeed, acute symptoms may transition to chronic symptoms without a symptom-free interval. It is recommended that postthrombotic syndrome not be diagnosed before 3 months to avoid inappropriately attributing acute symptoms and signs of deep vein thrombosis to the postthrombotic syndrome.42
Studies of stockings
A systematic review of three randomized trials44 concluded that elastic compression stockings reduce the risk of postthrombotic syndrome (any severity) from 43% to 20% and severe postthrombotic syndrome from 15% to 7%.43
The first of these trials44 randomized patients soon after the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis to receive made-to-order compression stockings that were rated at 30 to 40 mm Hg or to be in a control group that did not receive stockings. The second trial45 randomized patients 1 year after the index event of deep vein thrombosis to receive 20- to 30-mm Hg stockings or stockings that were two sizes too large (the control group). The third study46 randomly allocated patients to receive “off-the-shelf” stockings (30–40 mm Hg) or no stockings. Each study used its own definition of postthrombotic syndrome.
Although these studies strongly suggest compression stockings prevent postthrombotic syndrome, several methodologic issues remain:
- A standard definition of postthrombotic syndrome was not used
- The amount of compression varied between studies
- The studies were not blinded.
Lack of blinding becomes most significant when an outcome is based on subjective findings, like the symptoms that make up a large part of the diagnosis of postthrombotic syndrome.
The SOX trial, currently under way, is designed to address these methodologic issues and should be completed in 2012 (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00143598).
Recommendation: Stockings for at least 2 years
We agree with the ACCP recommendation that a patient who has had a symptomatic proximal deep vein thrombosis should wear an elastic compression stocking with an ankle pressure gradient of 30 to 40 mm Hg as soon as possible after starting anticoagulant therapy and continuing for a minimum of 2 years.2
SCREENING FOR OCCULT MALIGNANCY
VTE can be the first manifestation of cancer.
French physician Armand Trousseau, in the 1860s, was the first to describe disseminated intravascular coagulation closely associated with adenocarcinoma. Ironically, several years later, after suffering for weeks from abdominal pain, he declared to one of his students that he had developed thrombosis, and he died of gastric cancer shortly thereafter.47
Since cancer is a well-known risk factor for VTE, it is logical to screen for cancer as an explanation for an idiopathic VTE event.48 To make an informed decision, one needs to understand the rate of occult cancer at the time VTE is diagnosed, the risk of future development of cancer, and the utility of extensive cancer screening.
The clinical efficacy, side effects, and cost-effectiveness of cancer screening in patients with idiopathic VTE are unknown. However, a systematic review47 of 34 studies found that, in patients with idiopathic VTE, cancer was diagnosed within 1 month in 6.1%, within 6 months in 8.6%, and within 1 year in 10.0% (95% CI 8.6–11.3).
A subset of studies compared two strategies for screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE: a strategy limited to the history, physical examination, basic blood work, and chest radiography vs an extensive screening strategy that also included serum tumor markers or abdominal ultrasonography or computed tomography. Limited screening detected 49% of the prevalent cancers; extensive screening increased this rate to 70%. Stated another way, the detection rate for prevalent cancers was 5% with limited screening and 7% with extensive screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE.47
Patients with idiopathic VTE had higher rates of cancer within 1 month of diagnosis than patients with provoked VTE (6.1% vs 1.9%), and this difference persisted at 1 year (10.0% vs 2.6%).47
Recommendation: Individualized cancer screening
Patients with idiopathic VTE have a significant risk of occult cancer within the first year after diagnosis, and cancer screening should be considered. Our practice for patients with idiopathic VTE is to perform a history and physical examination and ensure that the patient is up to date on age- and sex-specific cancer screening.
The use of additional imaging or biomarkers should be discussed with patients so they can balance the risks (radiation and potential false-positive results with their downstream consequences), costs, and potential benefits, given the lack of proven survival benefit or cost-effectiveness.
ORAL ANTICOAGULANT MANAGEMENT
Warfarin’s multiple interactions, along with the need for INR monitoring, make it a difficult medication to manage.
The Joint Commission, the US organization for health service accreditation and certification, has defined National Patient Safety Goals and quality measures for the management of anticoagulation.49 Organized anticoagulation management services, dosing algorithms, and patient self-testing using capillary INR meters or patient self-management of warfarin were recommended as tools to improve the time patients spend in the therapeutic INR range.50
Two new oral anticoagulants
The limitations of warfarin have stimulated the search for newer oral anticoagulants that do not require laboratory monitoring or have as many diet and drug interactions.
Two trials have been published with experimental oral anticoagulants that had similar efficacy and safety as warfarin in the treatment of VTE.
The study of dabigatran (Pradaxa) vs warfarin in the treatment of acute VTE (the RECOVER trial)51 randomized 2,539 patients with acute VTE to receive the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran or warfarin for approximately 6 months. Of note, each treatment group received a median of 6 days of heparin, LMWH, or fondaparinux at the beginning of blinded therapy. The rates of recurrent VTE and major bleeding were similar between the treatment arms, and overall bleeding was less with dabigatran. Dabigatran was approved in the United States in October 2010 for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation but has yet to be approved for the treatment of VTE pending further study (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00680186).
A study of oral rivaroxaban (Xarelto) for symptomatic VTE (the EINSTEIN-DVT trial) 52 randomized 3,449 patients with acute deep vein thrombosis to rivaroxaban or enoxaparin (Lovenox) overlapped with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist in the usual manner. No difference was noted between the treatments in the rate of recurrence of VTE or of major bleeding. Of note, patients randomized to rivaroxaban received 15 mg twice a day for the first 3 weeks of treatment and then 20 mg per day for the remainder of their therapy and did not require parenteral anticoagulant overlap.
The long-awaited promise of easier-to-use oral anticoagulants for the treatment of VTE is drawing near and has the potential to revolutionize the treatment of this common disorder. In the meantime, close monitoring of warfarin and careful patient education regarding its use are essential. And even with the development of new drugs in the future, it is still imperative that patients with acute VTE receive the correct length of anticoagulation treatment, are prescribed stockings to prevent postthrombotic syndrome, and are updated on routine cancer screening.
Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism are collectively referred to as venous thromboembolic (VTE) disease. They affect approximately 100,000 to 300,000 patients per year in the United States.1 Although patients with deep vein thrombosis can be treated as outpatients, many are admitted for the initiation of anticoagulation. Initial anticoagulation usually requires the overlap of a parenteral anticoagulant (unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin [LMWH] or fondaparinux) with warfarin for a minimum of 5 days and until the international normalized ratio (INR) of the prothrombin time is above 2.0 for at least 24 hours.2
Three clinical issues need to be addressed after the initiation of anticoagulation for VTE:
- Determination of the length of anticoagulation with the correct anticoagulant
- Prevention of postthrombotic syndrome
- Appropriate screening for occult malignancy.
HOW LONG SHOULD VTE BE TREATED?
The duration of anticoagulation has been a matter of debate.
The risk of recurrent VTE appears related to clinical risk factors that a patient has at the time of the initial thrombotic event. An epidemiologic study3 found that patients with VTE treated for approximately 6 months had a low rate of recurrence (0% at 2 years of follow-up) if surgery was the risk factor. The risk climbed to 9% if the risk factor was nonsurgical and to 19% if there were no provoking risk factors.
The likelihood of VTE recurrence and therefore the recommended duration of treatment depend on whether the VTE event was provoked, cancer-related, recurrent, thrombophilia-related, or idiopathic. We address each of these scenarios below.
HOW LONG TO TREAT PROVOKED VTE
A VTE event is considered provoked if the patient had a clear inciting risk factor. As defined in various clinical trials, these risk factors include:
- Hospitalization with confinement to bed for 3 or more consecutive days in the last 3 months
- Surgery or general anesthesia in the last 3 months
- Immobilization for more than 7 days, regardless of the cause
- Trauma in the last 3 months
- Pregnancy
- Use of an oral contraceptive, regardless of which estrogen or progesterone analogue it contains
- Travel for more than 4 hours
- Recent childbirth.
However, the trials that tested different lengths of anticoagulation have varied markedly in how they defined provoked deep vein thrombosis.4–7
Recommendation: Warfarin or equivalent for 3 months
The American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) recommends 3 months of anticoagulation with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist for patients with VTE secondary to a transient (reversible) risk factor,2 and we agree.
HOW LONG TO TREAT CANCER-RELATED VTE
Patients with cancer are at higher risk of developing VTE. Furthermore, in one study,9 compared with other patients with VTE, patients with cancer were three times more likely to have another episode of VTE, with a cumulative rate of recurrence at 1 year of 21% vs 7%. Cancer patients were also twice as likely to suffer major bleeding complications while on anticoagulation.9
Warfarin is a difficult drug to manage because it has many interactions with foods, diseases, and other drugs. These difficulties are amplified in many cancer patients during chemotherapy.
Warfarin was compared with a LMWH in four randomized trials in cancer patients, and a meta-analysis10 found a 50% relative reduction in the rates of recurrent deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism with LMWH treatment. These results were driven primarily by the CLOT trial (Comparison of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin Versus Oral Anticoagulant Therapy for the Prevention of Recurrent Venous Thromboembolism in Patients With Cancer),11 which showed an 8% absolute risk reduction (number needed to treat 13) without an increase in major bleeding when cancer-related VTE was treated with an LMWH—ie, dalteparin (Fragmin)—for 6 months compared with warfarin.
Current thinking suggests that VTE should be treated until the cancer is resolved. However, this hypothesis has not been adequately tested, and consequently, the ACCP gives it only a level 1C recommendation.2 The largest of the four trials comparing warfarin and an LMWH lasted only 6 months. The safety of extending LMWH treatment beyond 6 months is currently unknown but is under investigation (clinicaltrials.gov identifier NCT00942968).
Recommendation: LMWH therapy for at least 6 months
The ACCP guidelines recommend LMWH therapy for 3 to 6 months, followed by warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist or continued LMWH treatment until the cancer is resolved.2
The National Comprehensive Cancer Network guidelines recommend an LMWH for 6 months as monotherapy and indefinite anticoagulation if the cancer is still active.12
The American Society of Clinical Oncology guidelines recommend an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulant therapy for selected patients with active cancer.13
We agree that patients with active cancer should receive an LMWH for at least 6 months and indefinite anticoagulation until the cancer is resolved.
In our experience, many patients are reluctant to give themselves the daily injections that LMWH therapy requires, and so they need to be well-informed about the marked decrease in VTE recurrence with this less-convenient and more-expensive therapy. Many patients face insurance barriers to cover the cost of LMWH therapy; however, careful attention to preauthorization can usually overcome this obstacle.
HOW LONG TO TREAT RECURRENT VTE
It makes clinical sense that patients who have a second VTE event should be treated indefinitely. This theory was tested in a randomized clinical trial14 in which patients with provoked or unprovoked VTE were randomized after their second event to receive anticoagulation for 6 months vs indefinitely.
After 4 years of follow-up, the recurrence rate was 21% in patients assigned to 6 months of treatment and only 3% in patients who continued anticoagulation throughout the trial. On the other hand, major hemorrhage occurred in 3% of patients treated for 6 months and in 9% in patients who continued anticoagulation indefinitely.
Of note, most of the patients in this trial had unprovoked (idiopathic) VTE, so the results should not be extrapolated to patients with provoked VTE, who accounted for only 20% of the study population.14
Recommendation: Long-term anticoagulation
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients who have had a second episode of unprovoked VTE should receive long-term anticoagulation. Because of a lack of data, the duration of therapy for patients with a second episode of provoked VTE should be individualized.
HOW LONG TO TREAT THROMBOPHILIA-RELATED VTE
Inherited thrombophilias
Patients with VTE that is not related to a clear provoking risk factor or cancer frequently have testing to evaluate for a hypercoagulable state. This workup traditionally includes the most common inherited thrombophilias for gene mutations for factor V and prothrombin as well as for deficiencies in protein C, protein S, antithrombin and the acquired antiphospholipid syndrome.
The key questions that should be asked prior to embarking on this workup are:
- Will the results change the length of therapy for the patient?
- Will testing the patient help with genetic counseling and possible testing of family members?
- Will the results change the targeted INR range for warfarin or other vitamin K antagonist therapy?
Patients with inherited thrombophilia have a greater risk of developing an initial VTE event; however, these tests do not help predict the recurrence of VTE in patients with established disease more than clinical risk factors do. A prospective study demonstrated this by looking at the effect of thrombophilia and clinical factors on the recurrence of venous thrombosis and found that inherited prothrombotic abnormalities do not appear to play an important role in the risk of a recurrent event.15 On the other hand, clinical factors, such as whether the first event was idiopathic or provoked, appear more important in determining the duration of anticoagulation therapy.15 A systematic review of the common inherited thrombophilias showed the VTE recurrence rate of patients with factor V Leiden was higher than in patients without the mutation; however, the absolute rates of recurrence were not much different than what would be expected in patients with idiopathic VTE.16
A retrospective study involving a large cohort of families of patients who already had experienced a first episode of either idiopathic or provoked VTE showed high annual risks of recurrent VTE associated with hereditary deficiencies of protein S (8.4%), protein C (6.0%), and antithrombin (10%).17 However, for the more commonly occurring genetic thrombophilias, the factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A mutations, family members with either gene abnormality had low rates of VTE, suggesting that testing of relatives of probands is not clinically useful.16
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired thrombophilia. A patient has thrombotic antiphospholipid syndrome when there is a history of vascular thrombosis in the presence of persistently positive tests (at least 12 weeks apart) for lupus anticoagulants, anticardiolipin antibodies, or anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I. A prospective study of 412 patients with a first episode of VTE found that 15% were positive for anticardiolipin antibody at the end of 6 months of anticoagulation. The risk of recurrent VTE after 4 years was 29% in patients with antibodies and 14% in those without antibodies (relative risk 2.1; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.3–3.3; P =.0013).18
Recent reviews advise indefinite warfarin anticoagulation in patients with VTE and persistence of antiphospholipid antibodies.19 However, the optimal duration of anticoagulation is uncertain. Until well-designed clinical trials are done, the current general consensus is to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.20,21 Retrospective studies had suggested that patients with antiphospholipid antibodies required a higher therapeutic INR range; however, this observation was tested in two trials that found no difference in thromboembolic rates when patients were randomized to an INR of 2.0–3.0 vs 3.1–4.0,22 or 2.0–3.0 vs 3.0–4.5.23
No formal recommendations
In the absence of strong evidence, the ACCP guidelines do not include a recommendation on the duration of anticoagulation treatment specific to inherited thrombophilias. We believe that clinical factors are more important than inherited thrombophilias for deciding the duration of anticoagulation, and that testing is almost never indicated or useful. However, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome are at high risk of recurrence, and it is our practice to anticoagulate these patients indefinitely.
HOW LONG TO TREAT UNPROVOKED (IDIOPATHIC) VTE
A VTE event is thought to be idiopathic if it occurs without a clearly identified provoking factor.
In an observational study,3 patients with oral contraceptive use, transient illness, immobilization, or a history of travel had an 8.8% risk of recurrence vs 19.4% in patients with unprovoked VTE. The meta-analysis discussed above (Table 1)8 also shows that patients with these nonsurgical risk factors have a lower rate of recurrence than patients with idiopathic VTE.
The high rate of recurrence of idiopathic VTE (4% to 27% after 3 months of anticoagulation24–26) suggests that a longer duration of treatment is reasonable. However, increasing the length of therapy from 3 to 12 months delays but does not prevent recurrence, the risk of which begins to accumulate once anticoagulation is stopped.24,25
Three promising strategies to identify subgroups of patients with idiopathic VTE who are at highest risk of recurrence and who would benefit the most from prolonged anticoagulation are d-dimer testing, evaluation for residual vein thrombosis in patients who present with a deep vein thrombosis, and clinical prediction rules.
d-dimer testing
d-dimer is a degradation product of fibrin and is an indirect marker of residual thrombosis.30
In a systematic review of patients with a first episode of unprovoked VTE,31 a normal d-dimer concentration at the end of at least 3 months of anticoagulation was associated with a 3.5% annual risk of recurrence, whereas an elevated d-dimer level at that time was associated with an annual risk of 8.9%. These results were confirmed in a systematic review of individual patient data.32
In a randomized trial,28 patients with an idiopathic VTE event who received anticoagulation for at least 3 months had their d-dimer level measured 1 month after cessation of treatment. Those with an elevated level were randomized to either resume anticoagulation or not. Patients who resumed anticoagulation had an annual recurrence rate of 2%; however, those who were allocated not to restart anticoagulation had a recurrence rate of 10.9% per year. There was no difference in the rate of major bleeding between the two groups. Patients in this clinical trial who had a normal d-dimer level did not restart anticoagulation and had an annual recurrence rate of 4.4%.
Evaluation for residual thrombosis
A randomized trial34 in patients with both provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis showed a reduction in recurrence when those who had residual vein thrombosis were given extended anticoagulation. In the subset of patients whose deep vein thrombosis was idiopathic, the recurrence rate was 17% per year when treatment lasted only 3 months and 10% when it was extended for up to 1 year.
Another trial35 randomized patients with provoked and idiopathic deep vein thrombosis to receive anticoagulation for the usual duration or to continue treatment until recanalization of the residual thrombus was demonstrated on follow-up Doppler ultrasonography. Patients who received this ultrasonography-tailored treatment had a lower rate of recurrence of VTE; however, the absolute reductions in recurrence rates cannot be calculated from this report for patients with idiopathic deep vein thrombosis.
A prospective observational study36 of the predictive value of d-dimer status and residual vein thrombus found that only d-dimer was an independent risk factor for recurrent VTE after vitamin K antagonist withdrawal.
A clinical prediction rule: ‘Men and HERDOO2’
A promising tool for predicting if a patient is at low risk of recurrent VTE after the first episode of proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism is known by the mnemonic device “Men and HERDOO2.” It is based on data prospectively derived by Rodger et al37 to identify patients with less than a 3% annual risk of recurrent VTE after their first event of idiopathic proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for recurrent VTE were male sex (the “men” of “Men and HERDOO2”), signs of postthrombotic syndrome, including hyperpigmentation of the lower extremities, edema or redness of either leg, a d-dimer level > 250 μg/L, obesity (body mass index > 30 kg/m2, and older age (> 65 years).
Overall, one-fourth of the population were women with no risk factors or one risk factor, and their risk of recurrence was 1.6% per year. Men and women who had two or more risk factors for postthrombotic syndrome (hyperpigmentation, edema, or redness), elevated d-dimer, obesity, or older age were predicted to be at higher risk of recurrent VTE. Patients such as this should be considered for indefinite anticoagulation.
Ideally, clinical prediction rules should be validated in a separate group of patients before they are used routinely in practice,38 and this clinical prediction rule is currently being tested in the REVERSE II study. If the results are consistent, this will be an easy-to-use tool to help identify patients who likely can safely stop anticoagulation therapy after 3 to 6 months (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00967304).
The location of the thrombosis also influences the likelihood of recurrence. Patients with isolated distal (calf) deep vein thrombosis are less likely to suffer recurrent VTE than those who present with proximal deep vein thrombosis. However, trials focusing specifically on the precise subset of idiopathic isolated distal deep vein thrombosis are lacking. In a randomized trial39 comparing 6 vs 12 weeks of anticoagulation for isolated distal deep vein thrombosis and 12 vs 24 weeks for proximal deep vein thrombosis, the annual rates of recurrence after 12 weeks of treatment were approximately 3.4% for isolated distal and 8.1% for proximal deep vein thrombosis.39
Recommendation: At least 3 months of warfarin or equivalent
We agree with the ACCP recommendation2 that patients with unprovoked VTE should receive at least 3 months of anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist.
If the patient has no risk factors for bleeding and good anticoagulant monitoring is achievable, we agree with long-term anticoagulation for proximal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, and 3 months of therapy for isolated distal unprovoked deep vein thrombosis.
Patient preferences and the risk of recurrence vs the risk of bleeding should be discussed with patients when contemplating indefinite anticoagulation.
If testing is being considered to assist in the decision to prescribe indefinite anticoagulation, we prefer using d-dimer levels rather than ultrasonography to detect residual venous thrombosis because of its ease of use and the strength of the current evidence.
PREVENTING POSTTHROMBOTIC SYNDROME
The postthrombotic (postphlebitic) syndrome is a chronic and burdensome consequence of deep vein thrombosis that occurs despite anticoagulation therapy. It is estimated to affect 23% to 60% of patients and typically manifests in the first 2 years.40 It is not only costly in clinical terms, with decreased quality of life for the patient, but health care expenditures have been estimated to range from $400 per year in a Brazilian study to $7,000 per year in a US study.40
Typical symptoms include leg pain, heaviness, swelling, and cramping. In severe cases, chronic venous ulcers can occur and are difficult to treat.41
The definition of postthrombotic syndrome has been unclear over the years, and six different scales that measure signs and symptoms have been reported.42
The Villalta scale has been proposed by the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis as a diagnostic standard to define postthrombotic syndrome.42 This validated scale is based on five clinical symptoms, six clinical signs, and the presence or absence of venous ulcers. Each clinical symptom and sign is scored as mild (1 point), moderate (2 points), or severe (3 points). Symptoms include pain, cramps, heaviness, paresthesia, and pruritus; the six clinical signs are pretibial edema, skin induration, hyperpigmentation, redness, venous ectasia, and pain on calf compression.
According to the International Society of Thrombosis and Hemostasis, postthrombotic syndrome is present if the Villalta score is 5 or greater or if a venous ulcer is present in a leg with previous deep vein thrombosis. Further, using the Villalta scale, postthrombotic syndrome can be categorized as mild (score 5–9), moderate (10–14), or severe (≥ 15).
A limitation of the Villalta scale is that the presence or absence of a venous ulcer has not been assigned a score. Since a venous ulcer requires more aggressive measures, the society defines postthrombotic syndrome as severe if venous ulcers are present.42
Acute symptoms of deep vein thrombosis may take months to resolve and, indeed, acute symptoms may transition to chronic symptoms without a symptom-free interval. It is recommended that postthrombotic syndrome not be diagnosed before 3 months to avoid inappropriately attributing acute symptoms and signs of deep vein thrombosis to the postthrombotic syndrome.42
Studies of stockings
A systematic review of three randomized trials44 concluded that elastic compression stockings reduce the risk of postthrombotic syndrome (any severity) from 43% to 20% and severe postthrombotic syndrome from 15% to 7%.43
The first of these trials44 randomized patients soon after the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis to receive made-to-order compression stockings that were rated at 30 to 40 mm Hg or to be in a control group that did not receive stockings. The second trial45 randomized patients 1 year after the index event of deep vein thrombosis to receive 20- to 30-mm Hg stockings or stockings that were two sizes too large (the control group). The third study46 randomly allocated patients to receive “off-the-shelf” stockings (30–40 mm Hg) or no stockings. Each study used its own definition of postthrombotic syndrome.
Although these studies strongly suggest compression stockings prevent postthrombotic syndrome, several methodologic issues remain:
- A standard definition of postthrombotic syndrome was not used
- The amount of compression varied between studies
- The studies were not blinded.
Lack of blinding becomes most significant when an outcome is based on subjective findings, like the symptoms that make up a large part of the diagnosis of postthrombotic syndrome.
The SOX trial, currently under way, is designed to address these methodologic issues and should be completed in 2012 (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00143598).
Recommendation: Stockings for at least 2 years
We agree with the ACCP recommendation that a patient who has had a symptomatic proximal deep vein thrombosis should wear an elastic compression stocking with an ankle pressure gradient of 30 to 40 mm Hg as soon as possible after starting anticoagulant therapy and continuing for a minimum of 2 years.2
SCREENING FOR OCCULT MALIGNANCY
VTE can be the first manifestation of cancer.
French physician Armand Trousseau, in the 1860s, was the first to describe disseminated intravascular coagulation closely associated with adenocarcinoma. Ironically, several years later, after suffering for weeks from abdominal pain, he declared to one of his students that he had developed thrombosis, and he died of gastric cancer shortly thereafter.47
Since cancer is a well-known risk factor for VTE, it is logical to screen for cancer as an explanation for an idiopathic VTE event.48 To make an informed decision, one needs to understand the rate of occult cancer at the time VTE is diagnosed, the risk of future development of cancer, and the utility of extensive cancer screening.
The clinical efficacy, side effects, and cost-effectiveness of cancer screening in patients with idiopathic VTE are unknown. However, a systematic review47 of 34 studies found that, in patients with idiopathic VTE, cancer was diagnosed within 1 month in 6.1%, within 6 months in 8.6%, and within 1 year in 10.0% (95% CI 8.6–11.3).
A subset of studies compared two strategies for screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE: a strategy limited to the history, physical examination, basic blood work, and chest radiography vs an extensive screening strategy that also included serum tumor markers or abdominal ultrasonography or computed tomography. Limited screening detected 49% of the prevalent cancers; extensive screening increased this rate to 70%. Stated another way, the detection rate for prevalent cancers was 5% with limited screening and 7% with extensive screening soon after the diagnosis of idiopathic VTE.47
Patients with idiopathic VTE had higher rates of cancer within 1 month of diagnosis than patients with provoked VTE (6.1% vs 1.9%), and this difference persisted at 1 year (10.0% vs 2.6%).47
Recommendation: Individualized cancer screening
Patients with idiopathic VTE have a significant risk of occult cancer within the first year after diagnosis, and cancer screening should be considered. Our practice for patients with idiopathic VTE is to perform a history and physical examination and ensure that the patient is up to date on age- and sex-specific cancer screening.
The use of additional imaging or biomarkers should be discussed with patients so they can balance the risks (radiation and potential false-positive results with their downstream consequences), costs, and potential benefits, given the lack of proven survival benefit or cost-effectiveness.
ORAL ANTICOAGULANT MANAGEMENT
Warfarin’s multiple interactions, along with the need for INR monitoring, make it a difficult medication to manage.
The Joint Commission, the US organization for health service accreditation and certification, has defined National Patient Safety Goals and quality measures for the management of anticoagulation.49 Organized anticoagulation management services, dosing algorithms, and patient self-testing using capillary INR meters or patient self-management of warfarin were recommended as tools to improve the time patients spend in the therapeutic INR range.50
Two new oral anticoagulants
The limitations of warfarin have stimulated the search for newer oral anticoagulants that do not require laboratory monitoring or have as many diet and drug interactions.
Two trials have been published with experimental oral anticoagulants that had similar efficacy and safety as warfarin in the treatment of VTE.
The study of dabigatran (Pradaxa) vs warfarin in the treatment of acute VTE (the RECOVER trial)51 randomized 2,539 patients with acute VTE to receive the oral direct thrombin inhibitor dabigatran or warfarin for approximately 6 months. Of note, each treatment group received a median of 6 days of heparin, LMWH, or fondaparinux at the beginning of blinded therapy. The rates of recurrent VTE and major bleeding were similar between the treatment arms, and overall bleeding was less with dabigatran. Dabigatran was approved in the United States in October 2010 for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation but has yet to be approved for the treatment of VTE pending further study (clinicaltrials.gov Identifier: NCT00680186).
A study of oral rivaroxaban (Xarelto) for symptomatic VTE (the EINSTEIN-DVT trial) 52 randomized 3,449 patients with acute deep vein thrombosis to rivaroxaban or enoxaparin (Lovenox) overlapped with warfarin or another vitamin K antagonist in the usual manner. No difference was noted between the treatments in the rate of recurrence of VTE or of major bleeding. Of note, patients randomized to rivaroxaban received 15 mg twice a day for the first 3 weeks of treatment and then 20 mg per day for the remainder of their therapy and did not require parenteral anticoagulant overlap.
The long-awaited promise of easier-to-use oral anticoagulants for the treatment of VTE is drawing near and has the potential to revolutionize the treatment of this common disorder. In the meantime, close monitoring of warfarin and careful patient education regarding its use are essential. And even with the development of new drugs in the future, it is still imperative that patients with acute VTE receive the correct length of anticoagulation treatment, are prescribed stockings to prevent postthrombotic syndrome, and are updated on routine cancer screening.
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- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Prins MH, et al. Below-knee elastic compression stockings to prevent the post-thrombotic syndrome: a randomized, controlled trial. Ann Intern Med 2004; 141:249–256.
- Carrier M, Le Gal G, Wells PS, Fergusson D, Ramsay T, Rodger MA. Systematic review: the Trousseau syndrome revisited: should we screen extensively for cancer in patients with venous thromboembolism? Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:323–333.
- Blom JW, Doggen CJ, Osanto S, Rosendaal FR. Malignancies, prothrombotic mutations, and the risk of venous thrombosis. JAMA 2005; 293:715–722.
- Kaatz S. Impact on patient care: patient case through the continuum of care. J Thromb Thrombolysis 2010; 29:167–170.
- Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G; American College of Chest Physicians. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133(suppl 6):160S–198S.
- Schulman S, Kearon C, Kakkar AK, et al; for the RE-COVER Study Group. Dabigatran versus warfarin in the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2009; 361:2342–2452.
- The EINSTEIN Investigators. Oral rivaroxaban for symptomatic venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2010; 363;2499–2510.
- Spencer FA, Emery C, Lessard D, et al. The Worcester Venous Thromboembolism study: a population-based study of the clinical epidemiology of venous thromboembolism. J Gen Intern Med 2006; 21:722–727.
- Kearon C, Kahn SR, Agnelli G, Goldhaber S, Raskob GE, Comerota AJ; American College of Chest Physicians. Antithrombotic therapy for venous thromboembolic disease: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133(suppl 6):454S–545S.
- Baglin T, Luddington R, Brown K, Baglin C. Incidence of recurrent venous thromboembolism in relation to clinical and thrombophilic risk factors: prospective cohort study. Lancet 2003; 362:523–526.
- Schulman S, Lockner D, Juhlin-Dannfelt A. The duration of oral anticoagulation after deep vein thrombosis. A randomized study. Acta Med Scand 1985; 217:547–552.
- Optimum duration of anticoagulation for deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Research Committee of the British Thoracic Society. Lancet 1992; 340:873–876.
- Schulman S, Rhedin AS, Lindmarker P, et al. A comparison of six weeks with six months of oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of venous thromboembolism. Duration of Anticoagulation Trial Study Group. N Engl J Med 1995; 332:1661–1665.
- Kearon C, Ginsberg JS, Anderson DR, et al. Comparison of 1 month with 3 months of anticoagulation for a first episode of venous thromboembolism associated with a transient risk factor. J Thromb Haemost 2004; 2:743–749.
- Iorio A, Kearon C, Filippucci E, et al. Risk of recurrence after a first episode of symptomatic venous thromboembolism provoked by a transient risk factor: a systematic review. Arch Intern Med 2010; 170:1710–1716.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Piccioli A, et al. Recurrent venous thromboembolism and bleeding complications during anticoagulant treatment in patients with cancer and venous thrombosis. Blood 2002; 100:3484–3488.
- Hull RD, Pineo GF, Brant RF, et al; LITE Trial Investigators. Long-term low-molecular-weight heparin versus usual care in proximal-vein thrombosis patients with cancer. Am J Med 2006; 119:1062–1072.
- Lee AY, Levine MN, Baker RI, et al; Randomized Comparison of Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin versus Oral Anticoagulant Therapy for the Prevention of Recurrent Venous Thromboembolism in Patients with Cancer (CLOT) Investigators. Low-molecular-weight heparin versus a coumarin for the prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with cancer. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:146–153.
- National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN). NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology, Venous Thromboembolic Disease. http://www.nccn.org/professionals/physician_gls/pdf/vte.pdf. Accessed August 3, 2011.
- Lyman GH, Khorana AA, Falanga A, et al; American Society of Clinical Oncology. American Society of Clinical Oncology guideline: recommendations for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and treatment in patients with cancer. J Clin Oncol 2007; 25:5490–5505.
- Schulman S, Granqvist S, Holmström M, et al. The duration of oral anticoagulant therapy after a second episode of venous thromboembolism. The Duration of Anticoagulation Trial Study Group. N Engl J Med 1997; 336:393–398.
- Christiansen SC, Cannegieter SC, Koster T, Vandenbroucke JP, Rosendaal FR. Thrombophilia, clinical factors, and recurrent venous thrombotic events. JAMA 2005; 293:2352–2361.
- Segal JB, Brotman DJ, Necochea AJ, et al. Predictive value of factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A in adults with venous thromboembolism and in family members of those with a mutation: a systematic review. JAMA 2009; 301:2472–2485.
- Brouwer JL, Lijfering WM, Ten Kate MK, Kluin-Nelemans HC, Veeger NJ, van der Meer J. High long-term absolute risk of recurrent venous thromboembolism in patients with hereditary deficiencies of protein S, protein C or antithrombin. Thromb Haemost 2009; 101:93–99.
- Schulman S, Svenungsson E, Granqvist S. Anticardiolipin antibodies predict early recurrence of thromboembolism and death among patients with venous thromboembolism following anticoagulant therapy. Duration of Anticoagulation Study Group. Am J Med 1998; 104:332–338.
- Derksen RH, de Groot PG. Towards evidence-based treatment of thrombotic antiphospholipid syndrome. Lupus 2010; 19:470–474.
- Lim W, Crowther MA, Eikelboom JW. Management of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome: a systematic review. JAMA 2006; 295:1050–1057.
- Fonseca AG, D’Cruz DP. Controversies in the antiphospholipid syndrome: can we ever stop warfarin? J Autoimmune Dis 2008; 5:6.
- Crowther MA, Ginsberg JS, Julian J, et al. A comparison of two intensities of warfarin for the prevention of recurrent thrombosis in patients with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:1133–1138.
- Finazzi G, Marchioli R, Brancaccio V, et al. A randomized clinical trial of high-intensity warfarin vs. conventional antithrombotic therapy for the prevention of recurrent thrombosis in patients with the antiphospholipid syndrome (WAPS). J Thromb Haemost 2005; 3:848–853.
- Agnelli G, Prandoni P, Becattini C, et al; Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. Extended oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of pulmonary embolism. Ann Intern Med 2003; 139:19–25.
- Agnelli G, Prandoni P, Santamaria MG, et al; Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. Three months versus one year of oral anticoagulant therapy for idiopathic deep venous thrombosis. Warfarin Optimal Duration Italian Trial Investigators. N Engl J Med 2001; 345:165–169.
- Kearon C, Gent M, Hirsh J, et al. A comparison of three months of anticoagulation with extended anticoagulation for a first episode of idiopathic venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 1999; 340:901–907.
- Kearon C, Ginsberg JS, Kovacs MJ, et al; Extended Low-Intensity Anticoagulation for Thrombo-Embolism Investigators. Comparison of low-intensity warfarin therapy with conventional-intensity warfarin therapy for long-term prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:631–639.
- Palareti G, Cosmi B, Legnani C, et al; PROLONG Investigators. D-dimer testing to determine the duration of anticoagulation therapy. N Engl J Med 2006; 355:1780–1789.
- Ridker PM, Goldhaber SZ, Glynn RJ. Low-intensity versus conventional-intensity warfarin for prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:2164–2167.
- Bockenstedt P. D-dimer in venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2003; 349:1203–1204.
- Verhovsek M, Douketis JD, Yi Q, et al. Systematic review: D-dimer to predict recurrent disease after stopping anticoagulant therapy for unprovoked venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:481–490,W94.
- Douketis J, Tosetto A, Marcucci M, et al. Patient-level metaanalysis: effect of measurement timing, threshold, and patient age on ability of D-dimer testing to assess recurrence risk after unprovoked venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2010; 153:523–531.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Prins MH, et al. Residual venous thrombosis as a predictive factor of recurrent venous thromboembolism. Ann Intern Med 2002; 137:955–960.
- Siragusa S, Malato A, Anastasio R, et al. Residual vein thrombosis to establish duration of anticoagulation after a first episode of deep vein thrombosis: the Duration of Anticoagulation based on Compression UltraSonography (DACUS) study. Blood 2008; 112:511–515.
- Prandoni P, Prins MH, Lensing AW, et al; AESOPUS Investigators. Residual thrombosis on ultrasonography to guide the duration of anticoagulation in patients with deep venous thrombosis: a randomized trial. Ann Intern Med 2009; 150:577–585.
- Cosmi B, Legnani C, Cini M, Guazzaloca G, Palareti G. D-dimer levels in combination with residual venous obstruction and the risk of recurrence after anticoagulation withdrawal for a first idiopathic deep vein thrombosis. Thromb Haemost 2005; 94:969–974.
- Rodger MA, Kahn SR, Wells PS, et al. Identifying unprovoked thromboembolism patients at low risk for recurrence who can discontinue anticoagulant therapy. CMAJ 2008; 179:417–426.
- McGinn TG, Guyatt GH, Wyer PC, Naylor CD, Stiell IG, Richardson WS. Users’ guides to the medical literature: XXII: how to use articles about clinical decision rules. Evidence-Based Medicine Working Group. JAMA 2000; 284:79–84.
- Pinede L, Ninet J, Duhaut P, et al; Investigators of the “Durée Optimale du Traitement AntiVitamines K” (DOTAVK) Study. Comparison of 3 and 6 months of oral anticoagulant therapy after a first episode of proximal deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism and comparison of 6 and 12 weeks of therapy after isolated calf deep vein thrombosis. Circulation 2001; 103:2453–2460.
- Ashrani AA, Heit JA. Incidence and cost burden of postthrombotic syndrome. J Thromb Thrombolysis 2009; 28:465–476.
- Kahn SR, Shrier I, Julian JA, et al. Determinants and time course of the postthrombotic syndrome after acute deep venous thrombosis. Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:698–707.
- Kahn SR, Partsch H, Vedantham S, Prandoni P, Kearon C; Subcommittee on Control of Anticoagulation of the Scientific and Standardization Committee of the International Society on Thrombosis and Haemostasis. Definition of post-thrombotic syndrome of the leg for use in clinical investigations: a recommendation for standardization. J Thromb Haemost 2009; 7:879–883.
- Kolbach DN, Sandbrink MW, Hamulyak K, Neumann HA, Prins MH. Non-pharmaceutical measures for prevention of post-thrombotic syndrome. Cochrane Database Syst Rev 2004;CD004174.
- Brandjes DP, Büller HR, Heijboer H, et al. Randomised trial of effect of compression stockings in patients with symptomatic proximal-vein thrombosis. Lancet 1997; 349:759–762.
- Ginsberg JS, Hirsh J, Julian J, et al. Prevention and treatment of postphlebitic syndrome: results of a 3-part study. Arch Intern Med 2001; 161:2105–2109.
- Prandoni P, Lensing AW, Prins MH, et al. Below-knee elastic compression stockings to prevent the post-thrombotic syndrome: a randomized, controlled trial. Ann Intern Med 2004; 141:249–256.
- Carrier M, Le Gal G, Wells PS, Fergusson D, Ramsay T, Rodger MA. Systematic review: the Trousseau syndrome revisited: should we screen extensively for cancer in patients with venous thromboembolism? Ann Intern Med 2008; 149:323–333.
- Blom JW, Doggen CJ, Osanto S, Rosendaal FR. Malignancies, prothrombotic mutations, and the risk of venous thrombosis. JAMA 2005; 293:715–722.
- Kaatz S. Impact on patient care: patient case through the continuum of care. J Thromb Thrombolysis 2010; 29:167–170.
- Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G; American College of Chest Physicians. Pharmacology and management of the vitamin K antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). Chest 2008; 133(suppl 6):160S–198S.
- Schulman S, Kearon C, Kakkar AK, et al; for the RE-COVER Study Group. Dabigatran versus warfarin in the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2009; 361:2342–2452.
- The EINSTEIN Investigators. Oral rivaroxaban for symptomatic venous thromboembolism. N Engl J Med 2010; 363;2499–2510.
KEY POINTS
- A low-molecular-weight heparin for at least 6 months is the treatment of choice for cancer-related VTE.
- We recommend 3 months of anticoagulation for VTE caused by a reversible risk factor and indefinite treatment for idiopathic VTE in patients without risk factors for bleeding who can get anticoagulation monitoring.
- Clinical factors are more important in deciding the duration of anticoagulation therapy than evidence of an inherited thrombophilic state.
- Elastic compression stockings reduce the risk of postthrombotic syndrome substantially.
- Patients with idiopathic VTE should have a basic screening for malignancy.
Unmasking gastric cancer
A 50-year-old male Japanese immigrant with a history of smoking and occasional untreated heartburn presented with the recent onset of flank pain, weight loss, headache, syncope, and blurred vision.
Previously healthy, he began feeling moderate pain in his left flank 1 month ago; it was diagnosed as kidney stones and was treated conservatively. Two weeks later he had an episode of syncope and soon after developed blurred vision, mainly in his left eye, along with severe bifrontal headache. An eye examination and magnetic resonance imaging of the brain indicated optic neuritis, for which he was given glucocorticoids intravenously for 3 days, with moderate improvement.
As his symptoms continued over the next 2 weeks, he lost 20 lb (9.1 kg) due to the pain, loss of appetite, nausea, and occasional vomiting.
Positron emission tomography showed the retroperitoneal infiltrative process and the thickened gastric cardia to be hypermetabolic (Figure 1C).
The area of retroperitoneal infiltration was biopsied under CT guidance, and pathologic study showed poorly differentiated carcinoma with signet-ring cells, a feature of gastric cancer.
The patient underwent lumbar puncture. His cerebrospinal fluid had 206 white blood cells/μL (reference range 0–5) and large numbers of poorly differentiated malignant cells, most consistent with adenocarcinoma on cytologic study.
duodenoscopy (EGD) revealed a large, ulcerated, submucosal, nodular mass in the cardia of the stomach extending to the gastroesophageal junction (Figure 2A). Biopsy of the mass again revealed poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma with scattered signet-ring cells undermining the gastric mucosa, favoring a gastric origin (Figure 2B).
THREE SUBTYPES OF GASTRIC CANCER
Worldwide, gastric cancer is the third most common type of cancer and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths.1 In the United States, blacks and people of Asian ancestry have almost twice the risk of death, with the highest incidence and mortality rates.2,3
Most cases of gastric adenocarcinoma can be categorized as either intestinal or diffuse, but a new proximal subtype is emerging.4
Intestinal-type gastric adenocarcinoma is the most common subtype and accounts for almost all the ethnic and geographic variation in incidence.2 The lesions are often ulcerative and distal; the pathogenesis is stepwise and is initiated by chronic inflammation. Risk factors include old age, Helicobacter pylori infection, tobacco smoking, family history, and high salt intake, with an observed risk-reduction with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and with a high intake of fruits and vegetables.3
Diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, has a uniform distribution worldwide, and its incidence is increasing. It typically carries a poor prognosis. Evidence thus far has shown its pathogenesis to be independent of chronic inflammation, but it has a strong tendency to be hereditary.3
Proximal gastric adenocarcinoma is observed in the gastric cardia and near the gastroesophageal junction. It is often grouped with the distal esophageal adenocarcinomas and has similar risk factors, including reflux disease, obesity, alcohol abuse, and tobacco smoking. Interestingly, however, H pylori infection does not contribute to the pathogenesis of this type, and it may even have a protective role.3
DIFFICULT TO DETECT EARLY
Gastric cancer is difficult to detect early enough in its course to be cured. Understanding its risk factors, recognizing its common symptoms, and regarding its uncommon symptoms with suspicion may lead to earlier diagnosis and more effective treatment.
Our patient’s proximal gastric cancer was diagnosed late even though he had several risk factors for it (he was Japanese, he was a smoker, and he had gastroesophageal reflux disease) because of a late and atypical presentation with misleading paraneoplastic symptoms.
Early diagnosis is difficult because most patients have no symptoms in the early stage; weight loss and abdominal pain are often late signs of tumor progression.
Screening may be justified in high-risk groups in the United States, although the issue is debatable. Diagnostic imaging is the only effective method for screening,5 with EGD considered the first-line targeted evaluation should there be suspicion of gastric cancer either from the clinical presentation or from barium swallow.6 Candidates for screening may include elderly patients with atrophic gastritis or pernicious anemia, immigrants from countries with high rates of gastric carcinoma, and people with a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.7
- Parkin DM, Bray F, Ferlay J, Pisani P. Global cancer statistics, 2002. CA Cancer J Clin 2005; 55:74–108.
- Crew KD, Neugut AI. Epidemiology of gastric cancer. World J Gastroenterol 2006; 12:354–362.
- Shah MA, Kelsen DP. Gastric cancer: a primer on the epidemiology and biology of the disease and an overview of the medical management of advanced disease. J Natl Compr Canc Netw 2010; 8:437–447.
- Fine G, Chan K. Alimentary tract. In:Kissane JM, editor. Anderson’s Pathology. 8th ed. Saint Louis, MO: Mosby; 1985:1055–1095.
- Kunisaki C, Ishino J, Nakajima S, et al. Outcomes of mass screening for gastric carcinoma. Ann Surg Oncol 2006; 13:221–228.
- Cappell MS, Friedel D. The role of esophagogastroduodenoscopy in the diagnosis and management of upper gastrointestinal disorders. Med Clin North Am 2002; 86:1165–1216.
- Hisamuchi S, Fukao P, Sugawara N, et al. Evaluation of mass screening programme for stomach cancer in Japan. In:Miller AB, Chamberlain J, Day NE, et al, editors. Cancer Screening. Cambridge, UK: Cambridge University Press; 1991:357–372.
A 50-year-old male Japanese immigrant with a history of smoking and occasional untreated heartburn presented with the recent onset of flank pain, weight loss, headache, syncope, and blurred vision.
Previously healthy, he began feeling moderate pain in his left flank 1 month ago; it was diagnosed as kidney stones and was treated conservatively. Two weeks later he had an episode of syncope and soon after developed blurred vision, mainly in his left eye, along with severe bifrontal headache. An eye examination and magnetic resonance imaging of the brain indicated optic neuritis, for which he was given glucocorticoids intravenously for 3 days, with moderate improvement.
As his symptoms continued over the next 2 weeks, he lost 20 lb (9.1 kg) due to the pain, loss of appetite, nausea, and occasional vomiting.
Positron emission tomography showed the retroperitoneal infiltrative process and the thickened gastric cardia to be hypermetabolic (Figure 1C).
The area of retroperitoneal infiltration was biopsied under CT guidance, and pathologic study showed poorly differentiated carcinoma with signet-ring cells, a feature of gastric cancer.
The patient underwent lumbar puncture. His cerebrospinal fluid had 206 white blood cells/μL (reference range 0–5) and large numbers of poorly differentiated malignant cells, most consistent with adenocarcinoma on cytologic study.
duodenoscopy (EGD) revealed a large, ulcerated, submucosal, nodular mass in the cardia of the stomach extending to the gastroesophageal junction (Figure 2A). Biopsy of the mass again revealed poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma with scattered signet-ring cells undermining the gastric mucosa, favoring a gastric origin (Figure 2B).
THREE SUBTYPES OF GASTRIC CANCER
Worldwide, gastric cancer is the third most common type of cancer and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths.1 In the United States, blacks and people of Asian ancestry have almost twice the risk of death, with the highest incidence and mortality rates.2,3
Most cases of gastric adenocarcinoma can be categorized as either intestinal or diffuse, but a new proximal subtype is emerging.4
Intestinal-type gastric adenocarcinoma is the most common subtype and accounts for almost all the ethnic and geographic variation in incidence.2 The lesions are often ulcerative and distal; the pathogenesis is stepwise and is initiated by chronic inflammation. Risk factors include old age, Helicobacter pylori infection, tobacco smoking, family history, and high salt intake, with an observed risk-reduction with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and with a high intake of fruits and vegetables.3
Diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, has a uniform distribution worldwide, and its incidence is increasing. It typically carries a poor prognosis. Evidence thus far has shown its pathogenesis to be independent of chronic inflammation, but it has a strong tendency to be hereditary.3
Proximal gastric adenocarcinoma is observed in the gastric cardia and near the gastroesophageal junction. It is often grouped with the distal esophageal adenocarcinomas and has similar risk factors, including reflux disease, obesity, alcohol abuse, and tobacco smoking. Interestingly, however, H pylori infection does not contribute to the pathogenesis of this type, and it may even have a protective role.3
DIFFICULT TO DETECT EARLY
Gastric cancer is difficult to detect early enough in its course to be cured. Understanding its risk factors, recognizing its common symptoms, and regarding its uncommon symptoms with suspicion may lead to earlier diagnosis and more effective treatment.
Our patient’s proximal gastric cancer was diagnosed late even though he had several risk factors for it (he was Japanese, he was a smoker, and he had gastroesophageal reflux disease) because of a late and atypical presentation with misleading paraneoplastic symptoms.
Early diagnosis is difficult because most patients have no symptoms in the early stage; weight loss and abdominal pain are often late signs of tumor progression.
Screening may be justified in high-risk groups in the United States, although the issue is debatable. Diagnostic imaging is the only effective method for screening,5 with EGD considered the first-line targeted evaluation should there be suspicion of gastric cancer either from the clinical presentation or from barium swallow.6 Candidates for screening may include elderly patients with atrophic gastritis or pernicious anemia, immigrants from countries with high rates of gastric carcinoma, and people with a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.7
A 50-year-old male Japanese immigrant with a history of smoking and occasional untreated heartburn presented with the recent onset of flank pain, weight loss, headache, syncope, and blurred vision.
Previously healthy, he began feeling moderate pain in his left flank 1 month ago; it was diagnosed as kidney stones and was treated conservatively. Two weeks later he had an episode of syncope and soon after developed blurred vision, mainly in his left eye, along with severe bifrontal headache. An eye examination and magnetic resonance imaging of the brain indicated optic neuritis, for which he was given glucocorticoids intravenously for 3 days, with moderate improvement.
As his symptoms continued over the next 2 weeks, he lost 20 lb (9.1 kg) due to the pain, loss of appetite, nausea, and occasional vomiting.
Positron emission tomography showed the retroperitoneal infiltrative process and the thickened gastric cardia to be hypermetabolic (Figure 1C).
The area of retroperitoneal infiltration was biopsied under CT guidance, and pathologic study showed poorly differentiated carcinoma with signet-ring cells, a feature of gastric cancer.
The patient underwent lumbar puncture. His cerebrospinal fluid had 206 white blood cells/μL (reference range 0–5) and large numbers of poorly differentiated malignant cells, most consistent with adenocarcinoma on cytologic study.
duodenoscopy (EGD) revealed a large, ulcerated, submucosal, nodular mass in the cardia of the stomach extending to the gastroesophageal junction (Figure 2A). Biopsy of the mass again revealed poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma with scattered signet-ring cells undermining the gastric mucosa, favoring a gastric origin (Figure 2B).
THREE SUBTYPES OF GASTRIC CANCER
Worldwide, gastric cancer is the third most common type of cancer and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths.1 In the United States, blacks and people of Asian ancestry have almost twice the risk of death, with the highest incidence and mortality rates.2,3
Most cases of gastric adenocarcinoma can be categorized as either intestinal or diffuse, but a new proximal subtype is emerging.4
Intestinal-type gastric adenocarcinoma is the most common subtype and accounts for almost all the ethnic and geographic variation in incidence.2 The lesions are often ulcerative and distal; the pathogenesis is stepwise and is initiated by chronic inflammation. Risk factors include old age, Helicobacter pylori infection, tobacco smoking, family history, and high salt intake, with an observed risk-reduction with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and with a high intake of fruits and vegetables.3
Diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, has a uniform distribution worldwide, and its incidence is increasing. It typically carries a poor prognosis. Evidence thus far has shown its pathogenesis to be independent of chronic inflammation, but it has a strong tendency to be hereditary.3
Proximal gastric adenocarcinoma is observed in the gastric cardia and near the gastroesophageal junction. It is often grouped with the distal esophageal adenocarcinomas and has similar risk factors, including reflux disease, obesity, alcohol abuse, and tobacco smoking. Interestingly, however, H pylori infection does not contribute to the pathogenesis of this type, and it may even have a protective role.3
DIFFICULT TO DETECT EARLY
Gastric cancer is difficult to detect early enough in its course to be cured. Understanding its risk factors, recognizing its common symptoms, and regarding its uncommon symptoms with suspicion may lead to earlier diagnosis and more effective treatment.
Our patient’s proximal gastric cancer was diagnosed late even though he had several risk factors for it (he was Japanese, he was a smoker, and he had gastroesophageal reflux disease) because of a late and atypical presentation with misleading paraneoplastic symptoms.
Early diagnosis is difficult because most patients have no symptoms in the early stage; weight loss and abdominal pain are often late signs of tumor progression.
Screening may be justified in high-risk groups in the United States, although the issue is debatable. Diagnostic imaging is the only effective method for screening,5 with EGD considered the first-line targeted evaluation should there be suspicion of gastric cancer either from the clinical presentation or from barium swallow.6 Candidates for screening may include elderly patients with atrophic gastritis or pernicious anemia, immigrants from countries with high rates of gastric carcinoma, and people with a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.7
- Parkin DM, Bray F, Ferlay J, Pisani P. Global cancer statistics, 2002. CA Cancer J Clin 2005; 55:74–108.
- Crew KD, Neugut AI. Epidemiology of gastric cancer. World J Gastroenterol 2006; 12:354–362.
- Shah MA, Kelsen DP. Gastric cancer: a primer on the epidemiology and biology of the disease and an overview of the medical management of advanced disease. J Natl Compr Canc Netw 2010; 8:437–447.
- Fine G, Chan K. Alimentary tract. In:Kissane JM, editor. Anderson’s Pathology. 8th ed. Saint Louis, MO: Mosby; 1985:1055–1095.
- Kunisaki C, Ishino J, Nakajima S, et al. Outcomes of mass screening for gastric carcinoma. Ann Surg Oncol 2006; 13:221–228.
- Cappell MS, Friedel D. The role of esophagogastroduodenoscopy in the diagnosis and management of upper gastrointestinal disorders. Med Clin North Am 2002; 86:1165–1216.
- Hisamuchi S, Fukao P, Sugawara N, et al. Evaluation of mass screening programme for stomach cancer in Japan. In:Miller AB, Chamberlain J, Day NE, et al, editors. Cancer Screening. Cambridge, UK: Cambridge University Press; 1991:357–372.
- Parkin DM, Bray F, Ferlay J, Pisani P. Global cancer statistics, 2002. CA Cancer J Clin 2005; 55:74–108.
- Crew KD, Neugut AI. Epidemiology of gastric cancer. World J Gastroenterol 2006; 12:354–362.
- Shah MA, Kelsen DP. Gastric cancer: a primer on the epidemiology and biology of the disease and an overview of the medical management of advanced disease. J Natl Compr Canc Netw 2010; 8:437–447.
- Fine G, Chan K. Alimentary tract. In:Kissane JM, editor. Anderson’s Pathology. 8th ed. Saint Louis, MO: Mosby; 1985:1055–1095.
- Kunisaki C, Ishino J, Nakajima S, et al. Outcomes of mass screening for gastric carcinoma. Ann Surg Oncol 2006; 13:221–228.
- Cappell MS, Friedel D. The role of esophagogastroduodenoscopy in the diagnosis and management of upper gastrointestinal disorders. Med Clin North Am 2002; 86:1165–1216.
- Hisamuchi S, Fukao P, Sugawara N, et al. Evaluation of mass screening programme for stomach cancer in Japan. In:Miller AB, Chamberlain J, Day NE, et al, editors. Cancer Screening. Cambridge, UK: Cambridge University Press; 1991:357–372.
Hepatic encephalopathy: Suspect it early in patients with cirrhosis
Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious but often reversible complication that arises when the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood (Table 1).1
PROPOSED PATHOGENETIC FACTORS
About 5.5 million cases of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis were reported in the United States in 2001. Hepatic encephalopathy is becoming more common as the prevalence of cirrhosis increases,2 and this will have important economic repercussions; in 2001, charges from hospitalizations because of hepatic encephalopathy were estimated at $932 million.3
Hepatic encephalopathy develops as cirrhosis progresses or as a result of portosystemic shunting, so that the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood. Several neurotoxins (notably ammonia) and inflammatory mediators play key roles in its pathogenesis, inducing low-grade brain edema and producing a wide spectrum of neuropsychiatric manifestations.4 Yet its pathogenesis is not entirely understood, impeding advances in its diagnosis and therapy.
Several hypotheses about the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy have emerged in the last few years, and a number of factors are reported to directly or indirectly affect brain function in this condition. Ammonia and glutamine are the neurotoxins most often implicated in this syndrome5; others include inflammatory mediators, certain amino acids, and manganese.5,6
Ammonia causes brain swelling
Ammonia is primarily the byproduct of bacterial metabolism of protein and nitrogenous compounds in the colon and of glutamine metabolism in enterocytes.7
Normally, gut-absorbed ammonia is delivered via the portal vein to the liver, where most of it is metabolized into urea, leaving a small amount to be metabolized in the muscles, heart, brain, and kidneys. In cirrhosis and other conditions associated with hepatic encephalopathy, less ammonia is metabolized into urea and more of it reaches the astrocytes in the brain. The brain lacks a urea cycle but metabolizes ammonia to glutamine via glutamine synthase, an enzyme unique to astrocytes.
Ammonia causes swelling of astrocytes and brain edema via generation of glutamine, an osmotically active substance.
Glutamine causes swelling, oxidative stress
Glutamine draws water into astrocytes and induces changes of type II astrocytosis (also called Alzheimer type II astrocytosis)5 characterized by swelling, enlarged and pale nuclei, and displacement of chromatin to the periphery of the cell. Inhibition of glutamine synthase prevents astrocyte swelling in animals.8
Glutamine also enhances the activation of several receptors, including N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptors,9,10 gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors, and peripheral-type benzodiazepine receptors on the mitochondrial membrane.10–12 A state of oxidative stress ensues, and this affects oxidation of protein and RNA, neurotransmitter synthesis, and neurotransmission at the neuronal junction.13 Reactive nitrogen and oxide radicals induce the release of inflammatory mediators such as interleukins 1 and 6, tumor necrosis factor, interferons, and neurosteroids, and contribute to edema and neurotoxicity.6,10 Neurosteroids are byproducts of mitochondrial metabolism of steroid hormones in the astrocyte.
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis via activation of translocator proteins on the astrocyte membrane. It was first recognized as a factor in hepatic encephalopathy when cirrhotic patients experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms were found to have deposits of manganese in the caudate nucleus and in the globus pallidus on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Such deposits were also seen in specimens of brain tissue on autopsy of these patients. When the encephalopathy resolved, so did the abnormalities on MRI.14,15
Changes in the blood-brain barrier
Astrocytes contribute to the selective permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Disruptions in the permeability of the blood-brain barrier underlie hepatic encephalopathy, with poor diffusion of molecules out of astrocytes.
For instance, zinc, which plays a regulatory role in gene transcription and synaptic plasticity, accumulates in the astrocytes, causing relative zinc deficiency and further affecting neurotransmitter synthesis and neurotransmission at the neuronal synapse.6,16
Hyponatremia
Hyponatremia (a serum sodium concentration < 130 mmol/L) is increasingly being recognized as an independent predictor of overt hepatic encephalopathy and is reported to increase the risk by a factor of eight.17
Neuronal dysfunction
Astrocytes are integral to the physiologic functioning of the neurons, and it is becoming clear that both neurons and astrocytes are affected in hepatic encephalopathy.
Additionally, neuroinflammation and a decrease in energy metabolism by the brain are described during episodes of hepatic encephalopathy.18
Amino acid imbalance
An imbalance between aromatic amino acids (ie, high levels of tyrosine and phenylalanine) and branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) has been linked with encephalopathy in patients with liver disease, 19–21 but it is not totally clear whether this imbalance contributes to hepatic encephalopathy or is a consequence of it.
Low-grade brain edema
Edema of the brain occurs in all forms of hepatic encephalopathy, but in cirrhosis it is characteristically of low grade. The mechanism behind this low-grade edema is not clear. Studies have shown that swelling of astrocytes is not global but involves certain areas of the brain and is associated with compensatory extrusion of intracellular myoinositol.22 This, in combination with a mild degree of brain atrophy23 observed in patients with chronic liver disease, is thought to keep the brain from extreme swelling and herniation, a phenomenon usually seen in acute hepatic failure.24,25
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting and encephalopathy
The incidence rate of hepatic encephalopathy after placement of a portosystemic shunt to treat portal hypertension ranges from 30% to 55% and is similar to the rate in cirrhotic patients without a shunt.26 In 5% to 8% of patients, the hepatic encephalopathy is refractory and requires intentional occlusion of the shunt.26,27 An elevated serum creatinine level appears to be a risk factor for refractory hepatic encephalopathy in patients with a portosystemic shunt.26
In one study,28 when transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting was done early in the treatment of cirrhotic patients with acute variceal bleeding, the rates of treatment failure and death were significantly less than in a control group that received endoscopic therapy, and no significant difference was noted in the rate of encephalopathy or of serious adverse effects between the groups.
Whether to place a portosystemic shunt in a patient with cirrhosis and a history of hepatic encephalopathy depends on the possible underlying causes of the encephalopathy. For example, if encephalopathy was precipitated by variceal bleeding, shunt placement will prevent further bleeding and will make a recurrence of encephalopathy less likely. However, if the encephalopathy is persistent and uncontrollable, then shunt placement is contraindicated.27
A SPECTRUM OF SYMPTOMS
The spectrum of symptoms extends from a subclinical syndrome that may not be clinically apparent (early-stage or “minimal” hepatic encephalopathy) to full-blown neuropsychiatric manifestations such as cognitive impairment, confusion, slow speech, loss of fine motor skills, asterixis, peripheral neuropathy, clonus, the Babinski sign, decerebrate and decorticate posturing, seizures, extrapyramidal symptoms, and coma.4 The clinical manifestations are usually reversible with prompt treatment, but recurrence is common, typically induced by an event such as gastrointestinal bleeding or an infection.
Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to recognize
Although this subclinical syndrome is a very early stage, it is nevertheless associated with higher rates of morbidity and can affect quality of life, including the patient’s ability to drive a car.29,30
Abnormal changes in the brain begin at this stage and eventually progress to more damage and to the development of overt clinical symptoms.
The exact prevalence of minimal hepatic encephalopathy is not known because it is difficult to diagnose, but reported rates range between 30% and 84% of patients with cirrhosis.31 Progression from minimal to overt hepatic encephalopathy is 3.7 times more likely than in patients without the diagnosis of minimal hepatic encephalopathy.32
Thus, minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to identify,29 so that treatment can be started.
Overt encephalopathy and survival
The prevalence of overt encephalopathy in cirrhosis ranges from 30% to 40% and is even higher in the advanced stages. Once encephalopathy develops, the prognosis worsens rapidly. In patients who do not undergo liver transplantation, the survival rate at 1 year is 42%, and the survival rate at 3 years is 23%.33
These rates are worse than those after liver transplantation, and the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends that patients with cirrhosis who develop a first episode of encephalopathy be considered for liver transplantation and be referred to a transplantation center.34
CHALLENGES IN DIAGNOSIS
Since the symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are not specific and can be subtle in the early stage, its diagnosis may be a challenge. It is important to recognize that this neuropsychiatric complication occurs in people with severe comorbidities and requires dedicated time for evaluation and management.
Special tests may be needed to detect subclinical hepatic encephalopathy
In subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, the apparent lack of manifestations poses a great diagnostic challenge, but a thorough history may uncover poor social interaction, personality changes, poor performance at work, and recent traffic violations or motor vehicle accidents. Primary care physicians are usually the first to suspect the condition because they are familiar with the patient’s baseline mental and physical conditions.
For example, the primary care physician may notice decreased attention and worsening memory during a follow-up visit, or the physician may ask whether the patient has difficulty with work performance and handwork (psychomotor and fine motor skills), and whether there have been traffic violations or car accidents (visuospatial skills). Such clues, although not restrictive, may help identify patients with minimal hepatic encephalopathy and prompt referral for neuropsychiatric testing.
Neurologic deficits described in the subclinical form are in the domains of attention and concentration, working memory, visuospatial ability, and fine motor skills; communication skills remain intact.35 These deficits are not reliably detected on standard clinical evaluation but can be detected by neuropsychiatric and neurophysiologic testing.
While several tests for minimal hepatic encephalopathy have been developed, they need to be validated in large trials in the United States.
Neurophysiologic tests include electroencephalography and auditory or visual event-related P300 (evoked potential) testing.
Neuropsychiatric tests traditionally involved several batteries administered and interpreted by specialized personnel. They were time-consuming and were not practical in a typical office setting. They were later refined into the Psychometric Hepatic Encephalopathy Score test (ie, the PSE syndrome test).36 This combines a digit symbol test, a serial dotting test, a line-tracing test, and a number-connection or figure-connection test. An abnormal result in at least three of the four subtests constitutes an overall abnormal PSE syndrome test.
The PSE syndrome test has been validated for standard use in Germany, Spain, Italy, the United Kingdom, and India.35 In 1999, the Working Group on Hepatic Encephalopathy designated it as the official test for minimal hepatic encephalopathy.1 But the test has not been validated for use in the United States. Other tests have been developed, but their use is also limited by a lack of validation and by copyright laws. These factors constitute major obstacles to the diagnosis of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in the United States. Nonetheless, physicians who suspect minimal hepatic encephalopathy may start lactulose therapy37 and schedule frequent follow-up visits to address and manage potential precipitating factors for overt hepatic encephalopathy.
Staging the severity of the encephalopathy
It is essential to exclude stroke, cerebral bleeding, and brain tumor before making a diagnosis of a first episode of hepatic encephalopathy. Thereafter, such exclusion must be guided by whether the patient has risk factors for these conditions or persistent symptoms of encephalopathy that do not respond to medical therapy.
Laboratory tests can identify metabolic derangements
Although laboratory tests are not diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy, they can identify metabolic derangements that could contribute to it.
Imaging can help exclude other diagnoses
Neurophysiologic imaging studies such as magnetic resonance spectroscopy, magnetic transfer imaging, and water-mapping techniques have helped elucidate pathologic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy and are available in research centers, but they are not currently considered for diagnosis.
SEVERAL LINES OF TREATMENT
Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy involves a preemptive approach to address potential precipitating factors, medical therapy to reduce the production and absorption of ammonia from the gut, and surgical or interventional therapies. A multidisciplinary approach for testing the severity of neurologic impairment and response to therapy is needed to help determine if and when liver transplantation is required.
Prevent potential precipitating factors
An important concept in managing hepatic encephalopathy is to recognize that every cirrhotic patient is at risk and to make an effort to address potential precipitating factors during regular clinic visits. This includes reviewing medication dosing and adverse effects, emphasizing abstinence from alcohol and other toxic substances, and preventing bleeding from esophageal varices with endoscopic band ligation.
Diet therapy
The prevalence of malnutrition in cirrhosis may be as high as 100%. Vitamin and nutritional deficiencies should be evaluated by a nutrition specialist, and nutritional needs should be reassessed on a regular basis. Protein restriction is no longer recommended and may even be harmful.
Guidelines of the European Society of Parenteral and Enteric Nutrition in 2006 recommended that patients with liver disease should have an energy intake of 35 to 40 kcal/kg of body weight daily, with a total daily protein intake of 1.2 to 1.5 mg/kg of body weight.41 Frequent meals and bedtime snacks are encouraged to avoid periods of prolonged fasting and catabolism of muscle protein and to improve nitrogen balance. Branched-chain amino acids and vegetable protein supplements are suggested to help meet the daily requirements.42
Drug therapy to reduce neurotoxins
Drug treatment is directed at reducing the neurotoxins that accumulate in cirrhosis. A variety of agents have been used.
Lactulose (Kristalose) is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a first-line treatment. It has been shown to improve quality of life and cognitive function in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy, although it has failed to improve mortality rates.37
Lactulose, a cathartic disaccharide, is metabolized by colonic bacteria into short-chain fatty acids. The acidic microenvironment has three major effects:
- It aids the transformation of ammonia to ammonium (NH4+), which is then trapped in the stool, leaving less ammonia to be absorbed
- It has a cathartic effect
- It reduces the breakdown of nitrogenous compounds into ammonia.43
Lactulose has an excessively sweet taste. Its side effects include flatulence, abdominal discomfort, and diarrhea. The usual oral dose is 15 to 45 mL/day given in multiple doses to induce two to three soft bowel movements daily. At this dosage, the monthly cost varies between $60 and $120.
Lactilol, a nonabsorbable disaccharide, is as effective as lactulose but with fewer side effects. It is not available in the United States.
Rifaximin (Xifaxan), a derivative of rifamycin, is FDA-approved for the maintenance of remission of hepatic encephalopathy but is not recommended as a first-line agent. It inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis in the gut. Less than 0.4% of an oral dose is absorbed.44
In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial in patients who had had at least two episodes of hepatic encephalopathy while on lactulose therapy, taking rifaximin 550 mg twice a day for 6 months provided a prolonged remission from recurrences of encephalopathy compared with placebo.45 Side effects included nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, and Clostridium difficile colitis, which was reported in two cases in the study.45
Unfortunately, the effects of this drug beyond 6 months of therapy have not been studied. In addition, the drug is expensive: 1 month of treatment with rifaximin can cost between $700 and $1,500. Combining lactulose and rifaximin adds to the costs and the side effects, and contributes to poor adherence to therapy.
Other antibiotics such as metronidazole (Flagyl), vancomycin, and neomycin have been used as alternatives to lactulose, based on the principle that they reduce ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut. However, their efficacy in hepatic encephalopathy remains to be determined.
In controlled trials, neomycin combined with sorbitol, magnesium sulfate, or lactulose was as effective as lactulose, but when used alone, neomycin was no better than placebo.46,47 Neomycin was approved many years ago as an adjunct in the management of hepatic coma, but it has since fallen out of favor in the management of hepatic encephalopathy because of poor trial results and because of neurotoxicity and ototoxicity.
Branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine)48 are reported to increase ammonia intake in muscle and to improve cognitive functions on the PSE scale in minimal hepatic encephalopathy,49,50 but they did not decrease the rate of recurrence of hepatic encephalopathy.51 While debate continues over their efficacy in the management of hepatic encephalopathy, branched-chain amino acids may be used to improve nutritional status and muscle mass of patients with cirrhosis. However, the dosing is not standardized, and long-term compliance may be problematic.
Other medical therapies include zinc,16 sodium benzoate,50 and l-ornithine-l-aspartate52,53 to stimulate residual urea cycle activities; probiotics (which pose a risk of sepsis from fungi and lactobacilli); and laxatives.
Liver dialysis
Adsorbing toxins from the blood via liver dialysis or using a non-cell-based liver support system such as MARS (Molecular Adsorbent Recirculating System, Gambro, Inc.) appears to improve the amino acid profile in hepatic encephalopathy, but its role has not been clarified, and its use is limited to clinical trials.54,55
Transjugular intrahepatic shunts and large portosystemic shunts may need to be closed in order to reverse encephalopathy refractory to drug therapy.26,27,56
Liver transplantation
The current scoring system for end-stage liver disease does not include hepatic encephalopathy as a criterion for prioritizing patients on the transplantation list because it was originally developed to assess short-term prognosis in patients undergoing transjugular intrahepatic shunting. As a consequence, patients with end-stage liver disease are at increased risk of repeated episodes of encephalopathy, hospital readmission, and death. Therefore, the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends referral to a transplantation center when the patient experiences a first episode of overt hepatic encephalopathy to initiate a workup for liver transplantation.34
Liver transplantation improves survival in patients with severe hepatic dysfunction, but the presence of neurologic deficits may result in significant morbidity and in death.57,58 After transplantation, resolution of cognitive dysfunction, brain edema, and white-matter changes have been reported,59 but neuronal cell death and persistent cognitive impairment after resolution of overt hepatic encephalopathy are also described.60–63
Whether neurologic impairment will resolve after liver transplantation depends on a number of factors: the severity of encephalopathy before transplantation; the nature of the neurologic deficits; advanced age; history of alcohol abuse and the presence of alcoholic brain damage; persistence of portosystemic shunts after transplant; emergency transplantation; complications during surgery; and side effects of immunosuppressive drugs.57,58,64
The optimal timing of liver transplantation is not clearly defined for patients who have had bouts of hepatic encephalopathy, and more study is needed to determine the reversibility of clinical symptoms and brain damage. It is in these situations that neuropsychiatric testing and advanced neuroimaging can help determine the efficacy of therapeutic interventions, and it should be considered part of the pretransplantation evaluation.
Managing sleep disturbances
Insomnia and other changes in sleep-wake patterns are common in patients with cirrhosis, especially advanced cirrhosis.65 It is not known whether these changes represent early stages of hepatic encephalopathy.66 Patients often complain of fatigue, the need for frequent naps, and lethargy during the day and restlessness and inability to sleep at night. This affects the patient’s behavior and daytime functioning, and it also burdens household members and caregivers.
Long-acting benzodiazepines should be avoided when treating sleep disorders in cirrhosis because they may precipitate the encephalopathy. In a randomized controlled trial, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) at a dose of 25 mg at bedtime improved sleep behavior in 40% of patients with cirrhosis and subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, but 1 of 17 patients developed acute encephalopathy, which reversed with cessation of the hydroxyzine.66 Clearly, caution and close monitoring are required when giving hydroxyzine for sleep disorders in cirrhotic patients.
- Ferenci P, Lockwood A, Mullen K, Tarter R, Weissenborn K, Blei AT. Hepatic encephalopathy—definition, nomenclature, diagnosis, and quantification: final report of the working party at the 11th World Congresses of Gastroenterology, Vienna, 1998. Hepatology 2002; 35:716–721.
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- Poordad FF. Review article: the burden of hepatic encephalopathy. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2007; 25(suppl 1):3–9.
- Bajaj JS, Wade JB, Sanyal AJ. Spectrum of neurocognitive impairment in cirrhosis: Implications for the assessment of hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2009; 50:2014–2021.
- Norenberg MD, Jayakumar AR, Rama Rao KV, Panickar KS. New concepts in the mechanism of ammonia-induced astrocyte swelling. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:219–234.
- Häussinger D, Görg B. Interaction of oxidative stress, astrocyte swelling and cerebral ammonia toxicity. Curr Opin Clin Nutr Metab Care 2010; 13:87–92.
- Romero-Gómez M, Ramos-Guerrero R, Grande L, et al. Intestinal glutaminase activity is increased in liver cirrhosis and correlates with minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Hepatol 2004; 41:49–54.
- Tanigami H, Rebel A, Martin LJ, et al. Effect of glutamine synthetase inhibition on astrocyte swelling and altered astroglial protein expression during hyperammonemia in rats. Neuroscience 2005; 131:437–449.
- Llansola M, Rodrigo R, Monfort P, et al. NMDA receptors in hyperammonemia and hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:321–335.
- Montoliu C, Piedrafita B, Serra MA, et al. IL-6 and IL-18 in blood may discriminate cirrhotic patients with and without minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Clin Gastroenterol 2009; 43:272–279.
- Desjardins P, Butterworth RF. The “peripheral-type” benzodiazepine (omega 3) receptor in hyperammonemic disorders. Neurochem Int 2002; 41:109–114.
- Häussinger D, Schliess F. Pathogenetic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy. Gut 2008; 57:1156–1165.
- Cauli O, Rodrigo R, Llansola M, et al. Glutamatergic and gabaergic neurotransmission and neuronal circuits in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:69–80.
- Krieger D, Krieger S, Jansen O, Gass P, Theilmann L, Lichtnecker H. Manganese and chronic hepatic encephalopathy. Lancet 1995; 346:270–274.
- Pomier-Layrargues G, Spahr L, Butterworth RF. Increased manganese concentrations in pallidum of cirrhotic patients. Lancet 1995; 345:735.
- Schliess F, Görg B, Häussinger D. RNA oxidation and zinc in hepatic encephalopathy and hyperammonemia. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:119–134.
- Guevara M, Baccaro ME, Torre A, et al. Hyponatremia is a risk factor of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis: a prospective study with time-dependent analysis. Am J Gastroenterol 2009; 104:1382–1389.
- Hertz L, Kala G. Energy metabolism in brain cells: effects of elevated ammonia concentrations. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:199–218.
- Marchesini G, Zoli M, Dondi C, et al. Prevalence of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhotics and relationship to plasma amino acid imbalance. Dig Dis Sci 1980; 25:763–768.
- Morgan MY, Milsom JP, Sherlock S. Plasma ratio of valine, leucine and isoleucine to phenylalanine and tyrosine in liver disease. Gut 1978; 19:1068–1073.
- Fischer JE, Rosen HM, Ebeid AM, James JH, Keane JM, Soeters PB. The effect of normalization of plasma amino acids on hepatic encephalopathy in man. Surgery 1976; 80:77–91.
- Poveda MJ, Bernabeu A, Concepción L, et al. Brain edema dynamics in patients with overt hepatic encephalopathy A magnetic resonance imaging study. Neuroimage 2010; 52:481–487.
- Bernthal P, Hays A, Tarter RE, Van Thiel D, Lecky J, Hegedus A. Cerebral CT scan abnormalities in cholestatic and hepatocellular disease and their relationship to neuropsychologic test performance. Hepatology 1987; 7:107–114.
- Sugimoto R, Iwasa M, Maeda M, et al. Value of the apparent diffusion coefficient for quantification of low-grade hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2008; 103:1413–1420.
- Häussinger D. Low grade cerebral edema and the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis. Hepatology 2006; 43:1187–1190.
- Masson S, Mardini HA, Rose JD, Record CO. Hepatic encephalopathy after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt insertion: a decade of experience. QJM 2008; 101:493–501.
- Boyer TD, Haskal ZJ; American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases. The role of transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) in the management of portal hypertension: update 2009. Hepatology 2010; 51:306.
- García-Pagán JC, Caca K, Bureau C, et al; Early TIPS (Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt) Cooperative Study Group. Early use of TIPS in patients with cirrhosis and variceal bleeding. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:2370–2379.
- Kircheis G, Knoche A, Hilger N, et al. Hepatic encephalopathy and fitness to drive. Gastroenterology 2009; 137:1706–1715.e1–9.
- Bajaj JS, Saeian K, Schubert CM, et al. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is associated with motor vehicle crashes: the reality beyond the driving test. Hepatology 2009; 50:1175–1183.
- Hartmann IJ, Groeneweg M, Quero JC, et al. The prognostic significance of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:2029–2034.
- Romero-Gómez M, Boza F, García-Valdecasas MS, García E, Aguilar-Reina J. Subclinical hepatic encephalopathy predicts the development of overt hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:2718–2723.
- Bustamante J, Rimola A, Ventura PJ, et al. Prognostic significance of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. J Hepatol 1999; 30:890–895.
- Murray KF, Carithers RL jR; AASLD. AASLD practice guidelines: evaluation of the patient for liver transplantation. Hepatology 2005; 41:1407–1432.
- Amodio P, Montagnese S, Gatta A, Morgan MY. Characteristics of minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2004; 19:253–267.
- Weissenborn K. PHES: one label, different goods?! J Hepatol 2008; 49:308–312.
- Prasad S, Dhiman RK, Duseja A, Chawla YK, Sharma A, Agarwal R. Lactulose improves cognitive functions and health-related quality of life in patients with cirrhosis who have minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2007; 45:549–559.
- Parsons-Smith BG, Summerskill WHJ, Dawson AM, Sherlock S. The electroencephalograph in liver disease. Lancet 1957; 2:867–871.
- Teasdale G, Jennett B. Assessment of coma and impaired consciousness. A practical scale. Lancet 1974; 2:81–84.
- Rovira A, Alonso J, Córdoba J. MR imaging findings in hepatic encephalopathy. AJNR Am J Neuroradiol 2008; 29:1612–1621.
- Plauth M, Cabré E, Riggio O, Assis-Camilo M, Pirlich M, Kondrup J; DGEM (German Society for Nutritional Medicine); ESPEN (European Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition). ESPEN guidelines on enteral nutrition: liver disease. Clin Nutr 2006; 25:285–294.
- Gheorghe L, Iacob R, Vadan R, Iacob S, Gheorghe C. Improvement of hepatic encephalopathy using a modified high-calorie high-protein diet. Rom J Gastroenterol 2005; 14:231–238.
- Weber FL. Effects of lactulose on nitrogen metabolism. Scand J Gastroenterol Suppl 1997; 222:83–87.
- Ojetti V, Lauritano EC, Barbaro F, et al. Rifaximin pharmacology and clinical implications. Expert Opin Drug Metab Toxicol 2009; 5:675–682.
- Bass NM, Mullen KD, Sanyal A, et al. Rifaximin treatment in hepatic encephalopathy. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1071–1081.
- Blei AT, Córdoba J; Practice Parameters Committee of the American College of Gastroenterology. Hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:1968–1976.
- Rothenberg ME, Keeffe EB. Antibiotics in the management of hepatic encephalopathy: an evidence-based review. Rev Gastroenterol Disord 2005; 5(suppl 3):26–35.
- Charlton M. Branched-chain amino acid enriched supplements as therapy for liver disease. J Nutr 2006; 136(suppl 1):295S–298S.
- Egberts EH, Schomerus H, Hamster W, Jürgens P. [Branched-chain amino acids in the treatment of latent porto-systemic encephalopathy. A placebo-controlled double-blind cross-over study] [in German]. Z Ernahrungswiss 1986; 25:9–28.
- Plauth M, Egberts EH, Hamster W, et al. Long-term treatment of latent portosystemic encephalopathy with branched-chain amino acids. A double-blind placebo-controlled crossover study. J Hepatol 1993; 17:308–314.
- Les I, Doval E, García-Martínez R, et al. Effects of branched-chain amino acids supplementation in patients with cirrhosis and a previous episode of hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized study. Am J Gastroenterol 2011; 106:1081–1088.
- Efrati C, Masini A, Merli M, Valeriano V, Riggio O. Effect of sodium benzoate on blood ammonia response to oral glutamine challenge in cirrhotic patients: a note of caution. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:3574–3578.
- Schmid M, Peck-Radosavljevic M, König F, Mittermaier C, Gangl A, Ferenci P. A double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial of intravenous L-ornithine-L-aspartate on postural control in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2010; 30:574–582.
- Blei AT. MARS and treatment of hepatic encephalopathy [in Spanish). Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 28:100–104.
- Heemann U, Treichel U, Loock J, et al. Albumin dialysis in cirrhosis with superimposed acute liver injury: a prospective, controlled study. Hepatology 2002; 36:949–958.
- Zidi SH, Zanditenas D, Gelu-Siméon M, et al. Treatment of chronic portosystemic encephalopathy in cirrhotic patients by embolization of portosystemic shunts. Liver Int 2007; 27:1389–1393.
- Dhar R, Young GB, Marotta P. Perioperative neurological complications after liver transplantation are best predicted by pre-transplant hepatic encephalopathy. Neurocrit Care 2008; 8:253–258.
- Teperman LW, Peyregne VP. Considerations on the impact of hepatic encephalopathy treatments in the pretransplant setting. Transplantation 2010; 89:771–778.
- Rovira A, Córdoba J, Sanpedro F, Grivé E, Rovira-Gols A, Alonso J. Normalization of T2 signal abnormalities in hemispheric white matter with liver transplant. Neurology 2002; 59:335–341.
- Senzolo M, Pizzolato G, Ferronato C, et al. Long-term evaluation of cognitive function and cerebral metabolism in liver transplanted patients. Transplant Proc 2009; 41:1295–1296.
- Butterworth RF. Neuronal cell death in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:309–320.
- DiMartini A, Chopra K. The importance of hepatic encephalopathy: pre-transplant and post-transplant. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:121–123.
- Saner FH, Nadalin S, Radtke A, Sotiropoulos GC, Kaiser GM, Paul A. Liver transplantation and neurological side effects. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:183–187.
- Sotil EU, Gottstein J, Ayala E, Randolph C, Blei AT. Impact of preoperative overt hepatic encephalopathy on neurocognitive function after liver transplantation. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:184–192.
- Montagnese S, Middleton B, Skene DJ, Morgan MY. Night-time sleep disturbance does not correlate with neuropsychiatric impairment in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2009; 29:1372–1382.
- Spahr L, Coeytaux A, Giostra E, Hadengue A, Annoni JM. Histamine H1 blocker hydroxyzine improves sleep in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized controlled pilot trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2007; 102:744–753.
Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious but often reversible complication that arises when the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood (Table 1).1
PROPOSED PATHOGENETIC FACTORS
About 5.5 million cases of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis were reported in the United States in 2001. Hepatic encephalopathy is becoming more common as the prevalence of cirrhosis increases,2 and this will have important economic repercussions; in 2001, charges from hospitalizations because of hepatic encephalopathy were estimated at $932 million.3
Hepatic encephalopathy develops as cirrhosis progresses or as a result of portosystemic shunting, so that the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood. Several neurotoxins (notably ammonia) and inflammatory mediators play key roles in its pathogenesis, inducing low-grade brain edema and producing a wide spectrum of neuropsychiatric manifestations.4 Yet its pathogenesis is not entirely understood, impeding advances in its diagnosis and therapy.
Several hypotheses about the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy have emerged in the last few years, and a number of factors are reported to directly or indirectly affect brain function in this condition. Ammonia and glutamine are the neurotoxins most often implicated in this syndrome5; others include inflammatory mediators, certain amino acids, and manganese.5,6
Ammonia causes brain swelling
Ammonia is primarily the byproduct of bacterial metabolism of protein and nitrogenous compounds in the colon and of glutamine metabolism in enterocytes.7
Normally, gut-absorbed ammonia is delivered via the portal vein to the liver, where most of it is metabolized into urea, leaving a small amount to be metabolized in the muscles, heart, brain, and kidneys. In cirrhosis and other conditions associated with hepatic encephalopathy, less ammonia is metabolized into urea and more of it reaches the astrocytes in the brain. The brain lacks a urea cycle but metabolizes ammonia to glutamine via glutamine synthase, an enzyme unique to astrocytes.
Ammonia causes swelling of astrocytes and brain edema via generation of glutamine, an osmotically active substance.
Glutamine causes swelling, oxidative stress
Glutamine draws water into astrocytes and induces changes of type II astrocytosis (also called Alzheimer type II astrocytosis)5 characterized by swelling, enlarged and pale nuclei, and displacement of chromatin to the periphery of the cell. Inhibition of glutamine synthase prevents astrocyte swelling in animals.8
Glutamine also enhances the activation of several receptors, including N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptors,9,10 gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors, and peripheral-type benzodiazepine receptors on the mitochondrial membrane.10–12 A state of oxidative stress ensues, and this affects oxidation of protein and RNA, neurotransmitter synthesis, and neurotransmission at the neuronal junction.13 Reactive nitrogen and oxide radicals induce the release of inflammatory mediators such as interleukins 1 and 6, tumor necrosis factor, interferons, and neurosteroids, and contribute to edema and neurotoxicity.6,10 Neurosteroids are byproducts of mitochondrial metabolism of steroid hormones in the astrocyte.
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis via activation of translocator proteins on the astrocyte membrane. It was first recognized as a factor in hepatic encephalopathy when cirrhotic patients experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms were found to have deposits of manganese in the caudate nucleus and in the globus pallidus on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Such deposits were also seen in specimens of brain tissue on autopsy of these patients. When the encephalopathy resolved, so did the abnormalities on MRI.14,15
Changes in the blood-brain barrier
Astrocytes contribute to the selective permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Disruptions in the permeability of the blood-brain barrier underlie hepatic encephalopathy, with poor diffusion of molecules out of astrocytes.
For instance, zinc, which plays a regulatory role in gene transcription and synaptic plasticity, accumulates in the astrocytes, causing relative zinc deficiency and further affecting neurotransmitter synthesis and neurotransmission at the neuronal synapse.6,16
Hyponatremia
Hyponatremia (a serum sodium concentration < 130 mmol/L) is increasingly being recognized as an independent predictor of overt hepatic encephalopathy and is reported to increase the risk by a factor of eight.17
Neuronal dysfunction
Astrocytes are integral to the physiologic functioning of the neurons, and it is becoming clear that both neurons and astrocytes are affected in hepatic encephalopathy.
Additionally, neuroinflammation and a decrease in energy metabolism by the brain are described during episodes of hepatic encephalopathy.18
Amino acid imbalance
An imbalance between aromatic amino acids (ie, high levels of tyrosine and phenylalanine) and branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) has been linked with encephalopathy in patients with liver disease, 19–21 but it is not totally clear whether this imbalance contributes to hepatic encephalopathy or is a consequence of it.
Low-grade brain edema
Edema of the brain occurs in all forms of hepatic encephalopathy, but in cirrhosis it is characteristically of low grade. The mechanism behind this low-grade edema is not clear. Studies have shown that swelling of astrocytes is not global but involves certain areas of the brain and is associated with compensatory extrusion of intracellular myoinositol.22 This, in combination with a mild degree of brain atrophy23 observed in patients with chronic liver disease, is thought to keep the brain from extreme swelling and herniation, a phenomenon usually seen in acute hepatic failure.24,25
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting and encephalopathy
The incidence rate of hepatic encephalopathy after placement of a portosystemic shunt to treat portal hypertension ranges from 30% to 55% and is similar to the rate in cirrhotic patients without a shunt.26 In 5% to 8% of patients, the hepatic encephalopathy is refractory and requires intentional occlusion of the shunt.26,27 An elevated serum creatinine level appears to be a risk factor for refractory hepatic encephalopathy in patients with a portosystemic shunt.26
In one study,28 when transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting was done early in the treatment of cirrhotic patients with acute variceal bleeding, the rates of treatment failure and death were significantly less than in a control group that received endoscopic therapy, and no significant difference was noted in the rate of encephalopathy or of serious adverse effects between the groups.
Whether to place a portosystemic shunt in a patient with cirrhosis and a history of hepatic encephalopathy depends on the possible underlying causes of the encephalopathy. For example, if encephalopathy was precipitated by variceal bleeding, shunt placement will prevent further bleeding and will make a recurrence of encephalopathy less likely. However, if the encephalopathy is persistent and uncontrollable, then shunt placement is contraindicated.27
A SPECTRUM OF SYMPTOMS
The spectrum of symptoms extends from a subclinical syndrome that may not be clinically apparent (early-stage or “minimal” hepatic encephalopathy) to full-blown neuropsychiatric manifestations such as cognitive impairment, confusion, slow speech, loss of fine motor skills, asterixis, peripheral neuropathy, clonus, the Babinski sign, decerebrate and decorticate posturing, seizures, extrapyramidal symptoms, and coma.4 The clinical manifestations are usually reversible with prompt treatment, but recurrence is common, typically induced by an event such as gastrointestinal bleeding or an infection.
Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to recognize
Although this subclinical syndrome is a very early stage, it is nevertheless associated with higher rates of morbidity and can affect quality of life, including the patient’s ability to drive a car.29,30
Abnormal changes in the brain begin at this stage and eventually progress to more damage and to the development of overt clinical symptoms.
The exact prevalence of minimal hepatic encephalopathy is not known because it is difficult to diagnose, but reported rates range between 30% and 84% of patients with cirrhosis.31 Progression from minimal to overt hepatic encephalopathy is 3.7 times more likely than in patients without the diagnosis of minimal hepatic encephalopathy.32
Thus, minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to identify,29 so that treatment can be started.
Overt encephalopathy and survival
The prevalence of overt encephalopathy in cirrhosis ranges from 30% to 40% and is even higher in the advanced stages. Once encephalopathy develops, the prognosis worsens rapidly. In patients who do not undergo liver transplantation, the survival rate at 1 year is 42%, and the survival rate at 3 years is 23%.33
These rates are worse than those after liver transplantation, and the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends that patients with cirrhosis who develop a first episode of encephalopathy be considered for liver transplantation and be referred to a transplantation center.34
CHALLENGES IN DIAGNOSIS
Since the symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are not specific and can be subtle in the early stage, its diagnosis may be a challenge. It is important to recognize that this neuropsychiatric complication occurs in people with severe comorbidities and requires dedicated time for evaluation and management.
Special tests may be needed to detect subclinical hepatic encephalopathy
In subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, the apparent lack of manifestations poses a great diagnostic challenge, but a thorough history may uncover poor social interaction, personality changes, poor performance at work, and recent traffic violations or motor vehicle accidents. Primary care physicians are usually the first to suspect the condition because they are familiar with the patient’s baseline mental and physical conditions.
For example, the primary care physician may notice decreased attention and worsening memory during a follow-up visit, or the physician may ask whether the patient has difficulty with work performance and handwork (psychomotor and fine motor skills), and whether there have been traffic violations or car accidents (visuospatial skills). Such clues, although not restrictive, may help identify patients with minimal hepatic encephalopathy and prompt referral for neuropsychiatric testing.
Neurologic deficits described in the subclinical form are in the domains of attention and concentration, working memory, visuospatial ability, and fine motor skills; communication skills remain intact.35 These deficits are not reliably detected on standard clinical evaluation but can be detected by neuropsychiatric and neurophysiologic testing.
While several tests for minimal hepatic encephalopathy have been developed, they need to be validated in large trials in the United States.
Neurophysiologic tests include electroencephalography and auditory or visual event-related P300 (evoked potential) testing.
Neuropsychiatric tests traditionally involved several batteries administered and interpreted by specialized personnel. They were time-consuming and were not practical in a typical office setting. They were later refined into the Psychometric Hepatic Encephalopathy Score test (ie, the PSE syndrome test).36 This combines a digit symbol test, a serial dotting test, a line-tracing test, and a number-connection or figure-connection test. An abnormal result in at least three of the four subtests constitutes an overall abnormal PSE syndrome test.
The PSE syndrome test has been validated for standard use in Germany, Spain, Italy, the United Kingdom, and India.35 In 1999, the Working Group on Hepatic Encephalopathy designated it as the official test for minimal hepatic encephalopathy.1 But the test has not been validated for use in the United States. Other tests have been developed, but their use is also limited by a lack of validation and by copyright laws. These factors constitute major obstacles to the diagnosis of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in the United States. Nonetheless, physicians who suspect minimal hepatic encephalopathy may start lactulose therapy37 and schedule frequent follow-up visits to address and manage potential precipitating factors for overt hepatic encephalopathy.
Staging the severity of the encephalopathy
It is essential to exclude stroke, cerebral bleeding, and brain tumor before making a diagnosis of a first episode of hepatic encephalopathy. Thereafter, such exclusion must be guided by whether the patient has risk factors for these conditions or persistent symptoms of encephalopathy that do not respond to medical therapy.
Laboratory tests can identify metabolic derangements
Although laboratory tests are not diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy, they can identify metabolic derangements that could contribute to it.
Imaging can help exclude other diagnoses
Neurophysiologic imaging studies such as magnetic resonance spectroscopy, magnetic transfer imaging, and water-mapping techniques have helped elucidate pathologic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy and are available in research centers, but they are not currently considered for diagnosis.
SEVERAL LINES OF TREATMENT
Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy involves a preemptive approach to address potential precipitating factors, medical therapy to reduce the production and absorption of ammonia from the gut, and surgical or interventional therapies. A multidisciplinary approach for testing the severity of neurologic impairment and response to therapy is needed to help determine if and when liver transplantation is required.
Prevent potential precipitating factors
An important concept in managing hepatic encephalopathy is to recognize that every cirrhotic patient is at risk and to make an effort to address potential precipitating factors during regular clinic visits. This includes reviewing medication dosing and adverse effects, emphasizing abstinence from alcohol and other toxic substances, and preventing bleeding from esophageal varices with endoscopic band ligation.
Diet therapy
The prevalence of malnutrition in cirrhosis may be as high as 100%. Vitamin and nutritional deficiencies should be evaluated by a nutrition specialist, and nutritional needs should be reassessed on a regular basis. Protein restriction is no longer recommended and may even be harmful.
Guidelines of the European Society of Parenteral and Enteric Nutrition in 2006 recommended that patients with liver disease should have an energy intake of 35 to 40 kcal/kg of body weight daily, with a total daily protein intake of 1.2 to 1.5 mg/kg of body weight.41 Frequent meals and bedtime snacks are encouraged to avoid periods of prolonged fasting and catabolism of muscle protein and to improve nitrogen balance. Branched-chain amino acids and vegetable protein supplements are suggested to help meet the daily requirements.42
Drug therapy to reduce neurotoxins
Drug treatment is directed at reducing the neurotoxins that accumulate in cirrhosis. A variety of agents have been used.
Lactulose (Kristalose) is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a first-line treatment. It has been shown to improve quality of life and cognitive function in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy, although it has failed to improve mortality rates.37
Lactulose, a cathartic disaccharide, is metabolized by colonic bacteria into short-chain fatty acids. The acidic microenvironment has three major effects:
- It aids the transformation of ammonia to ammonium (NH4+), which is then trapped in the stool, leaving less ammonia to be absorbed
- It has a cathartic effect
- It reduces the breakdown of nitrogenous compounds into ammonia.43
Lactulose has an excessively sweet taste. Its side effects include flatulence, abdominal discomfort, and diarrhea. The usual oral dose is 15 to 45 mL/day given in multiple doses to induce two to three soft bowel movements daily. At this dosage, the monthly cost varies between $60 and $120.
Lactilol, a nonabsorbable disaccharide, is as effective as lactulose but with fewer side effects. It is not available in the United States.
Rifaximin (Xifaxan), a derivative of rifamycin, is FDA-approved for the maintenance of remission of hepatic encephalopathy but is not recommended as a first-line agent. It inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis in the gut. Less than 0.4% of an oral dose is absorbed.44
In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial in patients who had had at least two episodes of hepatic encephalopathy while on lactulose therapy, taking rifaximin 550 mg twice a day for 6 months provided a prolonged remission from recurrences of encephalopathy compared with placebo.45 Side effects included nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, and Clostridium difficile colitis, which was reported in two cases in the study.45
Unfortunately, the effects of this drug beyond 6 months of therapy have not been studied. In addition, the drug is expensive: 1 month of treatment with rifaximin can cost between $700 and $1,500. Combining lactulose and rifaximin adds to the costs and the side effects, and contributes to poor adherence to therapy.
Other antibiotics such as metronidazole (Flagyl), vancomycin, and neomycin have been used as alternatives to lactulose, based on the principle that they reduce ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut. However, their efficacy in hepatic encephalopathy remains to be determined.
In controlled trials, neomycin combined with sorbitol, magnesium sulfate, or lactulose was as effective as lactulose, but when used alone, neomycin was no better than placebo.46,47 Neomycin was approved many years ago as an adjunct in the management of hepatic coma, but it has since fallen out of favor in the management of hepatic encephalopathy because of poor trial results and because of neurotoxicity and ototoxicity.
Branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine)48 are reported to increase ammonia intake in muscle and to improve cognitive functions on the PSE scale in minimal hepatic encephalopathy,49,50 but they did not decrease the rate of recurrence of hepatic encephalopathy.51 While debate continues over their efficacy in the management of hepatic encephalopathy, branched-chain amino acids may be used to improve nutritional status and muscle mass of patients with cirrhosis. However, the dosing is not standardized, and long-term compliance may be problematic.
Other medical therapies include zinc,16 sodium benzoate,50 and l-ornithine-l-aspartate52,53 to stimulate residual urea cycle activities; probiotics (which pose a risk of sepsis from fungi and lactobacilli); and laxatives.
Liver dialysis
Adsorbing toxins from the blood via liver dialysis or using a non-cell-based liver support system such as MARS (Molecular Adsorbent Recirculating System, Gambro, Inc.) appears to improve the amino acid profile in hepatic encephalopathy, but its role has not been clarified, and its use is limited to clinical trials.54,55
Transjugular intrahepatic shunts and large portosystemic shunts may need to be closed in order to reverse encephalopathy refractory to drug therapy.26,27,56
Liver transplantation
The current scoring system for end-stage liver disease does not include hepatic encephalopathy as a criterion for prioritizing patients on the transplantation list because it was originally developed to assess short-term prognosis in patients undergoing transjugular intrahepatic shunting. As a consequence, patients with end-stage liver disease are at increased risk of repeated episodes of encephalopathy, hospital readmission, and death. Therefore, the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends referral to a transplantation center when the patient experiences a first episode of overt hepatic encephalopathy to initiate a workup for liver transplantation.34
Liver transplantation improves survival in patients with severe hepatic dysfunction, but the presence of neurologic deficits may result in significant morbidity and in death.57,58 After transplantation, resolution of cognitive dysfunction, brain edema, and white-matter changes have been reported,59 but neuronal cell death and persistent cognitive impairment after resolution of overt hepatic encephalopathy are also described.60–63
Whether neurologic impairment will resolve after liver transplantation depends on a number of factors: the severity of encephalopathy before transplantation; the nature of the neurologic deficits; advanced age; history of alcohol abuse and the presence of alcoholic brain damage; persistence of portosystemic shunts after transplant; emergency transplantation; complications during surgery; and side effects of immunosuppressive drugs.57,58,64
The optimal timing of liver transplantation is not clearly defined for patients who have had bouts of hepatic encephalopathy, and more study is needed to determine the reversibility of clinical symptoms and brain damage. It is in these situations that neuropsychiatric testing and advanced neuroimaging can help determine the efficacy of therapeutic interventions, and it should be considered part of the pretransplantation evaluation.
Managing sleep disturbances
Insomnia and other changes in sleep-wake patterns are common in patients with cirrhosis, especially advanced cirrhosis.65 It is not known whether these changes represent early stages of hepatic encephalopathy.66 Patients often complain of fatigue, the need for frequent naps, and lethargy during the day and restlessness and inability to sleep at night. This affects the patient’s behavior and daytime functioning, and it also burdens household members and caregivers.
Long-acting benzodiazepines should be avoided when treating sleep disorders in cirrhosis because they may precipitate the encephalopathy. In a randomized controlled trial, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) at a dose of 25 mg at bedtime improved sleep behavior in 40% of patients with cirrhosis and subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, but 1 of 17 patients developed acute encephalopathy, which reversed with cessation of the hydroxyzine.66 Clearly, caution and close monitoring are required when giving hydroxyzine for sleep disorders in cirrhotic patients.
Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious but often reversible complication that arises when the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood (Table 1).1
PROPOSED PATHOGENETIC FACTORS
About 5.5 million cases of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis were reported in the United States in 2001. Hepatic encephalopathy is becoming more common as the prevalence of cirrhosis increases,2 and this will have important economic repercussions; in 2001, charges from hospitalizations because of hepatic encephalopathy were estimated at $932 million.3
Hepatic encephalopathy develops as cirrhosis progresses or as a result of portosystemic shunting, so that the liver cannot detoxify the portal venous blood. Several neurotoxins (notably ammonia) and inflammatory mediators play key roles in its pathogenesis, inducing low-grade brain edema and producing a wide spectrum of neuropsychiatric manifestations.4 Yet its pathogenesis is not entirely understood, impeding advances in its diagnosis and therapy.
Several hypotheses about the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy have emerged in the last few years, and a number of factors are reported to directly or indirectly affect brain function in this condition. Ammonia and glutamine are the neurotoxins most often implicated in this syndrome5; others include inflammatory mediators, certain amino acids, and manganese.5,6
Ammonia causes brain swelling
Ammonia is primarily the byproduct of bacterial metabolism of protein and nitrogenous compounds in the colon and of glutamine metabolism in enterocytes.7
Normally, gut-absorbed ammonia is delivered via the portal vein to the liver, where most of it is metabolized into urea, leaving a small amount to be metabolized in the muscles, heart, brain, and kidneys. In cirrhosis and other conditions associated with hepatic encephalopathy, less ammonia is metabolized into urea and more of it reaches the astrocytes in the brain. The brain lacks a urea cycle but metabolizes ammonia to glutamine via glutamine synthase, an enzyme unique to astrocytes.
Ammonia causes swelling of astrocytes and brain edema via generation of glutamine, an osmotically active substance.
Glutamine causes swelling, oxidative stress
Glutamine draws water into astrocytes and induces changes of type II astrocytosis (also called Alzheimer type II astrocytosis)5 characterized by swelling, enlarged and pale nuclei, and displacement of chromatin to the periphery of the cell. Inhibition of glutamine synthase prevents astrocyte swelling in animals.8
Glutamine also enhances the activation of several receptors, including N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptors,9,10 gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors, and peripheral-type benzodiazepine receptors on the mitochondrial membrane.10–12 A state of oxidative stress ensues, and this affects oxidation of protein and RNA, neurotransmitter synthesis, and neurotransmission at the neuronal junction.13 Reactive nitrogen and oxide radicals induce the release of inflammatory mediators such as interleukins 1 and 6, tumor necrosis factor, interferons, and neurosteroids, and contribute to edema and neurotoxicity.6,10 Neurosteroids are byproducts of mitochondrial metabolism of steroid hormones in the astrocyte.
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis
Manganese enhances neurosteroid synthesis via activation of translocator proteins on the astrocyte membrane. It was first recognized as a factor in hepatic encephalopathy when cirrhotic patients experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms were found to have deposits of manganese in the caudate nucleus and in the globus pallidus on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Such deposits were also seen in specimens of brain tissue on autopsy of these patients. When the encephalopathy resolved, so did the abnormalities on MRI.14,15
Changes in the blood-brain barrier
Astrocytes contribute to the selective permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Disruptions in the permeability of the blood-brain barrier underlie hepatic encephalopathy, with poor diffusion of molecules out of astrocytes.
For instance, zinc, which plays a regulatory role in gene transcription and synaptic plasticity, accumulates in the astrocytes, causing relative zinc deficiency and further affecting neurotransmitter synthesis and neurotransmission at the neuronal synapse.6,16
Hyponatremia
Hyponatremia (a serum sodium concentration < 130 mmol/L) is increasingly being recognized as an independent predictor of overt hepatic encephalopathy and is reported to increase the risk by a factor of eight.17
Neuronal dysfunction
Astrocytes are integral to the physiologic functioning of the neurons, and it is becoming clear that both neurons and astrocytes are affected in hepatic encephalopathy.
Additionally, neuroinflammation and a decrease in energy metabolism by the brain are described during episodes of hepatic encephalopathy.18
Amino acid imbalance
An imbalance between aromatic amino acids (ie, high levels of tyrosine and phenylalanine) and branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine) has been linked with encephalopathy in patients with liver disease, 19–21 but it is not totally clear whether this imbalance contributes to hepatic encephalopathy or is a consequence of it.
Low-grade brain edema
Edema of the brain occurs in all forms of hepatic encephalopathy, but in cirrhosis it is characteristically of low grade. The mechanism behind this low-grade edema is not clear. Studies have shown that swelling of astrocytes is not global but involves certain areas of the brain and is associated with compensatory extrusion of intracellular myoinositol.22 This, in combination with a mild degree of brain atrophy23 observed in patients with chronic liver disease, is thought to keep the brain from extreme swelling and herniation, a phenomenon usually seen in acute hepatic failure.24,25
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting and encephalopathy
The incidence rate of hepatic encephalopathy after placement of a portosystemic shunt to treat portal hypertension ranges from 30% to 55% and is similar to the rate in cirrhotic patients without a shunt.26 In 5% to 8% of patients, the hepatic encephalopathy is refractory and requires intentional occlusion of the shunt.26,27 An elevated serum creatinine level appears to be a risk factor for refractory hepatic encephalopathy in patients with a portosystemic shunt.26
In one study,28 when transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting was done early in the treatment of cirrhotic patients with acute variceal bleeding, the rates of treatment failure and death were significantly less than in a control group that received endoscopic therapy, and no significant difference was noted in the rate of encephalopathy or of serious adverse effects between the groups.
Whether to place a portosystemic shunt in a patient with cirrhosis and a history of hepatic encephalopathy depends on the possible underlying causes of the encephalopathy. For example, if encephalopathy was precipitated by variceal bleeding, shunt placement will prevent further bleeding and will make a recurrence of encephalopathy less likely. However, if the encephalopathy is persistent and uncontrollable, then shunt placement is contraindicated.27
A SPECTRUM OF SYMPTOMS
The spectrum of symptoms extends from a subclinical syndrome that may not be clinically apparent (early-stage or “minimal” hepatic encephalopathy) to full-blown neuropsychiatric manifestations such as cognitive impairment, confusion, slow speech, loss of fine motor skills, asterixis, peripheral neuropathy, clonus, the Babinski sign, decerebrate and decorticate posturing, seizures, extrapyramidal symptoms, and coma.4 The clinical manifestations are usually reversible with prompt treatment, but recurrence is common, typically induced by an event such as gastrointestinal bleeding or an infection.
Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to recognize
Although this subclinical syndrome is a very early stage, it is nevertheless associated with higher rates of morbidity and can affect quality of life, including the patient’s ability to drive a car.29,30
Abnormal changes in the brain begin at this stage and eventually progress to more damage and to the development of overt clinical symptoms.
The exact prevalence of minimal hepatic encephalopathy is not known because it is difficult to diagnose, but reported rates range between 30% and 84% of patients with cirrhosis.31 Progression from minimal to overt hepatic encephalopathy is 3.7 times more likely than in patients without the diagnosis of minimal hepatic encephalopathy.32
Thus, minimal hepatic encephalopathy is important to identify,29 so that treatment can be started.
Overt encephalopathy and survival
The prevalence of overt encephalopathy in cirrhosis ranges from 30% to 40% and is even higher in the advanced stages. Once encephalopathy develops, the prognosis worsens rapidly. In patients who do not undergo liver transplantation, the survival rate at 1 year is 42%, and the survival rate at 3 years is 23%.33
These rates are worse than those after liver transplantation, and the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends that patients with cirrhosis who develop a first episode of encephalopathy be considered for liver transplantation and be referred to a transplantation center.34
CHALLENGES IN DIAGNOSIS
Since the symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are not specific and can be subtle in the early stage, its diagnosis may be a challenge. It is important to recognize that this neuropsychiatric complication occurs in people with severe comorbidities and requires dedicated time for evaluation and management.
Special tests may be needed to detect subclinical hepatic encephalopathy
In subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, the apparent lack of manifestations poses a great diagnostic challenge, but a thorough history may uncover poor social interaction, personality changes, poor performance at work, and recent traffic violations or motor vehicle accidents. Primary care physicians are usually the first to suspect the condition because they are familiar with the patient’s baseline mental and physical conditions.
For example, the primary care physician may notice decreased attention and worsening memory during a follow-up visit, or the physician may ask whether the patient has difficulty with work performance and handwork (psychomotor and fine motor skills), and whether there have been traffic violations or car accidents (visuospatial skills). Such clues, although not restrictive, may help identify patients with minimal hepatic encephalopathy and prompt referral for neuropsychiatric testing.
Neurologic deficits described in the subclinical form are in the domains of attention and concentration, working memory, visuospatial ability, and fine motor skills; communication skills remain intact.35 These deficits are not reliably detected on standard clinical evaluation but can be detected by neuropsychiatric and neurophysiologic testing.
While several tests for minimal hepatic encephalopathy have been developed, they need to be validated in large trials in the United States.
Neurophysiologic tests include electroencephalography and auditory or visual event-related P300 (evoked potential) testing.
Neuropsychiatric tests traditionally involved several batteries administered and interpreted by specialized personnel. They were time-consuming and were not practical in a typical office setting. They were later refined into the Psychometric Hepatic Encephalopathy Score test (ie, the PSE syndrome test).36 This combines a digit symbol test, a serial dotting test, a line-tracing test, and a number-connection or figure-connection test. An abnormal result in at least three of the four subtests constitutes an overall abnormal PSE syndrome test.
The PSE syndrome test has been validated for standard use in Germany, Spain, Italy, the United Kingdom, and India.35 In 1999, the Working Group on Hepatic Encephalopathy designated it as the official test for minimal hepatic encephalopathy.1 But the test has not been validated for use in the United States. Other tests have been developed, but their use is also limited by a lack of validation and by copyright laws. These factors constitute major obstacles to the diagnosis of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in the United States. Nonetheless, physicians who suspect minimal hepatic encephalopathy may start lactulose therapy37 and schedule frequent follow-up visits to address and manage potential precipitating factors for overt hepatic encephalopathy.
Staging the severity of the encephalopathy
It is essential to exclude stroke, cerebral bleeding, and brain tumor before making a diagnosis of a first episode of hepatic encephalopathy. Thereafter, such exclusion must be guided by whether the patient has risk factors for these conditions or persistent symptoms of encephalopathy that do not respond to medical therapy.
Laboratory tests can identify metabolic derangements
Although laboratory tests are not diagnostic for hepatic encephalopathy, they can identify metabolic derangements that could contribute to it.
Imaging can help exclude other diagnoses
Neurophysiologic imaging studies such as magnetic resonance spectroscopy, magnetic transfer imaging, and water-mapping techniques have helped elucidate pathologic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy and are available in research centers, but they are not currently considered for diagnosis.
SEVERAL LINES OF TREATMENT
Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy involves a preemptive approach to address potential precipitating factors, medical therapy to reduce the production and absorption of ammonia from the gut, and surgical or interventional therapies. A multidisciplinary approach for testing the severity of neurologic impairment and response to therapy is needed to help determine if and when liver transplantation is required.
Prevent potential precipitating factors
An important concept in managing hepatic encephalopathy is to recognize that every cirrhotic patient is at risk and to make an effort to address potential precipitating factors during regular clinic visits. This includes reviewing medication dosing and adverse effects, emphasizing abstinence from alcohol and other toxic substances, and preventing bleeding from esophageal varices with endoscopic band ligation.
Diet therapy
The prevalence of malnutrition in cirrhosis may be as high as 100%. Vitamin and nutritional deficiencies should be evaluated by a nutrition specialist, and nutritional needs should be reassessed on a regular basis. Protein restriction is no longer recommended and may even be harmful.
Guidelines of the European Society of Parenteral and Enteric Nutrition in 2006 recommended that patients with liver disease should have an energy intake of 35 to 40 kcal/kg of body weight daily, with a total daily protein intake of 1.2 to 1.5 mg/kg of body weight.41 Frequent meals and bedtime snacks are encouraged to avoid periods of prolonged fasting and catabolism of muscle protein and to improve nitrogen balance. Branched-chain amino acids and vegetable protein supplements are suggested to help meet the daily requirements.42
Drug therapy to reduce neurotoxins
Drug treatment is directed at reducing the neurotoxins that accumulate in cirrhosis. A variety of agents have been used.
Lactulose (Kristalose) is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a first-line treatment. It has been shown to improve quality of life and cognitive function in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy, although it has failed to improve mortality rates.37
Lactulose, a cathartic disaccharide, is metabolized by colonic bacteria into short-chain fatty acids. The acidic microenvironment has three major effects:
- It aids the transformation of ammonia to ammonium (NH4+), which is then trapped in the stool, leaving less ammonia to be absorbed
- It has a cathartic effect
- It reduces the breakdown of nitrogenous compounds into ammonia.43
Lactulose has an excessively sweet taste. Its side effects include flatulence, abdominal discomfort, and diarrhea. The usual oral dose is 15 to 45 mL/day given in multiple doses to induce two to three soft bowel movements daily. At this dosage, the monthly cost varies between $60 and $120.
Lactilol, a nonabsorbable disaccharide, is as effective as lactulose but with fewer side effects. It is not available in the United States.
Rifaximin (Xifaxan), a derivative of rifamycin, is FDA-approved for the maintenance of remission of hepatic encephalopathy but is not recommended as a first-line agent. It inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis in the gut. Less than 0.4% of an oral dose is absorbed.44
In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial in patients who had had at least two episodes of hepatic encephalopathy while on lactulose therapy, taking rifaximin 550 mg twice a day for 6 months provided a prolonged remission from recurrences of encephalopathy compared with placebo.45 Side effects included nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, and Clostridium difficile colitis, which was reported in two cases in the study.45
Unfortunately, the effects of this drug beyond 6 months of therapy have not been studied. In addition, the drug is expensive: 1 month of treatment with rifaximin can cost between $700 and $1,500. Combining lactulose and rifaximin adds to the costs and the side effects, and contributes to poor adherence to therapy.
Other antibiotics such as metronidazole (Flagyl), vancomycin, and neomycin have been used as alternatives to lactulose, based on the principle that they reduce ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut. However, their efficacy in hepatic encephalopathy remains to be determined.
In controlled trials, neomycin combined with sorbitol, magnesium sulfate, or lactulose was as effective as lactulose, but when used alone, neomycin was no better than placebo.46,47 Neomycin was approved many years ago as an adjunct in the management of hepatic coma, but it has since fallen out of favor in the management of hepatic encephalopathy because of poor trial results and because of neurotoxicity and ototoxicity.
Branched-chain amino acids (leucine, isoleucine, and valine)48 are reported to increase ammonia intake in muscle and to improve cognitive functions on the PSE scale in minimal hepatic encephalopathy,49,50 but they did not decrease the rate of recurrence of hepatic encephalopathy.51 While debate continues over their efficacy in the management of hepatic encephalopathy, branched-chain amino acids may be used to improve nutritional status and muscle mass of patients with cirrhosis. However, the dosing is not standardized, and long-term compliance may be problematic.
Other medical therapies include zinc,16 sodium benzoate,50 and l-ornithine-l-aspartate52,53 to stimulate residual urea cycle activities; probiotics (which pose a risk of sepsis from fungi and lactobacilli); and laxatives.
Liver dialysis
Adsorbing toxins from the blood via liver dialysis or using a non-cell-based liver support system such as MARS (Molecular Adsorbent Recirculating System, Gambro, Inc.) appears to improve the amino acid profile in hepatic encephalopathy, but its role has not been clarified, and its use is limited to clinical trials.54,55
Transjugular intrahepatic shunts and large portosystemic shunts may need to be closed in order to reverse encephalopathy refractory to drug therapy.26,27,56
Liver transplantation
The current scoring system for end-stage liver disease does not include hepatic encephalopathy as a criterion for prioritizing patients on the transplantation list because it was originally developed to assess short-term prognosis in patients undergoing transjugular intrahepatic shunting. As a consequence, patients with end-stage liver disease are at increased risk of repeated episodes of encephalopathy, hospital readmission, and death. Therefore, the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases recommends referral to a transplantation center when the patient experiences a first episode of overt hepatic encephalopathy to initiate a workup for liver transplantation.34
Liver transplantation improves survival in patients with severe hepatic dysfunction, but the presence of neurologic deficits may result in significant morbidity and in death.57,58 After transplantation, resolution of cognitive dysfunction, brain edema, and white-matter changes have been reported,59 but neuronal cell death and persistent cognitive impairment after resolution of overt hepatic encephalopathy are also described.60–63
Whether neurologic impairment will resolve after liver transplantation depends on a number of factors: the severity of encephalopathy before transplantation; the nature of the neurologic deficits; advanced age; history of alcohol abuse and the presence of alcoholic brain damage; persistence of portosystemic shunts after transplant; emergency transplantation; complications during surgery; and side effects of immunosuppressive drugs.57,58,64
The optimal timing of liver transplantation is not clearly defined for patients who have had bouts of hepatic encephalopathy, and more study is needed to determine the reversibility of clinical symptoms and brain damage. It is in these situations that neuropsychiatric testing and advanced neuroimaging can help determine the efficacy of therapeutic interventions, and it should be considered part of the pretransplantation evaluation.
Managing sleep disturbances
Insomnia and other changes in sleep-wake patterns are common in patients with cirrhosis, especially advanced cirrhosis.65 It is not known whether these changes represent early stages of hepatic encephalopathy.66 Patients often complain of fatigue, the need for frequent naps, and lethargy during the day and restlessness and inability to sleep at night. This affects the patient’s behavior and daytime functioning, and it also burdens household members and caregivers.
Long-acting benzodiazepines should be avoided when treating sleep disorders in cirrhosis because they may precipitate the encephalopathy. In a randomized controlled trial, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) at a dose of 25 mg at bedtime improved sleep behavior in 40% of patients with cirrhosis and subclinical hepatic encephalopathy, but 1 of 17 patients developed acute encephalopathy, which reversed with cessation of the hydroxyzine.66 Clearly, caution and close monitoring are required when giving hydroxyzine for sleep disorders in cirrhotic patients.
- Ferenci P, Lockwood A, Mullen K, Tarter R, Weissenborn K, Blei AT. Hepatic encephalopathy—definition, nomenclature, diagnosis, and quantification: final report of the working party at the 11th World Congresses of Gastroenterology, Vienna, 1998. Hepatology 2002; 35:716–721.
- Fleming KM, Aithal GP, Solaymani-Dodaran M, Card TR, West J. Incidence and prevalence of cirrhosis in the United Kingdom, 1992–2001: a general population-based study. J Hepatol 2008; 49:732–738.
- Poordad FF. Review article: the burden of hepatic encephalopathy. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2007; 25(suppl 1):3–9.
- Bajaj JS, Wade JB, Sanyal AJ. Spectrum of neurocognitive impairment in cirrhosis: Implications for the assessment of hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2009; 50:2014–2021.
- Norenberg MD, Jayakumar AR, Rama Rao KV, Panickar KS. New concepts in the mechanism of ammonia-induced astrocyte swelling. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:219–234.
- Häussinger D, Görg B. Interaction of oxidative stress, astrocyte swelling and cerebral ammonia toxicity. Curr Opin Clin Nutr Metab Care 2010; 13:87–92.
- Romero-Gómez M, Ramos-Guerrero R, Grande L, et al. Intestinal glutaminase activity is increased in liver cirrhosis and correlates with minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Hepatol 2004; 41:49–54.
- Tanigami H, Rebel A, Martin LJ, et al. Effect of glutamine synthetase inhibition on astrocyte swelling and altered astroglial protein expression during hyperammonemia in rats. Neuroscience 2005; 131:437–449.
- Llansola M, Rodrigo R, Monfort P, et al. NMDA receptors in hyperammonemia and hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:321–335.
- Montoliu C, Piedrafita B, Serra MA, et al. IL-6 and IL-18 in blood may discriminate cirrhotic patients with and without minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Clin Gastroenterol 2009; 43:272–279.
- Desjardins P, Butterworth RF. The “peripheral-type” benzodiazepine (omega 3) receptor in hyperammonemic disorders. Neurochem Int 2002; 41:109–114.
- Häussinger D, Schliess F. Pathogenetic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy. Gut 2008; 57:1156–1165.
- Cauli O, Rodrigo R, Llansola M, et al. Glutamatergic and gabaergic neurotransmission and neuronal circuits in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:69–80.
- Krieger D, Krieger S, Jansen O, Gass P, Theilmann L, Lichtnecker H. Manganese and chronic hepatic encephalopathy. Lancet 1995; 346:270–274.
- Pomier-Layrargues G, Spahr L, Butterworth RF. Increased manganese concentrations in pallidum of cirrhotic patients. Lancet 1995; 345:735.
- Schliess F, Görg B, Häussinger D. RNA oxidation and zinc in hepatic encephalopathy and hyperammonemia. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:119–134.
- Guevara M, Baccaro ME, Torre A, et al. Hyponatremia is a risk factor of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis: a prospective study with time-dependent analysis. Am J Gastroenterol 2009; 104:1382–1389.
- Hertz L, Kala G. Energy metabolism in brain cells: effects of elevated ammonia concentrations. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:199–218.
- Marchesini G, Zoli M, Dondi C, et al. Prevalence of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhotics and relationship to plasma amino acid imbalance. Dig Dis Sci 1980; 25:763–768.
- Morgan MY, Milsom JP, Sherlock S. Plasma ratio of valine, leucine and isoleucine to phenylalanine and tyrosine in liver disease. Gut 1978; 19:1068–1073.
- Fischer JE, Rosen HM, Ebeid AM, James JH, Keane JM, Soeters PB. The effect of normalization of plasma amino acids on hepatic encephalopathy in man. Surgery 1976; 80:77–91.
- Poveda MJ, Bernabeu A, Concepción L, et al. Brain edema dynamics in patients with overt hepatic encephalopathy A magnetic resonance imaging study. Neuroimage 2010; 52:481–487.
- Bernthal P, Hays A, Tarter RE, Van Thiel D, Lecky J, Hegedus A. Cerebral CT scan abnormalities in cholestatic and hepatocellular disease and their relationship to neuropsychologic test performance. Hepatology 1987; 7:107–114.
- Sugimoto R, Iwasa M, Maeda M, et al. Value of the apparent diffusion coefficient for quantification of low-grade hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2008; 103:1413–1420.
- Häussinger D. Low grade cerebral edema and the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis. Hepatology 2006; 43:1187–1190.
- Masson S, Mardini HA, Rose JD, Record CO. Hepatic encephalopathy after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt insertion: a decade of experience. QJM 2008; 101:493–501.
- Boyer TD, Haskal ZJ; American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases. The role of transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) in the management of portal hypertension: update 2009. Hepatology 2010; 51:306.
- García-Pagán JC, Caca K, Bureau C, et al; Early TIPS (Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt) Cooperative Study Group. Early use of TIPS in patients with cirrhosis and variceal bleeding. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:2370–2379.
- Kircheis G, Knoche A, Hilger N, et al. Hepatic encephalopathy and fitness to drive. Gastroenterology 2009; 137:1706–1715.e1–9.
- Bajaj JS, Saeian K, Schubert CM, et al. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is associated with motor vehicle crashes: the reality beyond the driving test. Hepatology 2009; 50:1175–1183.
- Hartmann IJ, Groeneweg M, Quero JC, et al. The prognostic significance of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:2029–2034.
- Romero-Gómez M, Boza F, García-Valdecasas MS, García E, Aguilar-Reina J. Subclinical hepatic encephalopathy predicts the development of overt hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:2718–2723.
- Bustamante J, Rimola A, Ventura PJ, et al. Prognostic significance of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. J Hepatol 1999; 30:890–895.
- Murray KF, Carithers RL jR; AASLD. AASLD practice guidelines: evaluation of the patient for liver transplantation. Hepatology 2005; 41:1407–1432.
- Amodio P, Montagnese S, Gatta A, Morgan MY. Characteristics of minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2004; 19:253–267.
- Weissenborn K. PHES: one label, different goods?! J Hepatol 2008; 49:308–312.
- Prasad S, Dhiman RK, Duseja A, Chawla YK, Sharma A, Agarwal R. Lactulose improves cognitive functions and health-related quality of life in patients with cirrhosis who have minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2007; 45:549–559.
- Parsons-Smith BG, Summerskill WHJ, Dawson AM, Sherlock S. The electroencephalograph in liver disease. Lancet 1957; 2:867–871.
- Teasdale G, Jennett B. Assessment of coma and impaired consciousness. A practical scale. Lancet 1974; 2:81–84.
- Rovira A, Alonso J, Córdoba J. MR imaging findings in hepatic encephalopathy. AJNR Am J Neuroradiol 2008; 29:1612–1621.
- Plauth M, Cabré E, Riggio O, Assis-Camilo M, Pirlich M, Kondrup J; DGEM (German Society for Nutritional Medicine); ESPEN (European Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition). ESPEN guidelines on enteral nutrition: liver disease. Clin Nutr 2006; 25:285–294.
- Gheorghe L, Iacob R, Vadan R, Iacob S, Gheorghe C. Improvement of hepatic encephalopathy using a modified high-calorie high-protein diet. Rom J Gastroenterol 2005; 14:231–238.
- Weber FL. Effects of lactulose on nitrogen metabolism. Scand J Gastroenterol Suppl 1997; 222:83–87.
- Ojetti V, Lauritano EC, Barbaro F, et al. Rifaximin pharmacology and clinical implications. Expert Opin Drug Metab Toxicol 2009; 5:675–682.
- Bass NM, Mullen KD, Sanyal A, et al. Rifaximin treatment in hepatic encephalopathy. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1071–1081.
- Blei AT, Córdoba J; Practice Parameters Committee of the American College of Gastroenterology. Hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:1968–1976.
- Rothenberg ME, Keeffe EB. Antibiotics in the management of hepatic encephalopathy: an evidence-based review. Rev Gastroenterol Disord 2005; 5(suppl 3):26–35.
- Charlton M. Branched-chain amino acid enriched supplements as therapy for liver disease. J Nutr 2006; 136(suppl 1):295S–298S.
- Egberts EH, Schomerus H, Hamster W, Jürgens P. [Branched-chain amino acids in the treatment of latent porto-systemic encephalopathy. A placebo-controlled double-blind cross-over study] [in German]. Z Ernahrungswiss 1986; 25:9–28.
- Plauth M, Egberts EH, Hamster W, et al. Long-term treatment of latent portosystemic encephalopathy with branched-chain amino acids. A double-blind placebo-controlled crossover study. J Hepatol 1993; 17:308–314.
- Les I, Doval E, García-Martínez R, et al. Effects of branched-chain amino acids supplementation in patients with cirrhosis and a previous episode of hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized study. Am J Gastroenterol 2011; 106:1081–1088.
- Efrati C, Masini A, Merli M, Valeriano V, Riggio O. Effect of sodium benzoate on blood ammonia response to oral glutamine challenge in cirrhotic patients: a note of caution. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:3574–3578.
- Schmid M, Peck-Radosavljevic M, König F, Mittermaier C, Gangl A, Ferenci P. A double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial of intravenous L-ornithine-L-aspartate on postural control in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2010; 30:574–582.
- Blei AT. MARS and treatment of hepatic encephalopathy [in Spanish). Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 28:100–104.
- Heemann U, Treichel U, Loock J, et al. Albumin dialysis in cirrhosis with superimposed acute liver injury: a prospective, controlled study. Hepatology 2002; 36:949–958.
- Zidi SH, Zanditenas D, Gelu-Siméon M, et al. Treatment of chronic portosystemic encephalopathy in cirrhotic patients by embolization of portosystemic shunts. Liver Int 2007; 27:1389–1393.
- Dhar R, Young GB, Marotta P. Perioperative neurological complications after liver transplantation are best predicted by pre-transplant hepatic encephalopathy. Neurocrit Care 2008; 8:253–258.
- Teperman LW, Peyregne VP. Considerations on the impact of hepatic encephalopathy treatments in the pretransplant setting. Transplantation 2010; 89:771–778.
- Rovira A, Córdoba J, Sanpedro F, Grivé E, Rovira-Gols A, Alonso J. Normalization of T2 signal abnormalities in hemispheric white matter with liver transplant. Neurology 2002; 59:335–341.
- Senzolo M, Pizzolato G, Ferronato C, et al. Long-term evaluation of cognitive function and cerebral metabolism in liver transplanted patients. Transplant Proc 2009; 41:1295–1296.
- Butterworth RF. Neuronal cell death in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:309–320.
- DiMartini A, Chopra K. The importance of hepatic encephalopathy: pre-transplant and post-transplant. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:121–123.
- Saner FH, Nadalin S, Radtke A, Sotiropoulos GC, Kaiser GM, Paul A. Liver transplantation and neurological side effects. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:183–187.
- Sotil EU, Gottstein J, Ayala E, Randolph C, Blei AT. Impact of preoperative overt hepatic encephalopathy on neurocognitive function after liver transplantation. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:184–192.
- Montagnese S, Middleton B, Skene DJ, Morgan MY. Night-time sleep disturbance does not correlate with neuropsychiatric impairment in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2009; 29:1372–1382.
- Spahr L, Coeytaux A, Giostra E, Hadengue A, Annoni JM. Histamine H1 blocker hydroxyzine improves sleep in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized controlled pilot trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2007; 102:744–753.
- Ferenci P, Lockwood A, Mullen K, Tarter R, Weissenborn K, Blei AT. Hepatic encephalopathy—definition, nomenclature, diagnosis, and quantification: final report of the working party at the 11th World Congresses of Gastroenterology, Vienna, 1998. Hepatology 2002; 35:716–721.
- Fleming KM, Aithal GP, Solaymani-Dodaran M, Card TR, West J. Incidence and prevalence of cirrhosis in the United Kingdom, 1992–2001: a general population-based study. J Hepatol 2008; 49:732–738.
- Poordad FF. Review article: the burden of hepatic encephalopathy. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2007; 25(suppl 1):3–9.
- Bajaj JS, Wade JB, Sanyal AJ. Spectrum of neurocognitive impairment in cirrhosis: Implications for the assessment of hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2009; 50:2014–2021.
- Norenberg MD, Jayakumar AR, Rama Rao KV, Panickar KS. New concepts in the mechanism of ammonia-induced astrocyte swelling. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:219–234.
- Häussinger D, Görg B. Interaction of oxidative stress, astrocyte swelling and cerebral ammonia toxicity. Curr Opin Clin Nutr Metab Care 2010; 13:87–92.
- Romero-Gómez M, Ramos-Guerrero R, Grande L, et al. Intestinal glutaminase activity is increased in liver cirrhosis and correlates with minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Hepatol 2004; 41:49–54.
- Tanigami H, Rebel A, Martin LJ, et al. Effect of glutamine synthetase inhibition on astrocyte swelling and altered astroglial protein expression during hyperammonemia in rats. Neuroscience 2005; 131:437–449.
- Llansola M, Rodrigo R, Monfort P, et al. NMDA receptors in hyperammonemia and hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:321–335.
- Montoliu C, Piedrafita B, Serra MA, et al. IL-6 and IL-18 in blood may discriminate cirrhotic patients with and without minimal hepatic encephalopathy. J Clin Gastroenterol 2009; 43:272–279.
- Desjardins P, Butterworth RF. The “peripheral-type” benzodiazepine (omega 3) receptor in hyperammonemic disorders. Neurochem Int 2002; 41:109–114.
- Häussinger D, Schliess F. Pathogenetic mechanisms of hepatic encephalopathy. Gut 2008; 57:1156–1165.
- Cauli O, Rodrigo R, Llansola M, et al. Glutamatergic and gabaergic neurotransmission and neuronal circuits in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:69–80.
- Krieger D, Krieger S, Jansen O, Gass P, Theilmann L, Lichtnecker H. Manganese and chronic hepatic encephalopathy. Lancet 1995; 346:270–274.
- Pomier-Layrargues G, Spahr L, Butterworth RF. Increased manganese concentrations in pallidum of cirrhotic patients. Lancet 1995; 345:735.
- Schliess F, Görg B, Häussinger D. RNA oxidation and zinc in hepatic encephalopathy and hyperammonemia. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:119–134.
- Guevara M, Baccaro ME, Torre A, et al. Hyponatremia is a risk factor of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis: a prospective study with time-dependent analysis. Am J Gastroenterol 2009; 104:1382–1389.
- Hertz L, Kala G. Energy metabolism in brain cells: effects of elevated ammonia concentrations. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:199–218.
- Marchesini G, Zoli M, Dondi C, et al. Prevalence of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhotics and relationship to plasma amino acid imbalance. Dig Dis Sci 1980; 25:763–768.
- Morgan MY, Milsom JP, Sherlock S. Plasma ratio of valine, leucine and isoleucine to phenylalanine and tyrosine in liver disease. Gut 1978; 19:1068–1073.
- Fischer JE, Rosen HM, Ebeid AM, James JH, Keane JM, Soeters PB. The effect of normalization of plasma amino acids on hepatic encephalopathy in man. Surgery 1976; 80:77–91.
- Poveda MJ, Bernabeu A, Concepción L, et al. Brain edema dynamics in patients with overt hepatic encephalopathy A magnetic resonance imaging study. Neuroimage 2010; 52:481–487.
- Bernthal P, Hays A, Tarter RE, Van Thiel D, Lecky J, Hegedus A. Cerebral CT scan abnormalities in cholestatic and hepatocellular disease and their relationship to neuropsychologic test performance. Hepatology 1987; 7:107–114.
- Sugimoto R, Iwasa M, Maeda M, et al. Value of the apparent diffusion coefficient for quantification of low-grade hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2008; 103:1413–1420.
- Häussinger D. Low grade cerebral edema and the pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis. Hepatology 2006; 43:1187–1190.
- Masson S, Mardini HA, Rose JD, Record CO. Hepatic encephalopathy after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt insertion: a decade of experience. QJM 2008; 101:493–501.
- Boyer TD, Haskal ZJ; American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases. The role of transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) in the management of portal hypertension: update 2009. Hepatology 2010; 51:306.
- García-Pagán JC, Caca K, Bureau C, et al; Early TIPS (Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt) Cooperative Study Group. Early use of TIPS in patients with cirrhosis and variceal bleeding. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:2370–2379.
- Kircheis G, Knoche A, Hilger N, et al. Hepatic encephalopathy and fitness to drive. Gastroenterology 2009; 137:1706–1715.e1–9.
- Bajaj JS, Saeian K, Schubert CM, et al. Minimal hepatic encephalopathy is associated with motor vehicle crashes: the reality beyond the driving test. Hepatology 2009; 50:1175–1183.
- Hartmann IJ, Groeneweg M, Quero JC, et al. The prognostic significance of subclinical hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:2029–2034.
- Romero-Gómez M, Boza F, García-Valdecasas MS, García E, Aguilar-Reina J. Subclinical hepatic encephalopathy predicts the development of overt hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:2718–2723.
- Bustamante J, Rimola A, Ventura PJ, et al. Prognostic significance of hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. J Hepatol 1999; 30:890–895.
- Murray KF, Carithers RL jR; AASLD. AASLD practice guidelines: evaluation of the patient for liver transplantation. Hepatology 2005; 41:1407–1432.
- Amodio P, Montagnese S, Gatta A, Morgan MY. Characteristics of minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2004; 19:253–267.
- Weissenborn K. PHES: one label, different goods?! J Hepatol 2008; 49:308–312.
- Prasad S, Dhiman RK, Duseja A, Chawla YK, Sharma A, Agarwal R. Lactulose improves cognitive functions and health-related quality of life in patients with cirrhosis who have minimal hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatology 2007; 45:549–559.
- Parsons-Smith BG, Summerskill WHJ, Dawson AM, Sherlock S. The electroencephalograph in liver disease. Lancet 1957; 2:867–871.
- Teasdale G, Jennett B. Assessment of coma and impaired consciousness. A practical scale. Lancet 1974; 2:81–84.
- Rovira A, Alonso J, Córdoba J. MR imaging findings in hepatic encephalopathy. AJNR Am J Neuroradiol 2008; 29:1612–1621.
- Plauth M, Cabré E, Riggio O, Assis-Camilo M, Pirlich M, Kondrup J; DGEM (German Society for Nutritional Medicine); ESPEN (European Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition). ESPEN guidelines on enteral nutrition: liver disease. Clin Nutr 2006; 25:285–294.
- Gheorghe L, Iacob R, Vadan R, Iacob S, Gheorghe C. Improvement of hepatic encephalopathy using a modified high-calorie high-protein diet. Rom J Gastroenterol 2005; 14:231–238.
- Weber FL. Effects of lactulose on nitrogen metabolism. Scand J Gastroenterol Suppl 1997; 222:83–87.
- Ojetti V, Lauritano EC, Barbaro F, et al. Rifaximin pharmacology and clinical implications. Expert Opin Drug Metab Toxicol 2009; 5:675–682.
- Bass NM, Mullen KD, Sanyal A, et al. Rifaximin treatment in hepatic encephalopathy. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1071–1081.
- Blei AT, Córdoba J; Practice Parameters Committee of the American College of Gastroenterology. Hepatic encephalopathy. Am J Gastroenterol 2001; 96:1968–1976.
- Rothenberg ME, Keeffe EB. Antibiotics in the management of hepatic encephalopathy: an evidence-based review. Rev Gastroenterol Disord 2005; 5(suppl 3):26–35.
- Charlton M. Branched-chain amino acid enriched supplements as therapy for liver disease. J Nutr 2006; 136(suppl 1):295S–298S.
- Egberts EH, Schomerus H, Hamster W, Jürgens P. [Branched-chain amino acids in the treatment of latent porto-systemic encephalopathy. A placebo-controlled double-blind cross-over study] [in German]. Z Ernahrungswiss 1986; 25:9–28.
- Plauth M, Egberts EH, Hamster W, et al. Long-term treatment of latent portosystemic encephalopathy with branched-chain amino acids. A double-blind placebo-controlled crossover study. J Hepatol 1993; 17:308–314.
- Les I, Doval E, García-Martínez R, et al. Effects of branched-chain amino acids supplementation in patients with cirrhosis and a previous episode of hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized study. Am J Gastroenterol 2011; 106:1081–1088.
- Efrati C, Masini A, Merli M, Valeriano V, Riggio O. Effect of sodium benzoate on blood ammonia response to oral glutamine challenge in cirrhotic patients: a note of caution. Am J Gastroenterol 2000; 95:3574–3578.
- Schmid M, Peck-Radosavljevic M, König F, Mittermaier C, Gangl A, Ferenci P. A double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled trial of intravenous L-ornithine-L-aspartate on postural control in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2010; 30:574–582.
- Blei AT. MARS and treatment of hepatic encephalopathy [in Spanish). Gastroenterol Hepatol 2005; 28:100–104.
- Heemann U, Treichel U, Loock J, et al. Albumin dialysis in cirrhosis with superimposed acute liver injury: a prospective, controlled study. Hepatology 2002; 36:949–958.
- Zidi SH, Zanditenas D, Gelu-Siméon M, et al. Treatment of chronic portosystemic encephalopathy in cirrhotic patients by embolization of portosystemic shunts. Liver Int 2007; 27:1389–1393.
- Dhar R, Young GB, Marotta P. Perioperative neurological complications after liver transplantation are best predicted by pre-transplant hepatic encephalopathy. Neurocrit Care 2008; 8:253–258.
- Teperman LW, Peyregne VP. Considerations on the impact of hepatic encephalopathy treatments in the pretransplant setting. Transplantation 2010; 89:771–778.
- Rovira A, Córdoba J, Sanpedro F, Grivé E, Rovira-Gols A, Alonso J. Normalization of T2 signal abnormalities in hemispheric white matter with liver transplant. Neurology 2002; 59:335–341.
- Senzolo M, Pizzolato G, Ferronato C, et al. Long-term evaluation of cognitive function and cerebral metabolism in liver transplanted patients. Transplant Proc 2009; 41:1295–1296.
- Butterworth RF. Neuronal cell death in hepatic encephalopathy. Metab Brain Dis 2007; 22:309–320.
- DiMartini A, Chopra K. The importance of hepatic encephalopathy: pre-transplant and post-transplant. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:121–123.
- Saner FH, Nadalin S, Radtke A, Sotiropoulos GC, Kaiser GM, Paul A. Liver transplantation and neurological side effects. Metab Brain Dis 2009; 24:183–187.
- Sotil EU, Gottstein J, Ayala E, Randolph C, Blei AT. Impact of preoperative overt hepatic encephalopathy on neurocognitive function after liver transplantation. Liver Transpl 2009; 15:184–192.
- Montagnese S, Middleton B, Skene DJ, Morgan MY. Night-time sleep disturbance does not correlate with neuropsychiatric impairment in patients with cirrhosis. Liver Int 2009; 29:1372–1382.
- Spahr L, Coeytaux A, Giostra E, Hadengue A, Annoni JM. Histamine H1 blocker hydroxyzine improves sleep in patients with cirrhosis and minimal hepatic encephalopathy: a randomized controlled pilot trial. Am J Gastroenterol 2007; 102:744–753.
KEY POINTS
- Hepatic encephalopathy should be considered in any patient with cirrhosis who presents with neuropsychiatric manifestations in the absence of another brain disorder, such as stroke or brain tumor.
- “Minimal” hepatic encephalopathy may not be obvious on clinical examination but can be detected with neurophysiologic and neuropsychiatric testing.
- Every cirrhotic patient is at risk; potential precipitating factors should be addressed during regular clinic visits.
- Management requires prompt identification of precipitating factors and initiation of empiric medical therapy. Current treatments include drugs to prevent ammonia generation in the colon.
- Long-acting benzodiazepines should not be used to treat sleep disorders in patients with cirrhosis, as they may precipitate encephalopathy.
Oral plaques and dysphagia in a young man
A 23-year-old man presents with a sore throat, dysphagia, and general malaise that began 1 week ago. He also reports a 5-pound weight loss. He has not recently taken antibiotics or inhaled glucocorticoids, and he has no history of tobacco use or trauma to his mouth. He has no personal or family history of oral cancer. He uses cocaine on occasion. He reports feeling feverish and having a decreased appetite.
Q: Based on the history, the symptoms, and the physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- Oral hairy leukoplakia
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Oral candidiasis
- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Streptococcal pharyngitis
A: Oral candidiasis is correct.
Otherwise known as thrush, it is common in infants and in denture wearers, and it also can occur in diabetes mellitus, antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and cellular immune deficiency states such as cancer or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.1 Patients using inhaled glucocorticoids are also at risk and should always be advised to rinse their mouth out with water after inhaled steroid use.
Although Candida albicans is the species most often responsible for candidal infections, other candidal species are increasingly responsible for infections in immunocompromised patients. Candida is part of the normal flora in many adults.
Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is often seen in HIV infection. It is a white, painless, corrugated lesion, typically found on the lateral aspect of the tongue, and it cannot be scraped from the adherent surfaces. It can also be found on the dorsum of the tongue, the buccal surfaces, and the floor of the mouth. In an asymptomatic patient with oral hairy leukoplakia, HIV infection with moderate immunosuppression is most likely present.2 Oral hairy leukoplakia is diagnosed by biopsy of suspected lesions. It is not a premalignant lesion, and how to best treat it is still being investigated.3
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity can present as nonhealing ulcers or masses, dental changes, or exophytic lesions with or without pain.1 They may be accompanied by cervical nodal disease. Malignancies of the oral cavity account for 14% of all head and neck cancers, with squamous cell carcinoma the predominant type.4 Alcohol and tobacco use increase the risk. Alcohol and tobacco together have a synergistic effect on the incidence of oral carcinoma.1,4 Predisposing lesions are leukoplakia, lichen planus of the erosive subtype, submucosal fibrosis, and erythroplakia. Oral infection with human papillomavirus has been shown to increase the risk of oral cancer by a factor of 14, and papillomavirus type 16 is detected in 72% of patients with oropharyngeal cancer.5
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of herpes simplex virus infection. The initial infection may be asymptomatic or may produce groups of vesicles that develop into shallow, painful, and superficial ulcerations on an erythematous base.1,3 If the gingiva is involved, it is erythematous, boggy, and tender.3 Infections are self-limited, lasting up to 2 weeks, but there is potential for recurrence because of the ability of herpes simplex virus to undergo latency. Recurrence is usually heralded by prodromal symptoms 24 hours before onset, with tingling, pain, or burning at the infected site. The diagnosis can be made clinically, but the Tzanck smear test, viral culture, direct fluorescent antibody test, or polymerase chain reaction test can be used to confirm the diagnosis. In patients who are immunocompromised, infections tend to be more severe and to last longer.
Streptococcal pharyngitis, most often caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, is the most common type of bacterial pharyngitis in the clinical setting. The bacteria incubate for 2 to 5 days. The condition mainly affects younger children.6 Patients with “strep throat” often present with a sore throat and high-grade fever. Other symptoms include chills, myalgia, headache, and nausea. Findings on examination may include petechiae of the palate, pharyngeal and tonsillar erythema and exudates, and anterior cervical adenopathy.6 Children often present with coinciding abdominal complaints. A rapid antigen detection test for streptococcal infection can be performed in the office for quick diagnosis, but if clinical suspicion is high, a throat culture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment is to prevent complications such as rheumatic fever.6
FEATURES AND DIAGNOSIS OF ORAL CANDIDIASIS
Lesions of oral candidiasis can vary in their appearance. The pseudomembranous form is the most characteristic, with white adherent “cottage-cheese-like” plaques that wipe away, causing minimal bleeding.1,7 The erythematous or atrophic form is associated with denture use and causes a “beefy” appearance on the dorsum of the tongue or on the mucosa that supports a denture.1,7 A third form affects the angles of the mouth, causing angular cheilitis (perlèche).7,8 Chronic infection appears as localized, firmly adherent plaques with an irregular surface similar to hyperkeratosis caused by chronic frictional irritation.7
Oral candidiasis can occur in different forms at the same time. Patients often describe minimal symptoms such as dysgeusia or dry mouth.1,7 Infections causing dysphagia or odynophagia warrant suspicion for involvement of the esophagus.
The diagnosis is made empirically if the lesions resolve with anticandidal therapy. A more definitive diagnosis can be made by microscopy with a potassium hydroxide preparation showing pseudohyphae. Formal culture can also determine the yeast’s susceptibility to medication in recurrent or resistant cases.2
Oral candidiasis may be the manifesting symptom of HIV infection, and more than 90% of patients with adult immunodeficiency syndrome have an episode of thrush.8 When candidiasis is diagnosed without obvious cause, HIV testing should be offered, regardless of a patient’s lack of obvious risk factors. Other oral lesions in HIV patients are oral hairy leukoplakia, Kaposi sarcoma, periodontal and gingival infections, aphthous ulcers, herpes simplex stomatitis, and xerostomia.2 With highly active antiretroviral therapy, the incidence of oral candidiasis has decreased by about 50%.2
Our patient was diagnosed with HIV when screened after this initial presentation. Lower CD4 counts and higher viral loads increase the patient’s risk for oral candidiasis and other lesions. This patient’s initial CD4 count was 524 cells/μL, and his viral load was 11,232 copies/mL.
TREATMENT
In HIV-negative patients or in HIV-positive patients with a CD4 count greater than 200 cells/μL, the treatment of oral candidiasis involves topical antifungal agents, including a nystatin suspension (Nystat-Rx) or clotrimazole (Mycelex) troches.3,7,9 Treatment should be continued for at least 7 days after resolution of the infection. If resolution does not occur, oral fluconazole (Diflucan) 200 mg daily should be given.
For HIV patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/μL, oral fluconazole or itraconazole (Sporanox) is recommended, with posaconazole (Noxafil) as an alternative for refractory disease.3,9 Giving fluconazole prophylactically to prevent oral candidiasis is not recommended because of the risk of adverse effects, lack of survival benefit, associated cost, and potential to develop antifungal resistance.3,9
- Reichart PA. Clinical management of selected oral fungal and viral infections during HIV-disease. Int Dent J 1999; 49:251–259.
- Kim TB, Pletcher SD, Goldberg AN. Head and neck manifestations in the immunocompromised host. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:209–229(225–226).
- Sciubba JJ. Oral mucosal lesions. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1229–1231).
- Wein R. Malignant Neoplasms of the Oral Cavity. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1236).
- D’Souza G, Kreimer AR, Viscidi R, et al. Case-control study of human papillomavirus and oropharyngeal cancer. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:1944–1956.
- Hayes CS, Williamson H. Management of group A betahemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis. Am Fam Physician 2001; 63:1557–1564.
- Coleman GC. Diseases of the mouth. In:Bope ET, Rakel RE, Kellerman R, editors. Conn’s Current Therapy. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2010:861–867.
- Habif TP. Candidiasis (moniliasis). In: Clinical Dermatology: A Color Guide to Diagnosis and Therapy. 5th ed. Edinburgh: Mosby; 2010:523–536.
- Pappas PG, Rex JH, Sobel JD, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Guidelines for treatment of candidiasis. Clin Infect Dis 2004; 38:161–189.
A 23-year-old man presents with a sore throat, dysphagia, and general malaise that began 1 week ago. He also reports a 5-pound weight loss. He has not recently taken antibiotics or inhaled glucocorticoids, and he has no history of tobacco use or trauma to his mouth. He has no personal or family history of oral cancer. He uses cocaine on occasion. He reports feeling feverish and having a decreased appetite.
Q: Based on the history, the symptoms, and the physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- Oral hairy leukoplakia
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Oral candidiasis
- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Streptococcal pharyngitis
A: Oral candidiasis is correct.
Otherwise known as thrush, it is common in infants and in denture wearers, and it also can occur in diabetes mellitus, antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and cellular immune deficiency states such as cancer or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.1 Patients using inhaled glucocorticoids are also at risk and should always be advised to rinse their mouth out with water after inhaled steroid use.
Although Candida albicans is the species most often responsible for candidal infections, other candidal species are increasingly responsible for infections in immunocompromised patients. Candida is part of the normal flora in many adults.
Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is often seen in HIV infection. It is a white, painless, corrugated lesion, typically found on the lateral aspect of the tongue, and it cannot be scraped from the adherent surfaces. It can also be found on the dorsum of the tongue, the buccal surfaces, and the floor of the mouth. In an asymptomatic patient with oral hairy leukoplakia, HIV infection with moderate immunosuppression is most likely present.2 Oral hairy leukoplakia is diagnosed by biopsy of suspected lesions. It is not a premalignant lesion, and how to best treat it is still being investigated.3
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity can present as nonhealing ulcers or masses, dental changes, or exophytic lesions with or without pain.1 They may be accompanied by cervical nodal disease. Malignancies of the oral cavity account for 14% of all head and neck cancers, with squamous cell carcinoma the predominant type.4 Alcohol and tobacco use increase the risk. Alcohol and tobacco together have a synergistic effect on the incidence of oral carcinoma.1,4 Predisposing lesions are leukoplakia, lichen planus of the erosive subtype, submucosal fibrosis, and erythroplakia. Oral infection with human papillomavirus has been shown to increase the risk of oral cancer by a factor of 14, and papillomavirus type 16 is detected in 72% of patients with oropharyngeal cancer.5
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of herpes simplex virus infection. The initial infection may be asymptomatic or may produce groups of vesicles that develop into shallow, painful, and superficial ulcerations on an erythematous base.1,3 If the gingiva is involved, it is erythematous, boggy, and tender.3 Infections are self-limited, lasting up to 2 weeks, but there is potential for recurrence because of the ability of herpes simplex virus to undergo latency. Recurrence is usually heralded by prodromal symptoms 24 hours before onset, with tingling, pain, or burning at the infected site. The diagnosis can be made clinically, but the Tzanck smear test, viral culture, direct fluorescent antibody test, or polymerase chain reaction test can be used to confirm the diagnosis. In patients who are immunocompromised, infections tend to be more severe and to last longer.
Streptococcal pharyngitis, most often caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, is the most common type of bacterial pharyngitis in the clinical setting. The bacteria incubate for 2 to 5 days. The condition mainly affects younger children.6 Patients with “strep throat” often present with a sore throat and high-grade fever. Other symptoms include chills, myalgia, headache, and nausea. Findings on examination may include petechiae of the palate, pharyngeal and tonsillar erythema and exudates, and anterior cervical adenopathy.6 Children often present with coinciding abdominal complaints. A rapid antigen detection test for streptococcal infection can be performed in the office for quick diagnosis, but if clinical suspicion is high, a throat culture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment is to prevent complications such as rheumatic fever.6
FEATURES AND DIAGNOSIS OF ORAL CANDIDIASIS
Lesions of oral candidiasis can vary in their appearance. The pseudomembranous form is the most characteristic, with white adherent “cottage-cheese-like” plaques that wipe away, causing minimal bleeding.1,7 The erythematous or atrophic form is associated with denture use and causes a “beefy” appearance on the dorsum of the tongue or on the mucosa that supports a denture.1,7 A third form affects the angles of the mouth, causing angular cheilitis (perlèche).7,8 Chronic infection appears as localized, firmly adherent plaques with an irregular surface similar to hyperkeratosis caused by chronic frictional irritation.7
Oral candidiasis can occur in different forms at the same time. Patients often describe minimal symptoms such as dysgeusia or dry mouth.1,7 Infections causing dysphagia or odynophagia warrant suspicion for involvement of the esophagus.
The diagnosis is made empirically if the lesions resolve with anticandidal therapy. A more definitive diagnosis can be made by microscopy with a potassium hydroxide preparation showing pseudohyphae. Formal culture can also determine the yeast’s susceptibility to medication in recurrent or resistant cases.2
Oral candidiasis may be the manifesting symptom of HIV infection, and more than 90% of patients with adult immunodeficiency syndrome have an episode of thrush.8 When candidiasis is diagnosed without obvious cause, HIV testing should be offered, regardless of a patient’s lack of obvious risk factors. Other oral lesions in HIV patients are oral hairy leukoplakia, Kaposi sarcoma, periodontal and gingival infections, aphthous ulcers, herpes simplex stomatitis, and xerostomia.2 With highly active antiretroviral therapy, the incidence of oral candidiasis has decreased by about 50%.2
Our patient was diagnosed with HIV when screened after this initial presentation. Lower CD4 counts and higher viral loads increase the patient’s risk for oral candidiasis and other lesions. This patient’s initial CD4 count was 524 cells/μL, and his viral load was 11,232 copies/mL.
TREATMENT
In HIV-negative patients or in HIV-positive patients with a CD4 count greater than 200 cells/μL, the treatment of oral candidiasis involves topical antifungal agents, including a nystatin suspension (Nystat-Rx) or clotrimazole (Mycelex) troches.3,7,9 Treatment should be continued for at least 7 days after resolution of the infection. If resolution does not occur, oral fluconazole (Diflucan) 200 mg daily should be given.
For HIV patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/μL, oral fluconazole or itraconazole (Sporanox) is recommended, with posaconazole (Noxafil) as an alternative for refractory disease.3,9 Giving fluconazole prophylactically to prevent oral candidiasis is not recommended because of the risk of adverse effects, lack of survival benefit, associated cost, and potential to develop antifungal resistance.3,9
A 23-year-old man presents with a sore throat, dysphagia, and general malaise that began 1 week ago. He also reports a 5-pound weight loss. He has not recently taken antibiotics or inhaled glucocorticoids, and he has no history of tobacco use or trauma to his mouth. He has no personal or family history of oral cancer. He uses cocaine on occasion. He reports feeling feverish and having a decreased appetite.
Q: Based on the history, the symptoms, and the physical examination, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
- Oral hairy leukoplakia
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Oral candidiasis
- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Streptococcal pharyngitis
A: Oral candidiasis is correct.
Otherwise known as thrush, it is common in infants and in denture wearers, and it also can occur in diabetes mellitus, antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and cellular immune deficiency states such as cancer or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.1 Patients using inhaled glucocorticoids are also at risk and should always be advised to rinse their mouth out with water after inhaled steroid use.
Although Candida albicans is the species most often responsible for candidal infections, other candidal species are increasingly responsible for infections in immunocompromised patients. Candida is part of the normal flora in many adults.
Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is often seen in HIV infection. It is a white, painless, corrugated lesion, typically found on the lateral aspect of the tongue, and it cannot be scraped from the adherent surfaces. It can also be found on the dorsum of the tongue, the buccal surfaces, and the floor of the mouth. In an asymptomatic patient with oral hairy leukoplakia, HIV infection with moderate immunosuppression is most likely present.2 Oral hairy leukoplakia is diagnosed by biopsy of suspected lesions. It is not a premalignant lesion, and how to best treat it is still being investigated.3
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity can present as nonhealing ulcers or masses, dental changes, or exophytic lesions with or without pain.1 They may be accompanied by cervical nodal disease. Malignancies of the oral cavity account for 14% of all head and neck cancers, with squamous cell carcinoma the predominant type.4 Alcohol and tobacco use increase the risk. Alcohol and tobacco together have a synergistic effect on the incidence of oral carcinoma.1,4 Predisposing lesions are leukoplakia, lichen planus of the erosive subtype, submucosal fibrosis, and erythroplakia. Oral infection with human papillomavirus has been shown to increase the risk of oral cancer by a factor of 14, and papillomavirus type 16 is detected in 72% of patients with oropharyngeal cancer.5
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of herpes simplex virus infection. The initial infection may be asymptomatic or may produce groups of vesicles that develop into shallow, painful, and superficial ulcerations on an erythematous base.1,3 If the gingiva is involved, it is erythematous, boggy, and tender.3 Infections are self-limited, lasting up to 2 weeks, but there is potential for recurrence because of the ability of herpes simplex virus to undergo latency. Recurrence is usually heralded by prodromal symptoms 24 hours before onset, with tingling, pain, or burning at the infected site. The diagnosis can be made clinically, but the Tzanck smear test, viral culture, direct fluorescent antibody test, or polymerase chain reaction test can be used to confirm the diagnosis. In patients who are immunocompromised, infections tend to be more severe and to last longer.
Streptococcal pharyngitis, most often caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, is the most common type of bacterial pharyngitis in the clinical setting. The bacteria incubate for 2 to 5 days. The condition mainly affects younger children.6 Patients with “strep throat” often present with a sore throat and high-grade fever. Other symptoms include chills, myalgia, headache, and nausea. Findings on examination may include petechiae of the palate, pharyngeal and tonsillar erythema and exudates, and anterior cervical adenopathy.6 Children often present with coinciding abdominal complaints. A rapid antigen detection test for streptococcal infection can be performed in the office for quick diagnosis, but if clinical suspicion is high, a throat culture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment is to prevent complications such as rheumatic fever.6
FEATURES AND DIAGNOSIS OF ORAL CANDIDIASIS
Lesions of oral candidiasis can vary in their appearance. The pseudomembranous form is the most characteristic, with white adherent “cottage-cheese-like” plaques that wipe away, causing minimal bleeding.1,7 The erythematous or atrophic form is associated with denture use and causes a “beefy” appearance on the dorsum of the tongue or on the mucosa that supports a denture.1,7 A third form affects the angles of the mouth, causing angular cheilitis (perlèche).7,8 Chronic infection appears as localized, firmly adherent plaques with an irregular surface similar to hyperkeratosis caused by chronic frictional irritation.7
Oral candidiasis can occur in different forms at the same time. Patients often describe minimal symptoms such as dysgeusia or dry mouth.1,7 Infections causing dysphagia or odynophagia warrant suspicion for involvement of the esophagus.
The diagnosis is made empirically if the lesions resolve with anticandidal therapy. A more definitive diagnosis can be made by microscopy with a potassium hydroxide preparation showing pseudohyphae. Formal culture can also determine the yeast’s susceptibility to medication in recurrent or resistant cases.2
Oral candidiasis may be the manifesting symptom of HIV infection, and more than 90% of patients with adult immunodeficiency syndrome have an episode of thrush.8 When candidiasis is diagnosed without obvious cause, HIV testing should be offered, regardless of a patient’s lack of obvious risk factors. Other oral lesions in HIV patients are oral hairy leukoplakia, Kaposi sarcoma, periodontal and gingival infections, aphthous ulcers, herpes simplex stomatitis, and xerostomia.2 With highly active antiretroviral therapy, the incidence of oral candidiasis has decreased by about 50%.2
Our patient was diagnosed with HIV when screened after this initial presentation. Lower CD4 counts and higher viral loads increase the patient’s risk for oral candidiasis and other lesions. This patient’s initial CD4 count was 524 cells/μL, and his viral load was 11,232 copies/mL.
TREATMENT
In HIV-negative patients or in HIV-positive patients with a CD4 count greater than 200 cells/μL, the treatment of oral candidiasis involves topical antifungal agents, including a nystatin suspension (Nystat-Rx) or clotrimazole (Mycelex) troches.3,7,9 Treatment should be continued for at least 7 days after resolution of the infection. If resolution does not occur, oral fluconazole (Diflucan) 200 mg daily should be given.
For HIV patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/μL, oral fluconazole or itraconazole (Sporanox) is recommended, with posaconazole (Noxafil) as an alternative for refractory disease.3,9 Giving fluconazole prophylactically to prevent oral candidiasis is not recommended because of the risk of adverse effects, lack of survival benefit, associated cost, and potential to develop antifungal resistance.3,9
- Reichart PA. Clinical management of selected oral fungal and viral infections during HIV-disease. Int Dent J 1999; 49:251–259.
- Kim TB, Pletcher SD, Goldberg AN. Head and neck manifestations in the immunocompromised host. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:209–229(225–226).
- Sciubba JJ. Oral mucosal lesions. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1229–1231).
- Wein R. Malignant Neoplasms of the Oral Cavity. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1236).
- D’Souza G, Kreimer AR, Viscidi R, et al. Case-control study of human papillomavirus and oropharyngeal cancer. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:1944–1956.
- Hayes CS, Williamson H. Management of group A betahemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis. Am Fam Physician 2001; 63:1557–1564.
- Coleman GC. Diseases of the mouth. In:Bope ET, Rakel RE, Kellerman R, editors. Conn’s Current Therapy. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2010:861–867.
- Habif TP. Candidiasis (moniliasis). In: Clinical Dermatology: A Color Guide to Diagnosis and Therapy. 5th ed. Edinburgh: Mosby; 2010:523–536.
- Pappas PG, Rex JH, Sobel JD, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Guidelines for treatment of candidiasis. Clin Infect Dis 2004; 38:161–189.
- Reichart PA. Clinical management of selected oral fungal and viral infections during HIV-disease. Int Dent J 1999; 49:251–259.
- Kim TB, Pletcher SD, Goldberg AN. Head and neck manifestations in the immunocompromised host. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:209–229(225–226).
- Sciubba JJ. Oral mucosal lesions. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1229–1231).
- Wein R. Malignant Neoplasms of the Oral Cavity. In:Flint PW, Haughey BH, Lund VJ, et al, editors. Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Mosby/Elsevier; 2010:1222–1244(1236).
- D’Souza G, Kreimer AR, Viscidi R, et al. Case-control study of human papillomavirus and oropharyngeal cancer. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:1944–1956.
- Hayes CS, Williamson H. Management of group A betahemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis. Am Fam Physician 2001; 63:1557–1564.
- Coleman GC. Diseases of the mouth. In:Bope ET, Rakel RE, Kellerman R, editors. Conn’s Current Therapy. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders; 2010:861–867.
- Habif TP. Candidiasis (moniliasis). In: Clinical Dermatology: A Color Guide to Diagnosis and Therapy. 5th ed. Edinburgh: Mosby; 2010:523–536.
- Pappas PG, Rex JH, Sobel JD, et al; Infectious Diseases Society of America. Guidelines for treatment of candidiasis. Clin Infect Dis 2004; 38:161–189.
Allergy blood testing: A practical guide for clinicians
Health care providers often need to evaluate allergic disorders such as allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, asthma, and allergies to foods, drugs, latex, and venom, both in the hospital and in the clinic.
Unfortunately, some symptoms, such as chronic nasal symptoms, can occur in both allergic and nonallergic disorders, and this overlap can confound the diagnosis and therapy. Studies suggest that when clinicians use the history and physical examination alone in evaluating possible allergic disease, the accuracy of their diagnoses rarely exceeds 50%.1
Blood tests are now available that measure immunoglobulin E (IgE) directed against specific antigens. These in vitro tests can be important tools in assessing a patient whose history suggests an allergic disease.2 However, neither allergy skin testing nor these blood tests are intended to be used for screening: they may be most useful as confirmatory diagnostic tests in cases in which the pretest clinical impression of allergic disease is high.
ALLERGY IS MEDIATED BY IgE
In susceptible people, IgE is produced by B cells in response to specific antigens such as foods, pollens, latex, and drugs. This antigen-specific (or allergen-specific) IgE circulates in the serum and binds to high-affinity IgE receptors on immune effector cells such as mast cells located throughout the body.
Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, IgE receptors cross-link and initiate downstream signaling events that trigger mast cell degranulation and an immediate allergic response—hence the term immediate (or Gell-Coombs type I) hypersensitivity.3
Common manifestations of type I hypersensitivity reactions include signs and symptoms that can be:
- Cutaneous (eg, acute urticaria, angioedema)
- Respiratory (eg, acute bronchospasm, rhinoconjunctivitis)
- Cardiovascular (eg, tachycardia, hypotension)
- Gastrointestinal (eg, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Generalized (eg, anaphylactic shock). By definition, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction that occurs on exposure to an allergen and involves acute respiratory distress, cardiovascular failure, or involvement of two or more organ systems.4
MOST IgE BLOOD TESTS ARE IMMUNOASSAYS
The blood tests for allergic disease are immunoassays that measure the level of IgE specific to a particular allergen. The tests can be used to evaluate sensitivity to various allergens, for example, to common inhalants such as dust mites and pollens and to foods, drugs, venom, and latex.
Types of immunoassays include enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs), fluorescent enzyme immunoassays (FEIAs), and radioallergosorbent assays (RASTs). At present, most commercial laboratories use one of three autoanalyzer systems to measure specific IgE:
- ImmunoCAP (Phadia AB, Uppsala, Sweden)
- Immulite (Siemens AG, Berlin, Germany)
- HYTEC-288 (Hycor/Agilent, Garden Grove, CA).
These systems use a solid-phase polymer (cellulose or avidin) in which the antigen is embedded. The polymer also facilitates binding of IgE and, therefore, increases the sensitivity of the test.5 Specific IgE from the patient’s serum binds to the allergen embedded in the polymer, and then unbound antibodies are washed off.
Despite the term “RAST,” these systems do not use radiation. A fluorescent antibody is added that binds to the patient’s IgE, and the amount of IgE present is calculated from the amount of fluorescence.6 Results are reported in kilounits of antibody per liter (kU/L) or nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).5–7
INTERPRETATION IS INDIVIDUALIZED
In general, the sensitivity of these tests ranges from 60% to 95% and their specificity from 30% to 95%, with a concordance among different immunoassays of 75% to 90%.8
Levels of IgE for a particular allergen are also divided into semiquantitative classes, from class I to class V or VI. In general, class I and class II correlate with a low level of allergen sensitization and, often, with a low likelihood of a clinical reaction. On the other hand, classes V and VI reflect higher degrees of sensitization and generally correlate with IgE-mediated clinical reactions upon allergen exposure.
The interpretation of a positive (ie, “nonzero”) test result must be individualized on the basis of clinical presentation and risk factors. A specialist can make an important contribution by helping to interpret any positive test result or a negative test result that does not correlate with the patient’s history.
ADVANTAGES OF ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
Allergy blood testing is convenient, since it involves only a standard blood draw.
In theory, allergy blood testing may be safer, since it does not expose the patient to any allergens. On the other hand, many patients experience bruising from venipuncture performed for any reason: 16% in one survey.9 In another survey,10 adverse reactions of any type occurred in 0.49% of patients undergoing venipuncture but only in 0.04% of those undergoing allergy skin testing. Therefore, allergy blood testing may be most appropriate in situations in which a patient’s history suggests that he or she may be at risk of a systemic reaction from a traditional skin test or in cases in which skin testing is not possible (eg, extensive eczema).
Another advantage of allergy blood testing is that it is not affected by drugs such as antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants that suppress the histamine response, which is a problem with skin testing.
Allergy blood testing may also be useful in patients on long-term glucocorticoid therapy, although the data conflict. Prolonged oral glucocorticoid use is associated with a decrease in mast cell density and histamine content in the skin,11,12 although in one study a corticosteroid was found not to affect the results of skin-prick testing for allergy.13 Thus, allergy blood testing can be performed in patients who have severe eczema or dermatographism or who cannot safely suspend taking antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants.
LIMITATIONS OF THESE TESTS
A limitation of allergy blood tests is that there is no gold-standard test for many allergic conditions. (Double-blind, placebo-controlled oral food challenge testing has been proposed as the gold-standard test for food allergy, and nasal allergen provocation challenge has been proposed for allergic rhinitis.)
Also, allergy blood tests can give false-positive results because of nonspecific binding of antibody in the assay.
Of note: evidence of sensitization to a particular allergen (ie, a positive blood test result) is not synonymous with clinically relevant disease (ie, clinical sensitivity).
Conversely, these tests can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. The sensitivity of blood allergy testing is approximately 25% to 30% lower than that of skin testing, based on comparative studies.2 The blood tests are usually considered positive if the allergen-specific IgE level is greater than 0.35 kU/L; however, sensitization to certain inhalant allergens can occur at levels as low as 0.12 kU/L.14
Specific IgE levels measured by different commercial assays are not always interchangeable or equivalent, so a clinician should consistently select the same immunoassay if possible when assessing any given patient over time.15
Levels of specific IgE have been shown to depend on age, allergen specificity, total serum IgE, and, with inhalant allergens, the season of the year.15,16
Other limitations of blood testing are its cost and a delay of several days to a week in obtaining the results.17
WHEN TO ORDER ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
The allergy evaluation should begin with a thorough history to look for possible triggers for the patient’s symptoms.
For example, respiratory conditions such as asthma and rhinitis may be exacerbated during particular times of the year when certain pollens are commonly present. For patients with this pattern, blood testing for allergy to common inhalants, including pollens, may be appropriate. Similarly, peanut allergy evaluation is indicated for a child who has suffered an anaphylactic reaction after consuming peanut butter. Blood testing is also indicated in patients with a history of venom anaphylaxis, especially if venom skin testing was negative.
In cases in which the patient does not have a clear history of sensitization, blood testing for allergy to multiple foods may find evidence of sensitization that does not necessarily correlate with clinical disease.18
Likewise, blood tests are not likely to be clinically relevant in conditions not mediated by IgE, such as food intolerances (eg, lactose intolerance), celiac disease, the DRESS syndrome (drug rash, eosinophilia, and systemic symptoms), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, or other types of drug hypersensitivity reactions, such as serum sickness.3
INTERPRETING COMMONLY ORDERED BLOOD TESTS FOR ALLERGY
Tests for allergy to hundreds of substances are available.
Foods
Milk, eggs, soy, wheat, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish account for most cases of food allergy in the United States.18
IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to milk, eggs, and peanuts tends to be more common in children, whereas peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish are more commonly associated with reactions in adults.18 Children are more likely to outgrow allergy to milk, soy, wheat, and eggs than allergy to peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish—only about 20% of children outgrow peanut allergy.18
Patients with an IgE-mediated reaction to foods should be closely followed by a specialist, who can best help determine the appropriateness of additional testing (such as an oral challenge under observation), avoidance recommendations, and the introduction of foods back into the diet.19
Specific IgE tests for allergy to a variety of foods are available and can be very useful for diagnosis when used in the appropriate setting.
One caveat about these studies is that many were initially performed in children with a history of food allergy, many of whom had atopic dermatitis, and the findings have not been systematically reexamined in larger studies in more heterogeneous populations.
For example, at least eight studies tried to identify a diagnostic IgE level for cow’s milk allergy. The 95% confidence intervals varied widely, depending on the study design, the age of the study population, the prevalence of food allergy in the population, and the statistical method used for analysis.5 For most other foods for which blood tests are available, few studies have been performed to establish predictive values similar to those in Table 1.
Thus, slight elevations in antigen-specific IgE (> 0.35 kU/L) may correlate only with in vitro sensitization in a patient who has no clinical reactivity upon oral exposure to a particular antigen.
Broad food panels have been shown to have false-positive rates higher than 50%—ie, in more than half of cases, positive results have no clinical relevance. Therefore, these large food panels should not be used for screening.19 Instead, it is recommended that tests be limited to relevant foods based on the patient’s history when evaluating symptoms consistent with an IgE-mediated reaction to a particular food.
Food-specific IgE evaluation is also not helpful in evaluating non-IgE adverse reactions to foods (eg, intolerances).
Therefore, the patient’s history remains the most important tool for evaluation of food allergy. In cases in which the patient’s history suggests a food-associated IgE-mediated reaction and the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to a specialist for skin testing with commercial extracts or even fresh food extracts, given the higher sensitivity of in vivo testing.20
Inhalants
Common aeroallergens associated with allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and allergic asthma include dust mites, animal dander, cockroach debris, molds, trees, grasses, weeds, and ragweed. Dust mites, animal dander, and mold spores are perennial allergens and may trigger symptoms year-round. Pollen, including pollen from trees, grasses, and weeds, is generally present in a seasonal pattern in many parts of the United States.
A positive blood test for an inhalant allergen can reinforce the physician’s clinical impression in making a diagnosis of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis. Interestingly, studies have suggested a high rate of false-positives based on history alone when in vivo and in vitro allergy testing were negative for IgE-mediated respiratory disease.21
Various studies have aimed to establish threshold values of aeroallergen-specific IgE that predict the likelihood of clinically relevant disease. Unfortunately, other factors also contribute to clinical symptoms of rhinoconjunctivitis; these include concurrent inflammation, infection, physical stress, psychological stress, exposure to irritants, and hormonal changes. These factors introduce variability and make specific IgE cutoffs for inhalant allergens unreliable.22
Prospective studies have suggested that skin testing correlates better with nasal allergen challenge (the gold standard) than blood testing for the diagnosis of inhalant allergy, though more recent studies using modern technologies demonstrate reasonable concordance (67%) between skin testing and blood testing (specifically, ImmunoCAP).23,24 According to current guidelines, skin tests are the preferred method for diagnosing IgE-mediated sensitivity to inhalants.25
Compared with skin prick tests as the gold standard, the sensitivity of specific IgE immunoassays is approximately 70% to 75%.25 Nevertheless, specific IgE values greater than 0.35 kU/L are generally considered positive for aeroallergen sensitization, although lower levels of dog-specific IgE have recently been shown to correlate with clinical disease.14
Drugs, including penicillins
A variety of clinical reactions can occur in response to oral, intravenous, or topical medications.
At present, blood tests are available for the evaluation of IgE-mediated adverse reactions to only a limited number of drugs. Reactions involving other mechanisms, such as those related to the drug’s metabolism, intolerances (eg, nausea), idiosyncratic reactions (eg, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, the DRESS syndrome), or other types of reactions can be diagnosed only by history and physical examination.
The development of specific IgE tests for sensitivity to medications has been limited by incomplete characterization of metabolic products and the possibility that a single medication can have different epitopes or IgE binding sites in different individuals.26
In vitro allergy testing has been most studied for beta-lactam antibiotics (eg, penicillin) and not so much for other drugs.
Table 2 summarizes the sensitivity and specificity of blood allergy tests that are commercially available for drugs.
Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is degraded into various metabolites known as the major determinant (penicilloyl) and the minor determinants (eg, benzylpenicilloate and benzylpenilloate), which act as haptens. Specific IgE testing is not available for all these determinants.
The sensitivity of blood tests for allergy to penicilloyl (penicillin) and amino-penicillins such as amoxicilloyl (amoxicillin) is reported as between 32% and 50%, and the specificity as 96% to 98%.29
By definition, any nonzero level of IgE specific for penicillin or its derivatives is considered a positive result and may be associated with a higher risk of IgE-mediated reaction to penicillins. However, in a situation analogous to that in people with food allergy who have a food-specific IgE titer lower than the empirically established threshold value (Table 1), low-titer values to penicillin may not predict anaphylactic sensitivity in a penicillin oral challenge.28 Further studies are needed to determine if there is a threshold level of penicillin-specific IgE above which a patient has a higher likelihood of an IgE-mediated systemic reaction.
Other drugs. Specific IgE blood tests are also available for certain neuromuscular agents, insulin, cefaclor (Ceclor), chlorhexidine (contained in various antiseptic products), and gelatin (Table 2). These substances have not been as well studied as penicillins, and the sensitivity and specificity data reported in Table 2 are limited by few studies and small study sizes.
Neuromuscular blocking agents. Tests for IgE against neuromuscular blocking agents are reported to have low sensitivity (30%–60%) using a cutoff value of 0.35 kU/L.30 In small studies, the sensitivity was higher (68% to 92%) when threshold values for rocuronium-specific IgE were lowered from 0.35 to 0.13 kU/L.29
Chlorhexidine, an antiseptic commonly used in surgery, has been linked to IgE-mediated reactions.31 Chlorhexidine-specific IgE levels greater than 0.35 kU/L are considered positive, based on very limited data.
Insulin. Blood tests for allergy to insulin are also commercially available. However, studies have shown a significant overlap in the range of insulin-specific IgE in patients with a clinical history consistent with insulin allergy and in controls. Therefore, this test has a very limited ability to distinguish people who do not have a history of a reaction to insulin.32 More research is needed to determine the clinical utility of insulin-specific IgE testing.
Gelatin. IgE-mediated reactions have occurred after exposure to gelatin (from either cows or pigs) contained in foods and vaccines, including measles-mumps-rubella and yellow fever. One study identified gelatin-specific IgE in 10 of 11 children with a history of systemic reaction to measles or mumps vaccine.33 In the same study, gelatin-specific IgE levels were negative in 24 children who had developed non-IgE-mediated reactions to the vaccine.33
Tests for IgE against bovine gelatin are commercially available; results are considered positive for values higher than 0.35 kU/L. A negative test result does not exclude the possibility of an allergic reaction to porcine gelatin, which can also be found in foods and vaccines, but tests for anti-porcine gelatin IgE are not commercially available.
Latex
Latex, obtained from the rubber tree Hevea brasiliensis, has 13 known polypeptides (allergens Hev b 1–13) that cause IgE-mediated reactions, particularly in health care workers and patients with spina bifida.34 Overall, the incidence of latex allergy has decreased in the United States as most medical institutions have implemented a latex-free environment.
In vitro testing is the only mode of evaluation for allergy to latex approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA).35 Its sensitivity is 80% and its specificity is 95%.36
In a 2007 study, 145 people at risk for latex allergy, including 104 health care workers, 31 patients with spina bifida, and 10 patients requiring multiple surgeries, underwent latex-specific IgE analysis for sensitivity to various recombinant and native latex allergens.34 The three groups differed in their latex allergy profiles, highlighting the diversity of clinical response to latex in high-risk groups and our current inability to establish specific cutoff points for quantitative latex-specific IgE. Thus, at present, any nonzero latex-specific IgE value is considered positive.
A formal evaluation for allergy is recommended for patients who have a strong history of an IgE-mediated reaction to latex and a latex-specific IgE value of zero. Blood tests for allergy to some native or recombinant latex allergens are available; these allergens may be underrepresented in the native total latex extract.33 Skin testing for allergy to latex, although not FDA-approved or standardized, can also be useful in this setting.37
Insect venom
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can occur from the stings of Vespidae (vespids), Apidae (bees), and Formicidae (fire ants). Large localized reactions after an insect sting are not infrequent and typically do not predict anaphylactic sensitivity with future stings, even though they are considered mild IgE-mediated reactions. However, systemic reactions are considered life-threatening and warrant allergy testing.38
The level of venom-specific IgE usually increases weeks to months after a sting.39 Therefore, blood tests can be falsely negative if performed within a short time of the sting.
Patients who have suffered a systemic reaction to venom and have evidence of sensitization by either in vitro or in vivo allergy testing are candidates for venom immunotherapy.40
At present, any nonzero venom-specific IgE test is considered positive, as there is no specific value for venom-specific IgE that predicts clinical risk.
A negative blood test does not exclude the possibility of an IgE-mediated reaction.41 In cases in which a patient has a clinical history compatible with venom allergy but the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to an allergist for further evaluation, including venom skin testing and possibly repeat blood testing at a later time.
Conversely, specific IgE testing to venom is recommended when a patient has a history consistent with venom allergy and negative skin test results.38
As mentioned previously, in vitro test performance can vary with the laboratory and testing method used, and sending samples directly to a reference laboratory could be considered.41
TESTING FOR IgG AGAINST FOODS IS UNVALIDATED AND INAPPROPRIATE
In recent years, some practitioners of alternative medicine have started testing for allergen-specific IgG or IgG4 as part of evaluations for hypersensitivity, especially in cases in which patients describe atypical gastrointestinal, neurologic, or other symptoms after eating specific foods.19
However, this testing often finds IgG or IgG4 against foods that are well tolerated. At present, allergen-specific IgG testing lacks scientific evidence to support its clinical use in the evaluation of allergic disease.5,19
- Williams PB, Ahlstedt S, Barnes JH, Söderström L, Portnoy J. Are our impressions of allergy test performances correct? Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2003; 91:26–33.
- Bernstein IL, Li JT, Bernstein DI, et al; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Allergy diagnostic testing: an updated practice parameter. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 100(suppl 3):S1–S148.
- Pichler WJ. Immune mechanism of drug hypersensitivity. Immunol Allergy Clin North Am 2004; 24:373–397.
- Lieberman P, Nicklas RA, Oppenheimer J, et al. The diagnosis and management of anaphylaxis practice parameter: 2010 update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:477–480.
- Hamilton RG. Clinical laboratory assessment of immediate-type hypersensitivity. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 125(suppl 2):S284–S296.
- Cox L, Williams B, Sicherer S, et al; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Test Task Force; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Pearls and pitfalls of allergy diagnostic testing: report from the American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology/American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 101:580–592.
- Hamilton RG, Franklin Adkinson N. In vitro assays for the diagnosis of IgE-mediated disorders. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:213–225.
- Williams PB, Dolen WK, Koepke JW, Selner JC. Comparison of skin testing and three in vitro assays for specific IgE in the clinical evaluation of immediate hypersensitivity. Ann Allergy 1992; 68:35–45.
- Howanitz PJ, Cembrowski GS, Bachner P. Laboratory phlebotomy. College of American Pathologists Q-Probe study of patient satisfaction and complications in 23,783 patients. Arch Pathol Lab Med 1991; 115:867–872.
- Turkeltaub PC, Gergen PJ. The risk of adverse reactions from percutaneous prick-puncture allergen skin testing, venipuncture, and body measurements: data from the second National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 1976–80 (NHANES II). J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 84:886–890.
- Pipkorn U, Hammarlund A, Enerbäck L. Prolonged treatment with topical glucocorticoids results in an inhibition of the allergen-induced weal-and-flare response and a reduction in skin mast cell numbers and histamine content. Clin Exp Allergy 1989; 19:19–25.
- Cole ZA, Clough GF, Church MK. Inhibition by glucocorticoids of the mast cell-dependent weal and flare response in human skin in vivo. Br J Pharmacol 2001; 132:286–292.
- Des Roches A, Paradis L, Bougeard YH, Godard P, Bousquet J, Chanez P. Long-term oral corticosteroid therapy does not alter the results of immediate-type allergy skin prick tests. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1996; 98:522–527.
- Linden CC, Misiak RT, Wegienka G, et al. Analysis of allergen specific IgE cut points to cat and dog in the Childhood Allergy Study. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2011; 106:153–158.
- Hamilton RG, Williams PB; Specific IgE Testing Task Force of the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma & Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Human IgE antibody serology: a primer for the practicing North American allergist/immunologist. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:33–38.
- Somville MA, Machiels J, Gilles JG, Saint-Remy JM. Seasonal variation in specific IgE antibodies of grass-pollen hypersensitive patients depends on the steady state IgE concentration and is not related to clinical symptoms. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 83( 2 Pt 1):486–494.
- Poon AW, Goodman CS, Rubin RJ. In vitro and skin testing for allergy: comparable clinical utility and costs. Am J Manag Care 1998; 4:969–985.
- Sampson HA. Update on food allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 113:805–819.
- Boyce JA, Assa’ad A, Burks AW, et al; NIAID-Sponsored Expert Panel. Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of food allergy in the United States: summary of the NIAID-sponsored expert panel report. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:1105–1118.
- Rosen JP, Selcow JE, Mendelson LM, Grodofsky MP, Factor JM, Sampson HA. Skin testing with natural foods in patients suspected of having food allergies: is it a necessity? J Allergy Clin Immunol 1994; 93:1068–1070.
- Williams PB, Siegel C, Portnoy J. Efficacy of a single diagnostic test for sensitization to common inhalant allergens. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2001; 86:196–202.
- Söderström L, Kober A, Ahlstedt S, et al. A further evaluation of the clinical use of specific IgE antibody testing in allergic diseases. Allergy 2003; 58:921–928.
- Bousquet J, Lebel B, Dhivert H, Bataille Y, Martinot B, Michel FB. Nasal challenge with pollen grains, skin-prick tests and specific IgE in patients with grass pollen allergy. Clin Allergy 1987; 17:529–536.
- Nepper-Christensen S, Backer V, DuBuske LM, Nolte H. In vitro diagnostic evaluation of patients with inhalant allergies: summary of probability outcomes comparing results of CLA- and CAP-specific immunoglobulin E test systems. Allergy Asthma Proc 2003; 24:253–258.
- Wallace DV, Dykewicz MS, Bernstein DI, et al; Joint Task Force on Practice; American Academy of Allergy; Asthma & Immunology; Joint Council of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. The diagnosis and management of rhinitis: an updated practice parameter. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2008; 122(suppl 2):S1–S84.
- Mayorga C, Sanz ML, Gamboa PM, et al; Immunology Committee of the Spanish Society of Allergology and Clinical Immunology of the SEAIC. In vitro diagnosis of immediate allergic reactions to drugs: an update. J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol 2010; 20:103–109.
- Garcia JJ, Blanca M, Moreno F, et al. Determination of IgE antibodies to the benzylpenicilloyl determinant: a comparison of the sensitivity and specificity of three radio allergo sorbent test methods. J Clin Lab Anal 1997; 11:251–257.
- Macy E, Goldberg B, Poon KY. Use of commercial anti-penicillin IgE fluorometric enzyme immunoassays to diagnose penicillin allergy. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2010; 105:136–141.
- Blanca M, Mayorga C, Torres MJ, et al. Clinical evaluation of Pharmacia CAP System RAST FEIA amoxicilloyl and benzylpenicilloyl in patients with penicillin allergy. Allergy 2001; 56:862–870.
- Ebo DG, Venemalm L, Bridts CH, et al. Immunoglobulin E antibodies to rocuronium: a new diagnostic tool. Anesthesiology 2007; 107:253–259.
- Ebo DG, Bridts CH, Stevens WJ. IgE-mediated anaphylaxis from chlorhexidine: diagnostic possibilities. Contact Dermatitis 2006; 55:301–302.
- deShazo RD, Mather P, Grant W, et al. Evaluation of patients with local reactions to insulin with skin tests and in vitro techniques. Diabetes Care 1987; 10:330–336.
- Sakaguchi M, Ogura H, Inouye S. IgE antibody to gelatin in children with immediate-type reactions to measles and mumps vaccines. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1995; 96:563–565.
- Raulf-Heimsoth M, Rihs HP, Rozynek P, et al. Quantitative analysis of immunoglobulin E reactivity profiles in patients allergic or sensitized to natural rubber latex (Hevea brasiliensis). Clin Exp Allergy 2007; 37:1657–1667.
- Biagini RE, MacKenzie BA, Sammons DL, et al. Latex specific IgE: performance characteristics of the IMMULITE 2000 3gAllergy assay compared with skin testing. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2006; 97:196–202.
- Hamilton RG, Peterson EL, Ownby DR. Clinical and laboratory-based methods in the diagnosis of natural rubber latex allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2002; 110(suppl 2):S47–S56.
- Safadi GS, Corey EC, Taylor JS, Wagner WO, Pien LC, Melton AL. Latex hypersensitivity in emergency medical service providers. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 1996; 77:39–42.
- Moffitt JE, Golden DB, Reisman RE, et al. Stinging insect hypersensitivity: a practice parameter update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:869–886.
- Biló BM, Rueff F, Mosbech H, Bonifazi F, Oude-Elberink JN; EAACI Interest Group on Insect Venom Hypersensitivity. Diagnosis of Hymenoptera venom allergy. Allergy 2005; 60:1339–1349.
- Cox L, Nelson H, Lockey R, et al. Allergen immunotherapy: a practice parameter third update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2011; 127(suppl 1):S1–S55.
- Golden DB, Kagey-Sobotka A, Norman PS, Hamilton RG, Lichtenstein LM. Insect sting allergy with negative venom skin test responses. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2001; 107:897–901.
Health care providers often need to evaluate allergic disorders such as allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, asthma, and allergies to foods, drugs, latex, and venom, both in the hospital and in the clinic.
Unfortunately, some symptoms, such as chronic nasal symptoms, can occur in both allergic and nonallergic disorders, and this overlap can confound the diagnosis and therapy. Studies suggest that when clinicians use the history and physical examination alone in evaluating possible allergic disease, the accuracy of their diagnoses rarely exceeds 50%.1
Blood tests are now available that measure immunoglobulin E (IgE) directed against specific antigens. These in vitro tests can be important tools in assessing a patient whose history suggests an allergic disease.2 However, neither allergy skin testing nor these blood tests are intended to be used for screening: they may be most useful as confirmatory diagnostic tests in cases in which the pretest clinical impression of allergic disease is high.
ALLERGY IS MEDIATED BY IgE
In susceptible people, IgE is produced by B cells in response to specific antigens such as foods, pollens, latex, and drugs. This antigen-specific (or allergen-specific) IgE circulates in the serum and binds to high-affinity IgE receptors on immune effector cells such as mast cells located throughout the body.
Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, IgE receptors cross-link and initiate downstream signaling events that trigger mast cell degranulation and an immediate allergic response—hence the term immediate (or Gell-Coombs type I) hypersensitivity.3
Common manifestations of type I hypersensitivity reactions include signs and symptoms that can be:
- Cutaneous (eg, acute urticaria, angioedema)
- Respiratory (eg, acute bronchospasm, rhinoconjunctivitis)
- Cardiovascular (eg, tachycardia, hypotension)
- Gastrointestinal (eg, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Generalized (eg, anaphylactic shock). By definition, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction that occurs on exposure to an allergen and involves acute respiratory distress, cardiovascular failure, or involvement of two or more organ systems.4
MOST IgE BLOOD TESTS ARE IMMUNOASSAYS
The blood tests for allergic disease are immunoassays that measure the level of IgE specific to a particular allergen. The tests can be used to evaluate sensitivity to various allergens, for example, to common inhalants such as dust mites and pollens and to foods, drugs, venom, and latex.
Types of immunoassays include enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs), fluorescent enzyme immunoassays (FEIAs), and radioallergosorbent assays (RASTs). At present, most commercial laboratories use one of three autoanalyzer systems to measure specific IgE:
- ImmunoCAP (Phadia AB, Uppsala, Sweden)
- Immulite (Siemens AG, Berlin, Germany)
- HYTEC-288 (Hycor/Agilent, Garden Grove, CA).
These systems use a solid-phase polymer (cellulose or avidin) in which the antigen is embedded. The polymer also facilitates binding of IgE and, therefore, increases the sensitivity of the test.5 Specific IgE from the patient’s serum binds to the allergen embedded in the polymer, and then unbound antibodies are washed off.
Despite the term “RAST,” these systems do not use radiation. A fluorescent antibody is added that binds to the patient’s IgE, and the amount of IgE present is calculated from the amount of fluorescence.6 Results are reported in kilounits of antibody per liter (kU/L) or nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).5–7
INTERPRETATION IS INDIVIDUALIZED
In general, the sensitivity of these tests ranges from 60% to 95% and their specificity from 30% to 95%, with a concordance among different immunoassays of 75% to 90%.8
Levels of IgE for a particular allergen are also divided into semiquantitative classes, from class I to class V or VI. In general, class I and class II correlate with a low level of allergen sensitization and, often, with a low likelihood of a clinical reaction. On the other hand, classes V and VI reflect higher degrees of sensitization and generally correlate with IgE-mediated clinical reactions upon allergen exposure.
The interpretation of a positive (ie, “nonzero”) test result must be individualized on the basis of clinical presentation and risk factors. A specialist can make an important contribution by helping to interpret any positive test result or a negative test result that does not correlate with the patient’s history.
ADVANTAGES OF ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
Allergy blood testing is convenient, since it involves only a standard blood draw.
In theory, allergy blood testing may be safer, since it does not expose the patient to any allergens. On the other hand, many patients experience bruising from venipuncture performed for any reason: 16% in one survey.9 In another survey,10 adverse reactions of any type occurred in 0.49% of patients undergoing venipuncture but only in 0.04% of those undergoing allergy skin testing. Therefore, allergy blood testing may be most appropriate in situations in which a patient’s history suggests that he or she may be at risk of a systemic reaction from a traditional skin test or in cases in which skin testing is not possible (eg, extensive eczema).
Another advantage of allergy blood testing is that it is not affected by drugs such as antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants that suppress the histamine response, which is a problem with skin testing.
Allergy blood testing may also be useful in patients on long-term glucocorticoid therapy, although the data conflict. Prolonged oral glucocorticoid use is associated with a decrease in mast cell density and histamine content in the skin,11,12 although in one study a corticosteroid was found not to affect the results of skin-prick testing for allergy.13 Thus, allergy blood testing can be performed in patients who have severe eczema or dermatographism or who cannot safely suspend taking antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants.
LIMITATIONS OF THESE TESTS
A limitation of allergy blood tests is that there is no gold-standard test for many allergic conditions. (Double-blind, placebo-controlled oral food challenge testing has been proposed as the gold-standard test for food allergy, and nasal allergen provocation challenge has been proposed for allergic rhinitis.)
Also, allergy blood tests can give false-positive results because of nonspecific binding of antibody in the assay.
Of note: evidence of sensitization to a particular allergen (ie, a positive blood test result) is not synonymous with clinically relevant disease (ie, clinical sensitivity).
Conversely, these tests can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. The sensitivity of blood allergy testing is approximately 25% to 30% lower than that of skin testing, based on comparative studies.2 The blood tests are usually considered positive if the allergen-specific IgE level is greater than 0.35 kU/L; however, sensitization to certain inhalant allergens can occur at levels as low as 0.12 kU/L.14
Specific IgE levels measured by different commercial assays are not always interchangeable or equivalent, so a clinician should consistently select the same immunoassay if possible when assessing any given patient over time.15
Levels of specific IgE have been shown to depend on age, allergen specificity, total serum IgE, and, with inhalant allergens, the season of the year.15,16
Other limitations of blood testing are its cost and a delay of several days to a week in obtaining the results.17
WHEN TO ORDER ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
The allergy evaluation should begin with a thorough history to look for possible triggers for the patient’s symptoms.
For example, respiratory conditions such as asthma and rhinitis may be exacerbated during particular times of the year when certain pollens are commonly present. For patients with this pattern, blood testing for allergy to common inhalants, including pollens, may be appropriate. Similarly, peanut allergy evaluation is indicated for a child who has suffered an anaphylactic reaction after consuming peanut butter. Blood testing is also indicated in patients with a history of venom anaphylaxis, especially if venom skin testing was negative.
In cases in which the patient does not have a clear history of sensitization, blood testing for allergy to multiple foods may find evidence of sensitization that does not necessarily correlate with clinical disease.18
Likewise, blood tests are not likely to be clinically relevant in conditions not mediated by IgE, such as food intolerances (eg, lactose intolerance), celiac disease, the DRESS syndrome (drug rash, eosinophilia, and systemic symptoms), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, or other types of drug hypersensitivity reactions, such as serum sickness.3
INTERPRETING COMMONLY ORDERED BLOOD TESTS FOR ALLERGY
Tests for allergy to hundreds of substances are available.
Foods
Milk, eggs, soy, wheat, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish account for most cases of food allergy in the United States.18
IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to milk, eggs, and peanuts tends to be more common in children, whereas peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish are more commonly associated with reactions in adults.18 Children are more likely to outgrow allergy to milk, soy, wheat, and eggs than allergy to peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish—only about 20% of children outgrow peanut allergy.18
Patients with an IgE-mediated reaction to foods should be closely followed by a specialist, who can best help determine the appropriateness of additional testing (such as an oral challenge under observation), avoidance recommendations, and the introduction of foods back into the diet.19
Specific IgE tests for allergy to a variety of foods are available and can be very useful for diagnosis when used in the appropriate setting.
One caveat about these studies is that many were initially performed in children with a history of food allergy, many of whom had atopic dermatitis, and the findings have not been systematically reexamined in larger studies in more heterogeneous populations.
For example, at least eight studies tried to identify a diagnostic IgE level for cow’s milk allergy. The 95% confidence intervals varied widely, depending on the study design, the age of the study population, the prevalence of food allergy in the population, and the statistical method used for analysis.5 For most other foods for which blood tests are available, few studies have been performed to establish predictive values similar to those in Table 1.
Thus, slight elevations in antigen-specific IgE (> 0.35 kU/L) may correlate only with in vitro sensitization in a patient who has no clinical reactivity upon oral exposure to a particular antigen.
Broad food panels have been shown to have false-positive rates higher than 50%—ie, in more than half of cases, positive results have no clinical relevance. Therefore, these large food panels should not be used for screening.19 Instead, it is recommended that tests be limited to relevant foods based on the patient’s history when evaluating symptoms consistent with an IgE-mediated reaction to a particular food.
Food-specific IgE evaluation is also not helpful in evaluating non-IgE adverse reactions to foods (eg, intolerances).
Therefore, the patient’s history remains the most important tool for evaluation of food allergy. In cases in which the patient’s history suggests a food-associated IgE-mediated reaction and the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to a specialist for skin testing with commercial extracts or even fresh food extracts, given the higher sensitivity of in vivo testing.20
Inhalants
Common aeroallergens associated with allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and allergic asthma include dust mites, animal dander, cockroach debris, molds, trees, grasses, weeds, and ragweed. Dust mites, animal dander, and mold spores are perennial allergens and may trigger symptoms year-round. Pollen, including pollen from trees, grasses, and weeds, is generally present in a seasonal pattern in many parts of the United States.
A positive blood test for an inhalant allergen can reinforce the physician’s clinical impression in making a diagnosis of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis. Interestingly, studies have suggested a high rate of false-positives based on history alone when in vivo and in vitro allergy testing were negative for IgE-mediated respiratory disease.21
Various studies have aimed to establish threshold values of aeroallergen-specific IgE that predict the likelihood of clinically relevant disease. Unfortunately, other factors also contribute to clinical symptoms of rhinoconjunctivitis; these include concurrent inflammation, infection, physical stress, psychological stress, exposure to irritants, and hormonal changes. These factors introduce variability and make specific IgE cutoffs for inhalant allergens unreliable.22
Prospective studies have suggested that skin testing correlates better with nasal allergen challenge (the gold standard) than blood testing for the diagnosis of inhalant allergy, though more recent studies using modern technologies demonstrate reasonable concordance (67%) between skin testing and blood testing (specifically, ImmunoCAP).23,24 According to current guidelines, skin tests are the preferred method for diagnosing IgE-mediated sensitivity to inhalants.25
Compared with skin prick tests as the gold standard, the sensitivity of specific IgE immunoassays is approximately 70% to 75%.25 Nevertheless, specific IgE values greater than 0.35 kU/L are generally considered positive for aeroallergen sensitization, although lower levels of dog-specific IgE have recently been shown to correlate with clinical disease.14
Drugs, including penicillins
A variety of clinical reactions can occur in response to oral, intravenous, or topical medications.
At present, blood tests are available for the evaluation of IgE-mediated adverse reactions to only a limited number of drugs. Reactions involving other mechanisms, such as those related to the drug’s metabolism, intolerances (eg, nausea), idiosyncratic reactions (eg, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, the DRESS syndrome), or other types of reactions can be diagnosed only by history and physical examination.
The development of specific IgE tests for sensitivity to medications has been limited by incomplete characterization of metabolic products and the possibility that a single medication can have different epitopes or IgE binding sites in different individuals.26
In vitro allergy testing has been most studied for beta-lactam antibiotics (eg, penicillin) and not so much for other drugs.
Table 2 summarizes the sensitivity and specificity of blood allergy tests that are commercially available for drugs.
Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is degraded into various metabolites known as the major determinant (penicilloyl) and the minor determinants (eg, benzylpenicilloate and benzylpenilloate), which act as haptens. Specific IgE testing is not available for all these determinants.
The sensitivity of blood tests for allergy to penicilloyl (penicillin) and amino-penicillins such as amoxicilloyl (amoxicillin) is reported as between 32% and 50%, and the specificity as 96% to 98%.29
By definition, any nonzero level of IgE specific for penicillin or its derivatives is considered a positive result and may be associated with a higher risk of IgE-mediated reaction to penicillins. However, in a situation analogous to that in people with food allergy who have a food-specific IgE titer lower than the empirically established threshold value (Table 1), low-titer values to penicillin may not predict anaphylactic sensitivity in a penicillin oral challenge.28 Further studies are needed to determine if there is a threshold level of penicillin-specific IgE above which a patient has a higher likelihood of an IgE-mediated systemic reaction.
Other drugs. Specific IgE blood tests are also available for certain neuromuscular agents, insulin, cefaclor (Ceclor), chlorhexidine (contained in various antiseptic products), and gelatin (Table 2). These substances have not been as well studied as penicillins, and the sensitivity and specificity data reported in Table 2 are limited by few studies and small study sizes.
Neuromuscular blocking agents. Tests for IgE against neuromuscular blocking agents are reported to have low sensitivity (30%–60%) using a cutoff value of 0.35 kU/L.30 In small studies, the sensitivity was higher (68% to 92%) when threshold values for rocuronium-specific IgE were lowered from 0.35 to 0.13 kU/L.29
Chlorhexidine, an antiseptic commonly used in surgery, has been linked to IgE-mediated reactions.31 Chlorhexidine-specific IgE levels greater than 0.35 kU/L are considered positive, based on very limited data.
Insulin. Blood tests for allergy to insulin are also commercially available. However, studies have shown a significant overlap in the range of insulin-specific IgE in patients with a clinical history consistent with insulin allergy and in controls. Therefore, this test has a very limited ability to distinguish people who do not have a history of a reaction to insulin.32 More research is needed to determine the clinical utility of insulin-specific IgE testing.
Gelatin. IgE-mediated reactions have occurred after exposure to gelatin (from either cows or pigs) contained in foods and vaccines, including measles-mumps-rubella and yellow fever. One study identified gelatin-specific IgE in 10 of 11 children with a history of systemic reaction to measles or mumps vaccine.33 In the same study, gelatin-specific IgE levels were negative in 24 children who had developed non-IgE-mediated reactions to the vaccine.33
Tests for IgE against bovine gelatin are commercially available; results are considered positive for values higher than 0.35 kU/L. A negative test result does not exclude the possibility of an allergic reaction to porcine gelatin, which can also be found in foods and vaccines, but tests for anti-porcine gelatin IgE are not commercially available.
Latex
Latex, obtained from the rubber tree Hevea brasiliensis, has 13 known polypeptides (allergens Hev b 1–13) that cause IgE-mediated reactions, particularly in health care workers and patients with spina bifida.34 Overall, the incidence of latex allergy has decreased in the United States as most medical institutions have implemented a latex-free environment.
In vitro testing is the only mode of evaluation for allergy to latex approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA).35 Its sensitivity is 80% and its specificity is 95%.36
In a 2007 study, 145 people at risk for latex allergy, including 104 health care workers, 31 patients with spina bifida, and 10 patients requiring multiple surgeries, underwent latex-specific IgE analysis for sensitivity to various recombinant and native latex allergens.34 The three groups differed in their latex allergy profiles, highlighting the diversity of clinical response to latex in high-risk groups and our current inability to establish specific cutoff points for quantitative latex-specific IgE. Thus, at present, any nonzero latex-specific IgE value is considered positive.
A formal evaluation for allergy is recommended for patients who have a strong history of an IgE-mediated reaction to latex and a latex-specific IgE value of zero. Blood tests for allergy to some native or recombinant latex allergens are available; these allergens may be underrepresented in the native total latex extract.33 Skin testing for allergy to latex, although not FDA-approved or standardized, can also be useful in this setting.37
Insect venom
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can occur from the stings of Vespidae (vespids), Apidae (bees), and Formicidae (fire ants). Large localized reactions after an insect sting are not infrequent and typically do not predict anaphylactic sensitivity with future stings, even though they are considered mild IgE-mediated reactions. However, systemic reactions are considered life-threatening and warrant allergy testing.38
The level of venom-specific IgE usually increases weeks to months after a sting.39 Therefore, blood tests can be falsely negative if performed within a short time of the sting.
Patients who have suffered a systemic reaction to venom and have evidence of sensitization by either in vitro or in vivo allergy testing are candidates for venom immunotherapy.40
At present, any nonzero venom-specific IgE test is considered positive, as there is no specific value for venom-specific IgE that predicts clinical risk.
A negative blood test does not exclude the possibility of an IgE-mediated reaction.41 In cases in which a patient has a clinical history compatible with venom allergy but the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to an allergist for further evaluation, including venom skin testing and possibly repeat blood testing at a later time.
Conversely, specific IgE testing to venom is recommended when a patient has a history consistent with venom allergy and negative skin test results.38
As mentioned previously, in vitro test performance can vary with the laboratory and testing method used, and sending samples directly to a reference laboratory could be considered.41
TESTING FOR IgG AGAINST FOODS IS UNVALIDATED AND INAPPROPRIATE
In recent years, some practitioners of alternative medicine have started testing for allergen-specific IgG or IgG4 as part of evaluations for hypersensitivity, especially in cases in which patients describe atypical gastrointestinal, neurologic, or other symptoms after eating specific foods.19
However, this testing often finds IgG or IgG4 against foods that are well tolerated. At present, allergen-specific IgG testing lacks scientific evidence to support its clinical use in the evaluation of allergic disease.5,19
Health care providers often need to evaluate allergic disorders such as allergic rhinoconjunctivitis, asthma, and allergies to foods, drugs, latex, and venom, both in the hospital and in the clinic.
Unfortunately, some symptoms, such as chronic nasal symptoms, can occur in both allergic and nonallergic disorders, and this overlap can confound the diagnosis and therapy. Studies suggest that when clinicians use the history and physical examination alone in evaluating possible allergic disease, the accuracy of their diagnoses rarely exceeds 50%.1
Blood tests are now available that measure immunoglobulin E (IgE) directed against specific antigens. These in vitro tests can be important tools in assessing a patient whose history suggests an allergic disease.2 However, neither allergy skin testing nor these blood tests are intended to be used for screening: they may be most useful as confirmatory diagnostic tests in cases in which the pretest clinical impression of allergic disease is high.
ALLERGY IS MEDIATED BY IgE
In susceptible people, IgE is produced by B cells in response to specific antigens such as foods, pollens, latex, and drugs. This antigen-specific (or allergen-specific) IgE circulates in the serum and binds to high-affinity IgE receptors on immune effector cells such as mast cells located throughout the body.
Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, IgE receptors cross-link and initiate downstream signaling events that trigger mast cell degranulation and an immediate allergic response—hence the term immediate (or Gell-Coombs type I) hypersensitivity.3
Common manifestations of type I hypersensitivity reactions include signs and symptoms that can be:
- Cutaneous (eg, acute urticaria, angioedema)
- Respiratory (eg, acute bronchospasm, rhinoconjunctivitis)
- Cardiovascular (eg, tachycardia, hypotension)
- Gastrointestinal (eg, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Generalized (eg, anaphylactic shock). By definition, anaphylaxis is a life-threatening reaction that occurs on exposure to an allergen and involves acute respiratory distress, cardiovascular failure, or involvement of two or more organ systems.4
MOST IgE BLOOD TESTS ARE IMMUNOASSAYS
The blood tests for allergic disease are immunoassays that measure the level of IgE specific to a particular allergen. The tests can be used to evaluate sensitivity to various allergens, for example, to common inhalants such as dust mites and pollens and to foods, drugs, venom, and latex.
Types of immunoassays include enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs), fluorescent enzyme immunoassays (FEIAs), and radioallergosorbent assays (RASTs). At present, most commercial laboratories use one of three autoanalyzer systems to measure specific IgE:
- ImmunoCAP (Phadia AB, Uppsala, Sweden)
- Immulite (Siemens AG, Berlin, Germany)
- HYTEC-288 (Hycor/Agilent, Garden Grove, CA).
These systems use a solid-phase polymer (cellulose or avidin) in which the antigen is embedded. The polymer also facilitates binding of IgE and, therefore, increases the sensitivity of the test.5 Specific IgE from the patient’s serum binds to the allergen embedded in the polymer, and then unbound antibodies are washed off.
Despite the term “RAST,” these systems do not use radiation. A fluorescent antibody is added that binds to the patient’s IgE, and the amount of IgE present is calculated from the amount of fluorescence.6 Results are reported in kilounits of antibody per liter (kU/L) or nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).5–7
INTERPRETATION IS INDIVIDUALIZED
In general, the sensitivity of these tests ranges from 60% to 95% and their specificity from 30% to 95%, with a concordance among different immunoassays of 75% to 90%.8
Levels of IgE for a particular allergen are also divided into semiquantitative classes, from class I to class V or VI. In general, class I and class II correlate with a low level of allergen sensitization and, often, with a low likelihood of a clinical reaction. On the other hand, classes V and VI reflect higher degrees of sensitization and generally correlate with IgE-mediated clinical reactions upon allergen exposure.
The interpretation of a positive (ie, “nonzero”) test result must be individualized on the basis of clinical presentation and risk factors. A specialist can make an important contribution by helping to interpret any positive test result or a negative test result that does not correlate with the patient’s history.
ADVANTAGES OF ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
Allergy blood testing is convenient, since it involves only a standard blood draw.
In theory, allergy blood testing may be safer, since it does not expose the patient to any allergens. On the other hand, many patients experience bruising from venipuncture performed for any reason: 16% in one survey.9 In another survey,10 adverse reactions of any type occurred in 0.49% of patients undergoing venipuncture but only in 0.04% of those undergoing allergy skin testing. Therefore, allergy blood testing may be most appropriate in situations in which a patient’s history suggests that he or she may be at risk of a systemic reaction from a traditional skin test or in cases in which skin testing is not possible (eg, extensive eczema).
Another advantage of allergy blood testing is that it is not affected by drugs such as antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants that suppress the histamine response, which is a problem with skin testing.
Allergy blood testing may also be useful in patients on long-term glucocorticoid therapy, although the data conflict. Prolonged oral glucocorticoid use is associated with a decrease in mast cell density and histamine content in the skin,11,12 although in one study a corticosteroid was found not to affect the results of skin-prick testing for allergy.13 Thus, allergy blood testing can be performed in patients who have severe eczema or dermatographism or who cannot safely suspend taking antihistamines or tricyclic antidepressants.
LIMITATIONS OF THESE TESTS
A limitation of allergy blood tests is that there is no gold-standard test for many allergic conditions. (Double-blind, placebo-controlled oral food challenge testing has been proposed as the gold-standard test for food allergy, and nasal allergen provocation challenge has been proposed for allergic rhinitis.)
Also, allergy blood tests can give false-positive results because of nonspecific binding of antibody in the assay.
Of note: evidence of sensitization to a particular allergen (ie, a positive blood test result) is not synonymous with clinically relevant disease (ie, clinical sensitivity).
Conversely, these tests can give false-negative results in patients who have true IgE-mediated disease as confirmed by skin testing or allergen challenge. The sensitivity of blood allergy testing is approximately 25% to 30% lower than that of skin testing, based on comparative studies.2 The blood tests are usually considered positive if the allergen-specific IgE level is greater than 0.35 kU/L; however, sensitization to certain inhalant allergens can occur at levels as low as 0.12 kU/L.14
Specific IgE levels measured by different commercial assays are not always interchangeable or equivalent, so a clinician should consistently select the same immunoassay if possible when assessing any given patient over time.15
Levels of specific IgE have been shown to depend on age, allergen specificity, total serum IgE, and, with inhalant allergens, the season of the year.15,16
Other limitations of blood testing are its cost and a delay of several days to a week in obtaining the results.17
WHEN TO ORDER ALLERGY BLOOD TESTING
The allergy evaluation should begin with a thorough history to look for possible triggers for the patient’s symptoms.
For example, respiratory conditions such as asthma and rhinitis may be exacerbated during particular times of the year when certain pollens are commonly present. For patients with this pattern, blood testing for allergy to common inhalants, including pollens, may be appropriate. Similarly, peanut allergy evaluation is indicated for a child who has suffered an anaphylactic reaction after consuming peanut butter. Blood testing is also indicated in patients with a history of venom anaphylaxis, especially if venom skin testing was negative.
In cases in which the patient does not have a clear history of sensitization, blood testing for allergy to multiple foods may find evidence of sensitization that does not necessarily correlate with clinical disease.18
Likewise, blood tests are not likely to be clinically relevant in conditions not mediated by IgE, such as food intolerances (eg, lactose intolerance), celiac disease, the DRESS syndrome (drug rash, eosinophilia, and systemic symptoms), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, or other types of drug hypersensitivity reactions, such as serum sickness.3
INTERPRETING COMMONLY ORDERED BLOOD TESTS FOR ALLERGY
Tests for allergy to hundreds of substances are available.
Foods
Milk, eggs, soy, wheat, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish account for most cases of food allergy in the United States.18
IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to milk, eggs, and peanuts tends to be more common in children, whereas peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish are more commonly associated with reactions in adults.18 Children are more likely to outgrow allergy to milk, soy, wheat, and eggs than allergy to peanuts, tree nuts, fish, and shellfish—only about 20% of children outgrow peanut allergy.18
Patients with an IgE-mediated reaction to foods should be closely followed by a specialist, who can best help determine the appropriateness of additional testing (such as an oral challenge under observation), avoidance recommendations, and the introduction of foods back into the diet.19
Specific IgE tests for allergy to a variety of foods are available and can be very useful for diagnosis when used in the appropriate setting.
One caveat about these studies is that many were initially performed in children with a history of food allergy, many of whom had atopic dermatitis, and the findings have not been systematically reexamined in larger studies in more heterogeneous populations.
For example, at least eight studies tried to identify a diagnostic IgE level for cow’s milk allergy. The 95% confidence intervals varied widely, depending on the study design, the age of the study population, the prevalence of food allergy in the population, and the statistical method used for analysis.5 For most other foods for which blood tests are available, few studies have been performed to establish predictive values similar to those in Table 1.
Thus, slight elevations in antigen-specific IgE (> 0.35 kU/L) may correlate only with in vitro sensitization in a patient who has no clinical reactivity upon oral exposure to a particular antigen.
Broad food panels have been shown to have false-positive rates higher than 50%—ie, in more than half of cases, positive results have no clinical relevance. Therefore, these large food panels should not be used for screening.19 Instead, it is recommended that tests be limited to relevant foods based on the patient’s history when evaluating symptoms consistent with an IgE-mediated reaction to a particular food.
Food-specific IgE evaluation is also not helpful in evaluating non-IgE adverse reactions to foods (eg, intolerances).
Therefore, the patient’s history remains the most important tool for evaluation of food allergy. In cases in which the patient’s history suggests a food-associated IgE-mediated reaction and the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to a specialist for skin testing with commercial extracts or even fresh food extracts, given the higher sensitivity of in vivo testing.20
Inhalants
Common aeroallergens associated with allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and allergic asthma include dust mites, animal dander, cockroach debris, molds, trees, grasses, weeds, and ragweed. Dust mites, animal dander, and mold spores are perennial allergens and may trigger symptoms year-round. Pollen, including pollen from trees, grasses, and weeds, is generally present in a seasonal pattern in many parts of the United States.
A positive blood test for an inhalant allergen can reinforce the physician’s clinical impression in making a diagnosis of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis. Interestingly, studies have suggested a high rate of false-positives based on history alone when in vivo and in vitro allergy testing were negative for IgE-mediated respiratory disease.21
Various studies have aimed to establish threshold values of aeroallergen-specific IgE that predict the likelihood of clinically relevant disease. Unfortunately, other factors also contribute to clinical symptoms of rhinoconjunctivitis; these include concurrent inflammation, infection, physical stress, psychological stress, exposure to irritants, and hormonal changes. These factors introduce variability and make specific IgE cutoffs for inhalant allergens unreliable.22
Prospective studies have suggested that skin testing correlates better with nasal allergen challenge (the gold standard) than blood testing for the diagnosis of inhalant allergy, though more recent studies using modern technologies demonstrate reasonable concordance (67%) between skin testing and blood testing (specifically, ImmunoCAP).23,24 According to current guidelines, skin tests are the preferred method for diagnosing IgE-mediated sensitivity to inhalants.25
Compared with skin prick tests as the gold standard, the sensitivity of specific IgE immunoassays is approximately 70% to 75%.25 Nevertheless, specific IgE values greater than 0.35 kU/L are generally considered positive for aeroallergen sensitization, although lower levels of dog-specific IgE have recently been shown to correlate with clinical disease.14
Drugs, including penicillins
A variety of clinical reactions can occur in response to oral, intravenous, or topical medications.
At present, blood tests are available for the evaluation of IgE-mediated adverse reactions to only a limited number of drugs. Reactions involving other mechanisms, such as those related to the drug’s metabolism, intolerances (eg, nausea), idiosyncratic reactions (eg, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, the DRESS syndrome), or other types of reactions can be diagnosed only by history and physical examination.
The development of specific IgE tests for sensitivity to medications has been limited by incomplete characterization of metabolic products and the possibility that a single medication can have different epitopes or IgE binding sites in different individuals.26
In vitro allergy testing has been most studied for beta-lactam antibiotics (eg, penicillin) and not so much for other drugs.
Table 2 summarizes the sensitivity and specificity of blood allergy tests that are commercially available for drugs.
Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is degraded into various metabolites known as the major determinant (penicilloyl) and the minor determinants (eg, benzylpenicilloate and benzylpenilloate), which act as haptens. Specific IgE testing is not available for all these determinants.
The sensitivity of blood tests for allergy to penicilloyl (penicillin) and amino-penicillins such as amoxicilloyl (amoxicillin) is reported as between 32% and 50%, and the specificity as 96% to 98%.29
By definition, any nonzero level of IgE specific for penicillin or its derivatives is considered a positive result and may be associated with a higher risk of IgE-mediated reaction to penicillins. However, in a situation analogous to that in people with food allergy who have a food-specific IgE titer lower than the empirically established threshold value (Table 1), low-titer values to penicillin may not predict anaphylactic sensitivity in a penicillin oral challenge.28 Further studies are needed to determine if there is a threshold level of penicillin-specific IgE above which a patient has a higher likelihood of an IgE-mediated systemic reaction.
Other drugs. Specific IgE blood tests are also available for certain neuromuscular agents, insulin, cefaclor (Ceclor), chlorhexidine (contained in various antiseptic products), and gelatin (Table 2). These substances have not been as well studied as penicillins, and the sensitivity and specificity data reported in Table 2 are limited by few studies and small study sizes.
Neuromuscular blocking agents. Tests for IgE against neuromuscular blocking agents are reported to have low sensitivity (30%–60%) using a cutoff value of 0.35 kU/L.30 In small studies, the sensitivity was higher (68% to 92%) when threshold values for rocuronium-specific IgE were lowered from 0.35 to 0.13 kU/L.29
Chlorhexidine, an antiseptic commonly used in surgery, has been linked to IgE-mediated reactions.31 Chlorhexidine-specific IgE levels greater than 0.35 kU/L are considered positive, based on very limited data.
Insulin. Blood tests for allergy to insulin are also commercially available. However, studies have shown a significant overlap in the range of insulin-specific IgE in patients with a clinical history consistent with insulin allergy and in controls. Therefore, this test has a very limited ability to distinguish people who do not have a history of a reaction to insulin.32 More research is needed to determine the clinical utility of insulin-specific IgE testing.
Gelatin. IgE-mediated reactions have occurred after exposure to gelatin (from either cows or pigs) contained in foods and vaccines, including measles-mumps-rubella and yellow fever. One study identified gelatin-specific IgE in 10 of 11 children with a history of systemic reaction to measles or mumps vaccine.33 In the same study, gelatin-specific IgE levels were negative in 24 children who had developed non-IgE-mediated reactions to the vaccine.33
Tests for IgE against bovine gelatin are commercially available; results are considered positive for values higher than 0.35 kU/L. A negative test result does not exclude the possibility of an allergic reaction to porcine gelatin, which can also be found in foods and vaccines, but tests for anti-porcine gelatin IgE are not commercially available.
Latex
Latex, obtained from the rubber tree Hevea brasiliensis, has 13 known polypeptides (allergens Hev b 1–13) that cause IgE-mediated reactions, particularly in health care workers and patients with spina bifida.34 Overall, the incidence of latex allergy has decreased in the United States as most medical institutions have implemented a latex-free environment.
In vitro testing is the only mode of evaluation for allergy to latex approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA).35 Its sensitivity is 80% and its specificity is 95%.36
In a 2007 study, 145 people at risk for latex allergy, including 104 health care workers, 31 patients with spina bifida, and 10 patients requiring multiple surgeries, underwent latex-specific IgE analysis for sensitivity to various recombinant and native latex allergens.34 The three groups differed in their latex allergy profiles, highlighting the diversity of clinical response to latex in high-risk groups and our current inability to establish specific cutoff points for quantitative latex-specific IgE. Thus, at present, any nonzero latex-specific IgE value is considered positive.
A formal evaluation for allergy is recommended for patients who have a strong history of an IgE-mediated reaction to latex and a latex-specific IgE value of zero. Blood tests for allergy to some native or recombinant latex allergens are available; these allergens may be underrepresented in the native total latex extract.33 Skin testing for allergy to latex, although not FDA-approved or standardized, can also be useful in this setting.37
Insect venom
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can occur from the stings of Vespidae (vespids), Apidae (bees), and Formicidae (fire ants). Large localized reactions after an insect sting are not infrequent and typically do not predict anaphylactic sensitivity with future stings, even though they are considered mild IgE-mediated reactions. However, systemic reactions are considered life-threatening and warrant allergy testing.38
The level of venom-specific IgE usually increases weeks to months after a sting.39 Therefore, blood tests can be falsely negative if performed within a short time of the sting.
Patients who have suffered a systemic reaction to venom and have evidence of sensitization by either in vitro or in vivo allergy testing are candidates for venom immunotherapy.40
At present, any nonzero venom-specific IgE test is considered positive, as there is no specific value for venom-specific IgE that predicts clinical risk.
A negative blood test does not exclude the possibility of an IgE-mediated reaction.41 In cases in which a patient has a clinical history compatible with venom allergy but the blood test is negative, the patient should be referred to an allergist for further evaluation, including venom skin testing and possibly repeat blood testing at a later time.
Conversely, specific IgE testing to venom is recommended when a patient has a history consistent with venom allergy and negative skin test results.38
As mentioned previously, in vitro test performance can vary with the laboratory and testing method used, and sending samples directly to a reference laboratory could be considered.41
TESTING FOR IgG AGAINST FOODS IS UNVALIDATED AND INAPPROPRIATE
In recent years, some practitioners of alternative medicine have started testing for allergen-specific IgG or IgG4 as part of evaluations for hypersensitivity, especially in cases in which patients describe atypical gastrointestinal, neurologic, or other symptoms after eating specific foods.19
However, this testing often finds IgG or IgG4 against foods that are well tolerated. At present, allergen-specific IgG testing lacks scientific evidence to support its clinical use in the evaluation of allergic disease.5,19
- Williams PB, Ahlstedt S, Barnes JH, Söderström L, Portnoy J. Are our impressions of allergy test performances correct? Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2003; 91:26–33.
- Bernstein IL, Li JT, Bernstein DI, et al; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Allergy diagnostic testing: an updated practice parameter. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 100(suppl 3):S1–S148.
- Pichler WJ. Immune mechanism of drug hypersensitivity. Immunol Allergy Clin North Am 2004; 24:373–397.
- Lieberman P, Nicklas RA, Oppenheimer J, et al. The diagnosis and management of anaphylaxis practice parameter: 2010 update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:477–480.
- Hamilton RG. Clinical laboratory assessment of immediate-type hypersensitivity. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 125(suppl 2):S284–S296.
- Cox L, Williams B, Sicherer S, et al; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Test Task Force; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Pearls and pitfalls of allergy diagnostic testing: report from the American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology/American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 101:580–592.
- Hamilton RG, Franklin Adkinson N. In vitro assays for the diagnosis of IgE-mediated disorders. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:213–225.
- Williams PB, Dolen WK, Koepke JW, Selner JC. Comparison of skin testing and three in vitro assays for specific IgE in the clinical evaluation of immediate hypersensitivity. Ann Allergy 1992; 68:35–45.
- Howanitz PJ, Cembrowski GS, Bachner P. Laboratory phlebotomy. College of American Pathologists Q-Probe study of patient satisfaction and complications in 23,783 patients. Arch Pathol Lab Med 1991; 115:867–872.
- Turkeltaub PC, Gergen PJ. The risk of adverse reactions from percutaneous prick-puncture allergen skin testing, venipuncture, and body measurements: data from the second National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 1976–80 (NHANES II). J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 84:886–890.
- Pipkorn U, Hammarlund A, Enerbäck L. Prolonged treatment with topical glucocorticoids results in an inhibition of the allergen-induced weal-and-flare response and a reduction in skin mast cell numbers and histamine content. Clin Exp Allergy 1989; 19:19–25.
- Cole ZA, Clough GF, Church MK. Inhibition by glucocorticoids of the mast cell-dependent weal and flare response in human skin in vivo. Br J Pharmacol 2001; 132:286–292.
- Des Roches A, Paradis L, Bougeard YH, Godard P, Bousquet J, Chanez P. Long-term oral corticosteroid therapy does not alter the results of immediate-type allergy skin prick tests. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1996; 98:522–527.
- Linden CC, Misiak RT, Wegienka G, et al. Analysis of allergen specific IgE cut points to cat and dog in the Childhood Allergy Study. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2011; 106:153–158.
- Hamilton RG, Williams PB; Specific IgE Testing Task Force of the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma & Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Human IgE antibody serology: a primer for the practicing North American allergist/immunologist. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:33–38.
- Somville MA, Machiels J, Gilles JG, Saint-Remy JM. Seasonal variation in specific IgE antibodies of grass-pollen hypersensitive patients depends on the steady state IgE concentration and is not related to clinical symptoms. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 83( 2 Pt 1):486–494.
- Poon AW, Goodman CS, Rubin RJ. In vitro and skin testing for allergy: comparable clinical utility and costs. Am J Manag Care 1998; 4:969–985.
- Sampson HA. Update on food allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 113:805–819.
- Boyce JA, Assa’ad A, Burks AW, et al; NIAID-Sponsored Expert Panel. Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of food allergy in the United States: summary of the NIAID-sponsored expert panel report. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:1105–1118.
- Rosen JP, Selcow JE, Mendelson LM, Grodofsky MP, Factor JM, Sampson HA. Skin testing with natural foods in patients suspected of having food allergies: is it a necessity? J Allergy Clin Immunol 1994; 93:1068–1070.
- Williams PB, Siegel C, Portnoy J. Efficacy of a single diagnostic test for sensitization to common inhalant allergens. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2001; 86:196–202.
- Söderström L, Kober A, Ahlstedt S, et al. A further evaluation of the clinical use of specific IgE antibody testing in allergic diseases. Allergy 2003; 58:921–928.
- Bousquet J, Lebel B, Dhivert H, Bataille Y, Martinot B, Michel FB. Nasal challenge with pollen grains, skin-prick tests and specific IgE in patients with grass pollen allergy. Clin Allergy 1987; 17:529–536.
- Nepper-Christensen S, Backer V, DuBuske LM, Nolte H. In vitro diagnostic evaluation of patients with inhalant allergies: summary of probability outcomes comparing results of CLA- and CAP-specific immunoglobulin E test systems. Allergy Asthma Proc 2003; 24:253–258.
- Wallace DV, Dykewicz MS, Bernstein DI, et al; Joint Task Force on Practice; American Academy of Allergy; Asthma & Immunology; Joint Council of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. The diagnosis and management of rhinitis: an updated practice parameter. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2008; 122(suppl 2):S1–S84.
- Mayorga C, Sanz ML, Gamboa PM, et al; Immunology Committee of the Spanish Society of Allergology and Clinical Immunology of the SEAIC. In vitro diagnosis of immediate allergic reactions to drugs: an update. J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol 2010; 20:103–109.
- Garcia JJ, Blanca M, Moreno F, et al. Determination of IgE antibodies to the benzylpenicilloyl determinant: a comparison of the sensitivity and specificity of three radio allergo sorbent test methods. J Clin Lab Anal 1997; 11:251–257.
- Macy E, Goldberg B, Poon KY. Use of commercial anti-penicillin IgE fluorometric enzyme immunoassays to diagnose penicillin allergy. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2010; 105:136–141.
- Blanca M, Mayorga C, Torres MJ, et al. Clinical evaluation of Pharmacia CAP System RAST FEIA amoxicilloyl and benzylpenicilloyl in patients with penicillin allergy. Allergy 2001; 56:862–870.
- Ebo DG, Venemalm L, Bridts CH, et al. Immunoglobulin E antibodies to rocuronium: a new diagnostic tool. Anesthesiology 2007; 107:253–259.
- Ebo DG, Bridts CH, Stevens WJ. IgE-mediated anaphylaxis from chlorhexidine: diagnostic possibilities. Contact Dermatitis 2006; 55:301–302.
- deShazo RD, Mather P, Grant W, et al. Evaluation of patients with local reactions to insulin with skin tests and in vitro techniques. Diabetes Care 1987; 10:330–336.
- Sakaguchi M, Ogura H, Inouye S. IgE antibody to gelatin in children with immediate-type reactions to measles and mumps vaccines. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1995; 96:563–565.
- Raulf-Heimsoth M, Rihs HP, Rozynek P, et al. Quantitative analysis of immunoglobulin E reactivity profiles in patients allergic or sensitized to natural rubber latex (Hevea brasiliensis). Clin Exp Allergy 2007; 37:1657–1667.
- Biagini RE, MacKenzie BA, Sammons DL, et al. Latex specific IgE: performance characteristics of the IMMULITE 2000 3gAllergy assay compared with skin testing. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2006; 97:196–202.
- Hamilton RG, Peterson EL, Ownby DR. Clinical and laboratory-based methods in the diagnosis of natural rubber latex allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2002; 110(suppl 2):S47–S56.
- Safadi GS, Corey EC, Taylor JS, Wagner WO, Pien LC, Melton AL. Latex hypersensitivity in emergency medical service providers. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 1996; 77:39–42.
- Moffitt JE, Golden DB, Reisman RE, et al. Stinging insect hypersensitivity: a practice parameter update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:869–886.
- Biló BM, Rueff F, Mosbech H, Bonifazi F, Oude-Elberink JN; EAACI Interest Group on Insect Venom Hypersensitivity. Diagnosis of Hymenoptera venom allergy. Allergy 2005; 60:1339–1349.
- Cox L, Nelson H, Lockey R, et al. Allergen immunotherapy: a practice parameter third update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2011; 127(suppl 1):S1–S55.
- Golden DB, Kagey-Sobotka A, Norman PS, Hamilton RG, Lichtenstein LM. Insect sting allergy with negative venom skin test responses. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2001; 107:897–901.
- Williams PB, Ahlstedt S, Barnes JH, Söderström L, Portnoy J. Are our impressions of allergy test performances correct? Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2003; 91:26–33.
- Bernstein IL, Li JT, Bernstein DI, et al; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Allergy diagnostic testing: an updated practice parameter. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 100(suppl 3):S1–S148.
- Pichler WJ. Immune mechanism of drug hypersensitivity. Immunol Allergy Clin North Am 2004; 24:373–397.
- Lieberman P, Nicklas RA, Oppenheimer J, et al. The diagnosis and management of anaphylaxis practice parameter: 2010 update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:477–480.
- Hamilton RG. Clinical laboratory assessment of immediate-type hypersensitivity. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 125(suppl 2):S284–S296.
- Cox L, Williams B, Sicherer S, et al; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Test Task Force; American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Pearls and pitfalls of allergy diagnostic testing: report from the American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology/American Academy of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology Specific IgE Test Task Force. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2008; 101:580–592.
- Hamilton RG, Franklin Adkinson N. In vitro assays for the diagnosis of IgE-mediated disorders. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:213–225.
- Williams PB, Dolen WK, Koepke JW, Selner JC. Comparison of skin testing and three in vitro assays for specific IgE in the clinical evaluation of immediate hypersensitivity. Ann Allergy 1992; 68:35–45.
- Howanitz PJ, Cembrowski GS, Bachner P. Laboratory phlebotomy. College of American Pathologists Q-Probe study of patient satisfaction and complications in 23,783 patients. Arch Pathol Lab Med 1991; 115:867–872.
- Turkeltaub PC, Gergen PJ. The risk of adverse reactions from percutaneous prick-puncture allergen skin testing, venipuncture, and body measurements: data from the second National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey 1976–80 (NHANES II). J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 84:886–890.
- Pipkorn U, Hammarlund A, Enerbäck L. Prolonged treatment with topical glucocorticoids results in an inhibition of the allergen-induced weal-and-flare response and a reduction in skin mast cell numbers and histamine content. Clin Exp Allergy 1989; 19:19–25.
- Cole ZA, Clough GF, Church MK. Inhibition by glucocorticoids of the mast cell-dependent weal and flare response in human skin in vivo. Br J Pharmacol 2001; 132:286–292.
- Des Roches A, Paradis L, Bougeard YH, Godard P, Bousquet J, Chanez P. Long-term oral corticosteroid therapy does not alter the results of immediate-type allergy skin prick tests. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1996; 98:522–527.
- Linden CC, Misiak RT, Wegienka G, et al. Analysis of allergen specific IgE cut points to cat and dog in the Childhood Allergy Study. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2011; 106:153–158.
- Hamilton RG, Williams PB; Specific IgE Testing Task Force of the American Academy of Allergy, Asthma & Immunology; American College of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. Human IgE antibody serology: a primer for the practicing North American allergist/immunologist. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:33–38.
- Somville MA, Machiels J, Gilles JG, Saint-Remy JM. Seasonal variation in specific IgE antibodies of grass-pollen hypersensitive patients depends on the steady state IgE concentration and is not related to clinical symptoms. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1989; 83( 2 Pt 1):486–494.
- Poon AW, Goodman CS, Rubin RJ. In vitro and skin testing for allergy: comparable clinical utility and costs. Am J Manag Care 1998; 4:969–985.
- Sampson HA. Update on food allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 113:805–819.
- Boyce JA, Assa’ad A, Burks AW, et al; NIAID-Sponsored Expert Panel. Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of food allergy in the United States: summary of the NIAID-sponsored expert panel report. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2010; 126:1105–1118.
- Rosen JP, Selcow JE, Mendelson LM, Grodofsky MP, Factor JM, Sampson HA. Skin testing with natural foods in patients suspected of having food allergies: is it a necessity? J Allergy Clin Immunol 1994; 93:1068–1070.
- Williams PB, Siegel C, Portnoy J. Efficacy of a single diagnostic test for sensitization to common inhalant allergens. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2001; 86:196–202.
- Söderström L, Kober A, Ahlstedt S, et al. A further evaluation of the clinical use of specific IgE antibody testing in allergic diseases. Allergy 2003; 58:921–928.
- Bousquet J, Lebel B, Dhivert H, Bataille Y, Martinot B, Michel FB. Nasal challenge with pollen grains, skin-prick tests and specific IgE in patients with grass pollen allergy. Clin Allergy 1987; 17:529–536.
- Nepper-Christensen S, Backer V, DuBuske LM, Nolte H. In vitro diagnostic evaluation of patients with inhalant allergies: summary of probability outcomes comparing results of CLA- and CAP-specific immunoglobulin E test systems. Allergy Asthma Proc 2003; 24:253–258.
- Wallace DV, Dykewicz MS, Bernstein DI, et al; Joint Task Force on Practice; American Academy of Allergy; Asthma & Immunology; Joint Council of Allergy, Asthma and Immunology. The diagnosis and management of rhinitis: an updated practice parameter. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2008; 122(suppl 2):S1–S84.
- Mayorga C, Sanz ML, Gamboa PM, et al; Immunology Committee of the Spanish Society of Allergology and Clinical Immunology of the SEAIC. In vitro diagnosis of immediate allergic reactions to drugs: an update. J Investig Allergol Clin Immunol 2010; 20:103–109.
- Garcia JJ, Blanca M, Moreno F, et al. Determination of IgE antibodies to the benzylpenicilloyl determinant: a comparison of the sensitivity and specificity of three radio allergo sorbent test methods. J Clin Lab Anal 1997; 11:251–257.
- Macy E, Goldberg B, Poon KY. Use of commercial anti-penicillin IgE fluorometric enzyme immunoassays to diagnose penicillin allergy. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2010; 105:136–141.
- Blanca M, Mayorga C, Torres MJ, et al. Clinical evaluation of Pharmacia CAP System RAST FEIA amoxicilloyl and benzylpenicilloyl in patients with penicillin allergy. Allergy 2001; 56:862–870.
- Ebo DG, Venemalm L, Bridts CH, et al. Immunoglobulin E antibodies to rocuronium: a new diagnostic tool. Anesthesiology 2007; 107:253–259.
- Ebo DG, Bridts CH, Stevens WJ. IgE-mediated anaphylaxis from chlorhexidine: diagnostic possibilities. Contact Dermatitis 2006; 55:301–302.
- deShazo RD, Mather P, Grant W, et al. Evaluation of patients with local reactions to insulin with skin tests and in vitro techniques. Diabetes Care 1987; 10:330–336.
- Sakaguchi M, Ogura H, Inouye S. IgE antibody to gelatin in children with immediate-type reactions to measles and mumps vaccines. J Allergy Clin Immunol 1995; 96:563–565.
- Raulf-Heimsoth M, Rihs HP, Rozynek P, et al. Quantitative analysis of immunoglobulin E reactivity profiles in patients allergic or sensitized to natural rubber latex (Hevea brasiliensis). Clin Exp Allergy 2007; 37:1657–1667.
- Biagini RE, MacKenzie BA, Sammons DL, et al. Latex specific IgE: performance characteristics of the IMMULITE 2000 3gAllergy assay compared with skin testing. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 2006; 97:196–202.
- Hamilton RG, Peterson EL, Ownby DR. Clinical and laboratory-based methods in the diagnosis of natural rubber latex allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2002; 110(suppl 2):S47–S56.
- Safadi GS, Corey EC, Taylor JS, Wagner WO, Pien LC, Melton AL. Latex hypersensitivity in emergency medical service providers. Ann Allergy Asthma Immunol 1996; 77:39–42.
- Moffitt JE, Golden DB, Reisman RE, et al. Stinging insect hypersensitivity: a practice parameter update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2004; 114:869–886.
- Biló BM, Rueff F, Mosbech H, Bonifazi F, Oude-Elberink JN; EAACI Interest Group on Insect Venom Hypersensitivity. Diagnosis of Hymenoptera venom allergy. Allergy 2005; 60:1339–1349.
- Cox L, Nelson H, Lockey R, et al. Allergen immunotherapy: a practice parameter third update. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2011; 127(suppl 1):S1–S55.
- Golden DB, Kagey-Sobotka A, Norman PS, Hamilton RG, Lichtenstein LM. Insect sting allergy with negative venom skin test responses. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2001; 107:897–901.
KEY POINTS
- Specific IgE levels higher than 0.35 kU/L suggest sensitization, but that is not synonymous with clinical disease.
- Prospective studies have identified IgE levels that can predict clinical reactivity with greater than 95% certainty for certain foods, but similar studies have not been performed for most other foods, drugs, latex, or venom.
- The likelihood of an IgE-mediated clinical reaction often increases with the level of specific IgE, but these levels do not predict severity or guarantee a reaction will occur.
- The sensitivity of allergy blood tests ranges from 60% to 95%, and the specificity ranges from 30% to 95%.
- In the appropriate setting, these tests can help in identifying specific allergens and assessing allergic disease.
- Neither allergy blood testing nor skin testing should be used for screening: they may be most useful as confirmatory tests when the patient’s history is compatible with an IgE-mediated reaction.
Accountable care organizations, the patient-centered medical home, and health care reform: What does it all mean?
The US health care system cannot continue with “business as usual.” The current model is broken: it does not deliver the kind of care we want for our patients, ourselves, our families, and our communities. It is our role as professionals to help drive change and make medical care more cost-effective and of higher quality, with better satisfaction for patients as well as for providers.
Central to efforts to reform the system are two concepts. One is the “patient-centered medical home,” in which a single provider is responsible for coordinating care for individual patients. The other is “accountable care organizations,” a new way of organizing care along a continuum from doctor to hospital, mandated by the new health care reform law (technically known as the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act).
CURRENT STATE OF HEALTH CARE: HIGH COST AND POOR QUALITY
Since health care reform was initially proposed in the 1990s, trends in the United States have grown steadily worse. Escalating health care costs have outstripped inflation, consuming an increasing percentage of the gross domestic product (GDP) at an unsustainable rate. Despite increased spending, quality outcomes are suboptimal. In addition, with the emergence of specialization and technology, care is increasingly fragmented and poorly coordinated, with multiple providers and poorly managed resources.
Over the last 15 years, the United States has far surpassed most countries in the developed world for total health care expenditures per capita.1,2 In 2009, we spent 17.4% of our GDP on health care, translating to $7,960 per capita, while Japan spent only 8.5% of its GDP, averaging $2,878 per capita.2 At the current rate, health care spending in the United States will increase from $2.5 trillion in 2009 to over $4.6 trillion in 2020.3
Paradoxically, costlier care is often of poorer quality. Many countries that spend far less per capita on health care achieve far better outcomes. Even within the United States, greater Medicare spending on a state and regional basis tends to correlate with poorer quality of care.4 Spending among Medicare beneficiaries is not standardized and varies widely throughout the country.5 The amount of care a patient receives also varies dramatically by region. The number of specialists involved in care during the last year of life is steadily increasing in many regions of the country, indicating poor care coordination.6
PATIENT-CENTERED MEDICAL HOMES: A POSITIVE TREND
The problems of high cost, poor quality, and poor coordination of care have led to the emergence of the concept of the patient-centered medical home. Originally proposed in 1967 by the American Academy of Pediatrics in response to the need for care coordination by a single physician, the idea did not really take root until the early 1990s. In 2002, the American Academy of Family Medicine embraced the concept and moved it forward.
According to the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA), a nonprofit organization that provides voluntary certification for medical organizations, the patient-centered medical home is a model of care in which “patients have a direct relationship with a provider who coordinates a cooperative team of healthcare professionals, takes collective responsibility for the care provided to the patient, and arranges for appropriate care with other qualified providers as needed.”7
Patient-centered medical homes are supposed to improve quality outcomes and lower costs. In addition, they can compete for public or private incentives that reward this model of care and, as we will see later, are at the heart of ACO readiness.
Medical homes meet certification standards
NCQA first formally licensed patient-centered medical homes in 2008, based on nine standards and six key elements. A scoring system was used to rank the level of certification from level 1 (the lowest) to level 3. From 2008 to the end of 2010, the number of certified homes grew from 28 to 1,506. New York has the largest number of medical homes.
The new elements in the NCQA program align more closely with federal programs that are designed to drive quality, including the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services program to encourage the use of the electronic medical record, and with federal rule-making this last spring designed to implement accountable care organizations (ACOs).
Same-day access is now emphasized, as is managing patient populations—rather than just individual patients—with certain chronic diseases, such as diabetes and congestive heart failure. The requirements for tracking and coordinating care have profound implications about how resources are allocated. Ideally, coordinators of chronic disease management are embedded within practices to help manage high-risk patients, although the current reimbursement mechanism does not support this model. Population management may not be feasible for institutions that still rely on paper-based medical records.
Medical homes lower costs, improve quality
Integrated delivery system models such as patient-centered medical homes have demonstrated cost-savings while improving quality of care.8,9 Reducing hospital admissions and visits to the emergency department shows the greatest cost-savings in these models. Several projects have shown significant cost-savings10:
The Group Health Cooperative of Puget Sound reduced total costs by $10 per member per month (from $498 to $488, P = 0.76), with a 16% reduction in hospital admissions (P < .001) and a 29% reduction in emergency department visits (P < .001).
The Geisinger Health System Proven-Health Navigator in Pennsylvania reduced readmissions by 18% (P < .01). They also had a 7% reduction in total costs per member per month relative to a matched control group also in the Geisinger system but not in a medical home, although this difference did not reach statistical significance. Private payer demonstration projects of patient-centered medical homes have also shown cost-savings.
Blue Cross Blue Shield of South Carolina randomized patients to participate in either a patient-centered medical home or their standard system. The patient-centered medical home group had 36% fewer hospital days, 12.4% fewer emergency department visits, and a 6.5% reduction in total medical and pharmacy costs compared with controls.
Finally, the use of chronic care coordinators in a patient-centered medical home has been shown to be cost-effective and can lower the overall cost of care despite the investment to hire them. Johns Hopkins Guided Care program demonstrated a 24% reduction in hospital days, 15% fewer emergency department visits, and a 37% reduction in days in a skilled nursing facility. The annual net Medicare savings was $75,000 per coordinator nurse hired.
ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS: A NEW SYSTEM OF HEALTH CARE DELIVERY
While the patient-centered medical home is designed to improve the coordination of care among physicians, ACOs have the broader goal of coordinating care across the entire continuum of health care, from physicians to hospitals to other clinicians. The concept of ACOs was spawned in 2006 by Elliott S. Fisher, MD, MPH, of the Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice. The idea is that, by improving care coordination within an ACO and reducing fragmented care, costs can be controlled and outcomes improved. Of course, the devil is in the details.
As part of its health care reform initiative, the state of Massachusetts’ Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System defined ACOs as health care delivery systems composed of hospitals, physicians, and other clinician and nonclinician providers that manage care across the entire spectrum of care. An ACO could be a real (incorporated) or virtual (contractually networked) organization, for example, a large physician organization that would contract with one or more hospitals and ancillary providers.11
In a 2009 report to Congress, the Medicare Payment Advisory Committee (MedPac) similarly defined ACOs for the Medicare population. But MedPac also introduced the concept of financial risk: providers in the ACO would share in efficiency gains from improved care coordination and could be subjected to financial penalties for poor performance, depending on the structure of the ACO.12
But what has placed ACOs at center stage is the new health care reform law, which encourages the formation of ACOs. On March 31, 2011, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services published proposed rules to implement ACOs for Medicare patients (they appeared in the Federal Register on April 7, 2011).13,14 Comments on the 129-page proposed rules were due by June 6, 2011. Final rules are supposed to be published later this year.
The proposed new rule has a three-part aim:
- Better care for individuals, as described by all six dimensions of quality in the Institute of Medicine report “Crossing the Quality Chasm”15: safety, effectiveness, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity
- Better health for populations, with respect to educating beneficiaries about the major causes of ill health—poor nutrition, physical inactivity, substance abuse, and poverty—as well as about the importance of preventive services such as an annual physical examination and annual influenza vaccination
- Lower growth in expenditures by eliminating waste and inefficiencies while not withholding any needed care that helps beneficiaries.
DETAILS OF THE PROPOSED ACO RULE
Here are some of the highlights of the proposed ACO rule.
Two shared-savings options
Although the program could start as soon as January 1, 2012, the application process is formidable, so this timeline may not be realistic. Moreover, a final rule is pending.
The proposed rule requires at least a 3-year contract, and primary care physicians must be included. Shared savings will be available and will depend on an ACO’s ability to manage costs and to achieve quality target performances. Two shared-savings options will be available: one with no risk until the third year and the other with risk during all 3 years but greater potential benefit. In the one-sided model with no risk until year 3, an ACO would begin to accrue shared savings at a rate of 50% after an initial 2% of savings compared with a risk-adjusted per capita benchmark based on performance during the previous 3 years. In the second plan, an ACO would immediately realize shared savings at a rate of 60% as long as savings were achieved compared with prior benchmark performance. However, in this second model, the ACO would be at risk to repay a share of all losses that were more than 2% higher than the benchmark expenditures, with loss caps of 5%, 7.5%, and 10% above benchmark in years 1, 2, and 3, respectively.
Structure of an ACO
Under the proposed rule, the minimum population size of Medicare beneficiaries is 5,000 patients, with some exceptions in rural or other shortage areas, or areas with critical access hospitals. ACO founders can be primary care physicians, primary care independent practice associations, or employee groups. Participants may include hospitals, critical access hospitals, specialists, and other providers. The ACO must be a legal entity with its own tax identification number and its own governance and management structure.
Concerns have been expressed that, in some markets, certain groups may come together and achieve market dominance with more than half of the population. Proposed ACOs with less than 30% of the market share will be exempt from antitrust concerns, and those with greater than 50% of market share will undergo detailed review.
Patient assignment
Patients will be assigned to an ACO retrospectively, at the end of the 3 years. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services argues that retrospective assignment will encourage the ACO to design a system to help all patients, not just those assigned to the ACO.
Patients may not opt out of being counted against ACO performance measures. Although Medicare will share beneficiaries’ data with the ACO retrospectively so that it can learn more about costs per patient, patients may opt out of this data-sharing. Patients also retain unrestricted choice to see other providers, with attribution of costs incurred to the ACO.
Quality and reporting
The proposed rule has 65 equally weighted quality measures, many of which are not presently reported by most health care organizations. The measures fall within five broad categories: patient and caregiver experience, care coordination, patient safety, preventive health, and managing at-risk populations, including the frail elderly. Bonus payments for cost-savings will be adjusted based on meeting the quality measures.
Governance and management
Under the proposed rule, an ACO must meet stringent governance requirements. It must be a distinct legal entity as governed by state law. There must be proportional representation of all participants (eg, hospitals, community organizations, providers), comprising at least 75% of its Board of Trustees. These members must have authority to execute statutory functions of the ACO. Medicare beneficiaries and community stakeholder organizations must also be represented on the Board.
ACO operations must be managed by an executive director, manager, or general partner, who may or may not be a physician. A board-certified physician who is licensed in the state in which the ACO is domiciled must serve on location as the full-time, senior-level medical director, overseeing and managing clinical operations. A leadership team must be able to influence clinical practice, and a physician-directed process-improvement and quality-assurance committee is required.
Infrastructure and policies
The proposed rule outlines a number of infrastructure and policy requirements that must be addressed in the application process. These include:
- Written performance standards for quality and efficiency
- Evidence-based practice guidelines
- Tools to collect, evaluate, and share data to influence decision-making at the point of care
- Processes to identify and correct poor performance
- Description of how shared savings will be used to further improve care.
CONCERNS ABOUT THE PROPOSED NEW ACO RULE
While there is broad consensus in the health care community that the current system of care delivery fails to achieve the desired outcomes and is financially unsustainable and in need of reform, many concerns have been expressed about the proposed new ACO rule.
The regulations are too detailed. The regulations are highly prescriptive with detailed application, reporting, and regulatory requirements that create significant administrative burdens. Small medical groups are unlikely to have the administrative infrastructure to become involved.
Potential savings are inadequate. The shared savings concept has modest upside gain when modeled with holdback.16 Moreover, a recent analysis from the University Health System Consortium suggested that 50% of ACOs with 5,000 or more attributed lives would sustain unwarranted penalties as a result of random fluctuation of expenditures in the population.17
Participation involves a big investment. Participation requires significant resource investment, such as hiring chronic-disease managers and, in some practices, creating a whole new concept of managing wellness and continuity of care.
Retrospective beneficiary assignment is unpopular. Groups would generally prefer to know beforehand for whom they are responsible financially. A prospective assignment model was considered for the proposed rule but was ultimately rejected.
The patient assignment system is too risky. The plurality rule requires only a single visit with the ACO in order to be responsible for a patient for the entire year. In addition, the fact that the patient has the freedom to choose care elsewhere with expense assigned to the ACO confers significant financial risk.
There are too many quality measures. The high number of quality metrics—65—required to be measured and reported is onerous for most organizations.
Advertising is micromanaged. All marketing materials that are sent to patients about the ACO and any subsequent revisions must first be approved by Medicare, a potentially burdensome and time-consuming requirement.
Specialists are excluded. Using only generalists could actually be less cost-effective for some patients, such as those with human immunodeficiency virus, end-stage renal disease, certain malignancies, or advanced congestive heart failure.
Provider replacement is prohibited. Providers cannot be replaced over the 3 years of the demonstration, but the departing physician’s patients are still the responsibility of the plan. This would be especially problematic for small practices.
PREDICTING ACO READINESS
I believe there are five core competencies that are required to be an ACO:
- Operational excellence in care delivery
- Ability to deliver care across the continuum
- Cultural alignment among participating organizations
- Technical and informatics support to manage individual and population data
- Physician alignment around the concept of the ACO.
Certain strategies will increase the chances of success of an ACO:
Reduce emergency department usage and hospitalization. Cost-savings in patient-centered medical homes have been greatest by reducing hospitalizations, rehospitalizations, and emergency department visits.
Develop a high-quality, efficient primary care network. Have enough of a share in the primary care physician network to deliver effective primary care. Make sure there is good access to care and effective communication between patients and the primary care network. Deliver comprehensive services and have good care coordination. Aggressively manage communication, care coordination, and “hand-offs” across the care continuum and with specialists.
Create an effective patient-centered medical home. The current reimbursement climate fails to incentivize all of the necessary elements, which ultimately need to include chronic-care coordinators for medically complex patients, pharmacy support for patient medication management, adequate support staff to optimize efficiency, and a culture of wellness and necessary resources to support wellness.
PHYSICIANS NEED TO DRIVE SOLUTIONS
Soaring health care costs in the United States, poor quality outcomes, and increasing fragmentation of care are the major drivers of health care reform. The Patient Centered Medical Home is a key component to the solution and has already been shown to improve outcomes and lower costs. Further refinement of this concept and implementation should be priorities for primary care physicians and health care organizations.
The ACO concept attempts to further improve quality and lower costs. The proposed ACO rule released by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services on March 31, 2011, has generated significant controversy in the health care community. In its current form, few health care systems are likely to participate. A revised rule is awaited in the coming months. In the meantime, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services has released a request for application for a Pioneer ACO model, which offers up to 30 organizations the opportunity to participate in an ACO pilot that allows for prospective patient assignment and greater shared savings.
Whether ACOs as proposed achieve widespread implementation remains to be seen. However, the current system of health care delivery in this country is broken. Physicians and health care systems need to drive solutions to the challenges we face about quality, cost, access, care coordination, and outcomes.
- The Concord Coalition. Escalating Health Care Costs and the Federal Budget. April 2, 2009. http://www.concordcoalition.org/files/uploaded_for_nodes/docs/Iowa_Handout_final.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Henry J. Kaiser Family Foundation. Snapshots: Health Care Costs. Health Care Spending in the United States and OECD Countries. April 2011. http://www.kff.org/insurance/snapshot/OECD042111.cfm. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. National health expenditure projections 2010–2020. http://www.cms.gov/NationalHealthExpendData/downloads/proj2010.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Commonwealth Fund. Performance snapshots, 2006. http://www.cmwf.org/snapshots. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Fisher E, Goodman D, Skinner J, Bronner K. Health care spending, quality, and outcomes. More isn’t always better. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2009. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/Spending_Brief_022709.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Goodman DC, Esty AR, Fisher ES, Chang C-H. Trends and variation in end-of-life care for Medicare beneficiaries with severe chronic illness. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2011. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/EOL_Trend_Report_0411.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA). Leveraging health IT to achieve ambulatory quality: the patient-centered medical home (PCMH). www.ncqa.org/Portals/0/Public%20Policy/HIMSS_NCQA_PCMH_Factsheet.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Bodenheimer T. Lessons from the trenches—a high-functioning primary care clinic. N Eng J Med 2011; 365:5–8.
- Gabbay RA, Bailit MH, Mauger DT, Wagner EH, Siminerio L. Multipayer patient-centered medical home implementation guided by the chronic care model. Jt Comm J Qual Patient Saf 2011; 37:265–273.
- Grumbach K, Grundy P. Outcomes of implementing Patient Centered Medical Home interventions: a review of the evidence from prospective evaluation studies in the United States. Patient-Centered Primary Care Collaborative. November 16, 2010. http://www.pcpcc.net/files/evidence_outcomes_in_pcmh.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Kirwan LA, Iselin S. Recommendations of the Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System. Commonwealth of Massachusetts, July 16, 2009. http://www.mass.gov/Eeohhs2/docs/dhcfp/pc/Final_Report/Final_Report.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Medicare Payment Advisory Commission. Report to the Congress. Improving incentives in the Medicare Program. http://www.medpac.gov/documents/jun09_entirereport.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Archives and Records Administration. Federal Register Volume 76, Number 67, Thursday, April 7, 2011. http://edocket.access.gpo.gov/2011/pdf/2011-7880.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Berwick DM. Launching accountable care organizations—the proposed rule for the Medicare Shared Savings Program. N Engl J Med 2011; 364:e32.
- Institute of Medicine. Crossing the Quality Chasm. Washington, DC: National Academy Press; 2001.
- Fitch K, Mirkin D, Murphy-Barron C, Parke R, Pyenson B. A first look at ACOs’ risky business: quality is not enough. Seattle, WA: Millman, Inc; 2011. http://publications.milliman.com/publications/healthreform/pdfs/at-first-lookacos.pdf. Accessed August 10, 2011.
- University HealthSystem Consortium. Accountable care organizations: a measured view for academic medical centers. May 2011.
The US health care system cannot continue with “business as usual.” The current model is broken: it does not deliver the kind of care we want for our patients, ourselves, our families, and our communities. It is our role as professionals to help drive change and make medical care more cost-effective and of higher quality, with better satisfaction for patients as well as for providers.
Central to efforts to reform the system are two concepts. One is the “patient-centered medical home,” in which a single provider is responsible for coordinating care for individual patients. The other is “accountable care organizations,” a new way of organizing care along a continuum from doctor to hospital, mandated by the new health care reform law (technically known as the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act).
CURRENT STATE OF HEALTH CARE: HIGH COST AND POOR QUALITY
Since health care reform was initially proposed in the 1990s, trends in the United States have grown steadily worse. Escalating health care costs have outstripped inflation, consuming an increasing percentage of the gross domestic product (GDP) at an unsustainable rate. Despite increased spending, quality outcomes are suboptimal. In addition, with the emergence of specialization and technology, care is increasingly fragmented and poorly coordinated, with multiple providers and poorly managed resources.
Over the last 15 years, the United States has far surpassed most countries in the developed world for total health care expenditures per capita.1,2 In 2009, we spent 17.4% of our GDP on health care, translating to $7,960 per capita, while Japan spent only 8.5% of its GDP, averaging $2,878 per capita.2 At the current rate, health care spending in the United States will increase from $2.5 trillion in 2009 to over $4.6 trillion in 2020.3
Paradoxically, costlier care is often of poorer quality. Many countries that spend far less per capita on health care achieve far better outcomes. Even within the United States, greater Medicare spending on a state and regional basis tends to correlate with poorer quality of care.4 Spending among Medicare beneficiaries is not standardized and varies widely throughout the country.5 The amount of care a patient receives also varies dramatically by region. The number of specialists involved in care during the last year of life is steadily increasing in many regions of the country, indicating poor care coordination.6
PATIENT-CENTERED MEDICAL HOMES: A POSITIVE TREND
The problems of high cost, poor quality, and poor coordination of care have led to the emergence of the concept of the patient-centered medical home. Originally proposed in 1967 by the American Academy of Pediatrics in response to the need for care coordination by a single physician, the idea did not really take root until the early 1990s. In 2002, the American Academy of Family Medicine embraced the concept and moved it forward.
According to the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA), a nonprofit organization that provides voluntary certification for medical organizations, the patient-centered medical home is a model of care in which “patients have a direct relationship with a provider who coordinates a cooperative team of healthcare professionals, takes collective responsibility for the care provided to the patient, and arranges for appropriate care with other qualified providers as needed.”7
Patient-centered medical homes are supposed to improve quality outcomes and lower costs. In addition, they can compete for public or private incentives that reward this model of care and, as we will see later, are at the heart of ACO readiness.
Medical homes meet certification standards
NCQA first formally licensed patient-centered medical homes in 2008, based on nine standards and six key elements. A scoring system was used to rank the level of certification from level 1 (the lowest) to level 3. From 2008 to the end of 2010, the number of certified homes grew from 28 to 1,506. New York has the largest number of medical homes.
The new elements in the NCQA program align more closely with federal programs that are designed to drive quality, including the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services program to encourage the use of the electronic medical record, and with federal rule-making this last spring designed to implement accountable care organizations (ACOs).
Same-day access is now emphasized, as is managing patient populations—rather than just individual patients—with certain chronic diseases, such as diabetes and congestive heart failure. The requirements for tracking and coordinating care have profound implications about how resources are allocated. Ideally, coordinators of chronic disease management are embedded within practices to help manage high-risk patients, although the current reimbursement mechanism does not support this model. Population management may not be feasible for institutions that still rely on paper-based medical records.
Medical homes lower costs, improve quality
Integrated delivery system models such as patient-centered medical homes have demonstrated cost-savings while improving quality of care.8,9 Reducing hospital admissions and visits to the emergency department shows the greatest cost-savings in these models. Several projects have shown significant cost-savings10:
The Group Health Cooperative of Puget Sound reduced total costs by $10 per member per month (from $498 to $488, P = 0.76), with a 16% reduction in hospital admissions (P < .001) and a 29% reduction in emergency department visits (P < .001).
The Geisinger Health System Proven-Health Navigator in Pennsylvania reduced readmissions by 18% (P < .01). They also had a 7% reduction in total costs per member per month relative to a matched control group also in the Geisinger system but not in a medical home, although this difference did not reach statistical significance. Private payer demonstration projects of patient-centered medical homes have also shown cost-savings.
Blue Cross Blue Shield of South Carolina randomized patients to participate in either a patient-centered medical home or their standard system. The patient-centered medical home group had 36% fewer hospital days, 12.4% fewer emergency department visits, and a 6.5% reduction in total medical and pharmacy costs compared with controls.
Finally, the use of chronic care coordinators in a patient-centered medical home has been shown to be cost-effective and can lower the overall cost of care despite the investment to hire them. Johns Hopkins Guided Care program demonstrated a 24% reduction in hospital days, 15% fewer emergency department visits, and a 37% reduction in days in a skilled nursing facility. The annual net Medicare savings was $75,000 per coordinator nurse hired.
ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS: A NEW SYSTEM OF HEALTH CARE DELIVERY
While the patient-centered medical home is designed to improve the coordination of care among physicians, ACOs have the broader goal of coordinating care across the entire continuum of health care, from physicians to hospitals to other clinicians. The concept of ACOs was spawned in 2006 by Elliott S. Fisher, MD, MPH, of the Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice. The idea is that, by improving care coordination within an ACO and reducing fragmented care, costs can be controlled and outcomes improved. Of course, the devil is in the details.
As part of its health care reform initiative, the state of Massachusetts’ Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System defined ACOs as health care delivery systems composed of hospitals, physicians, and other clinician and nonclinician providers that manage care across the entire spectrum of care. An ACO could be a real (incorporated) or virtual (contractually networked) organization, for example, a large physician organization that would contract with one or more hospitals and ancillary providers.11
In a 2009 report to Congress, the Medicare Payment Advisory Committee (MedPac) similarly defined ACOs for the Medicare population. But MedPac also introduced the concept of financial risk: providers in the ACO would share in efficiency gains from improved care coordination and could be subjected to financial penalties for poor performance, depending on the structure of the ACO.12
But what has placed ACOs at center stage is the new health care reform law, which encourages the formation of ACOs. On March 31, 2011, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services published proposed rules to implement ACOs for Medicare patients (they appeared in the Federal Register on April 7, 2011).13,14 Comments on the 129-page proposed rules were due by June 6, 2011. Final rules are supposed to be published later this year.
The proposed new rule has a three-part aim:
- Better care for individuals, as described by all six dimensions of quality in the Institute of Medicine report “Crossing the Quality Chasm”15: safety, effectiveness, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity
- Better health for populations, with respect to educating beneficiaries about the major causes of ill health—poor nutrition, physical inactivity, substance abuse, and poverty—as well as about the importance of preventive services such as an annual physical examination and annual influenza vaccination
- Lower growth in expenditures by eliminating waste and inefficiencies while not withholding any needed care that helps beneficiaries.
DETAILS OF THE PROPOSED ACO RULE
Here are some of the highlights of the proposed ACO rule.
Two shared-savings options
Although the program could start as soon as January 1, 2012, the application process is formidable, so this timeline may not be realistic. Moreover, a final rule is pending.
The proposed rule requires at least a 3-year contract, and primary care physicians must be included. Shared savings will be available and will depend on an ACO’s ability to manage costs and to achieve quality target performances. Two shared-savings options will be available: one with no risk until the third year and the other with risk during all 3 years but greater potential benefit. In the one-sided model with no risk until year 3, an ACO would begin to accrue shared savings at a rate of 50% after an initial 2% of savings compared with a risk-adjusted per capita benchmark based on performance during the previous 3 years. In the second plan, an ACO would immediately realize shared savings at a rate of 60% as long as savings were achieved compared with prior benchmark performance. However, in this second model, the ACO would be at risk to repay a share of all losses that were more than 2% higher than the benchmark expenditures, with loss caps of 5%, 7.5%, and 10% above benchmark in years 1, 2, and 3, respectively.
Structure of an ACO
Under the proposed rule, the minimum population size of Medicare beneficiaries is 5,000 patients, with some exceptions in rural or other shortage areas, or areas with critical access hospitals. ACO founders can be primary care physicians, primary care independent practice associations, or employee groups. Participants may include hospitals, critical access hospitals, specialists, and other providers. The ACO must be a legal entity with its own tax identification number and its own governance and management structure.
Concerns have been expressed that, in some markets, certain groups may come together and achieve market dominance with more than half of the population. Proposed ACOs with less than 30% of the market share will be exempt from antitrust concerns, and those with greater than 50% of market share will undergo detailed review.
Patient assignment
Patients will be assigned to an ACO retrospectively, at the end of the 3 years. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services argues that retrospective assignment will encourage the ACO to design a system to help all patients, not just those assigned to the ACO.
Patients may not opt out of being counted against ACO performance measures. Although Medicare will share beneficiaries’ data with the ACO retrospectively so that it can learn more about costs per patient, patients may opt out of this data-sharing. Patients also retain unrestricted choice to see other providers, with attribution of costs incurred to the ACO.
Quality and reporting
The proposed rule has 65 equally weighted quality measures, many of which are not presently reported by most health care organizations. The measures fall within five broad categories: patient and caregiver experience, care coordination, patient safety, preventive health, and managing at-risk populations, including the frail elderly. Bonus payments for cost-savings will be adjusted based on meeting the quality measures.
Governance and management
Under the proposed rule, an ACO must meet stringent governance requirements. It must be a distinct legal entity as governed by state law. There must be proportional representation of all participants (eg, hospitals, community organizations, providers), comprising at least 75% of its Board of Trustees. These members must have authority to execute statutory functions of the ACO. Medicare beneficiaries and community stakeholder organizations must also be represented on the Board.
ACO operations must be managed by an executive director, manager, or general partner, who may or may not be a physician. A board-certified physician who is licensed in the state in which the ACO is domiciled must serve on location as the full-time, senior-level medical director, overseeing and managing clinical operations. A leadership team must be able to influence clinical practice, and a physician-directed process-improvement and quality-assurance committee is required.
Infrastructure and policies
The proposed rule outlines a number of infrastructure and policy requirements that must be addressed in the application process. These include:
- Written performance standards for quality and efficiency
- Evidence-based practice guidelines
- Tools to collect, evaluate, and share data to influence decision-making at the point of care
- Processes to identify and correct poor performance
- Description of how shared savings will be used to further improve care.
CONCERNS ABOUT THE PROPOSED NEW ACO RULE
While there is broad consensus in the health care community that the current system of care delivery fails to achieve the desired outcomes and is financially unsustainable and in need of reform, many concerns have been expressed about the proposed new ACO rule.
The regulations are too detailed. The regulations are highly prescriptive with detailed application, reporting, and regulatory requirements that create significant administrative burdens. Small medical groups are unlikely to have the administrative infrastructure to become involved.
Potential savings are inadequate. The shared savings concept has modest upside gain when modeled with holdback.16 Moreover, a recent analysis from the University Health System Consortium suggested that 50% of ACOs with 5,000 or more attributed lives would sustain unwarranted penalties as a result of random fluctuation of expenditures in the population.17
Participation involves a big investment. Participation requires significant resource investment, such as hiring chronic-disease managers and, in some practices, creating a whole new concept of managing wellness and continuity of care.
Retrospective beneficiary assignment is unpopular. Groups would generally prefer to know beforehand for whom they are responsible financially. A prospective assignment model was considered for the proposed rule but was ultimately rejected.
The patient assignment system is too risky. The plurality rule requires only a single visit with the ACO in order to be responsible for a patient for the entire year. In addition, the fact that the patient has the freedom to choose care elsewhere with expense assigned to the ACO confers significant financial risk.
There are too many quality measures. The high number of quality metrics—65—required to be measured and reported is onerous for most organizations.
Advertising is micromanaged. All marketing materials that are sent to patients about the ACO and any subsequent revisions must first be approved by Medicare, a potentially burdensome and time-consuming requirement.
Specialists are excluded. Using only generalists could actually be less cost-effective for some patients, such as those with human immunodeficiency virus, end-stage renal disease, certain malignancies, or advanced congestive heart failure.
Provider replacement is prohibited. Providers cannot be replaced over the 3 years of the demonstration, but the departing physician’s patients are still the responsibility of the plan. This would be especially problematic for small practices.
PREDICTING ACO READINESS
I believe there are five core competencies that are required to be an ACO:
- Operational excellence in care delivery
- Ability to deliver care across the continuum
- Cultural alignment among participating organizations
- Technical and informatics support to manage individual and population data
- Physician alignment around the concept of the ACO.
Certain strategies will increase the chances of success of an ACO:
Reduce emergency department usage and hospitalization. Cost-savings in patient-centered medical homes have been greatest by reducing hospitalizations, rehospitalizations, and emergency department visits.
Develop a high-quality, efficient primary care network. Have enough of a share in the primary care physician network to deliver effective primary care. Make sure there is good access to care and effective communication between patients and the primary care network. Deliver comprehensive services and have good care coordination. Aggressively manage communication, care coordination, and “hand-offs” across the care continuum and with specialists.
Create an effective patient-centered medical home. The current reimbursement climate fails to incentivize all of the necessary elements, which ultimately need to include chronic-care coordinators for medically complex patients, pharmacy support for patient medication management, adequate support staff to optimize efficiency, and a culture of wellness and necessary resources to support wellness.
PHYSICIANS NEED TO DRIVE SOLUTIONS
Soaring health care costs in the United States, poor quality outcomes, and increasing fragmentation of care are the major drivers of health care reform. The Patient Centered Medical Home is a key component to the solution and has already been shown to improve outcomes and lower costs. Further refinement of this concept and implementation should be priorities for primary care physicians and health care organizations.
The ACO concept attempts to further improve quality and lower costs. The proposed ACO rule released by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services on March 31, 2011, has generated significant controversy in the health care community. In its current form, few health care systems are likely to participate. A revised rule is awaited in the coming months. In the meantime, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services has released a request for application for a Pioneer ACO model, which offers up to 30 organizations the opportunity to participate in an ACO pilot that allows for prospective patient assignment and greater shared savings.
Whether ACOs as proposed achieve widespread implementation remains to be seen. However, the current system of health care delivery in this country is broken. Physicians and health care systems need to drive solutions to the challenges we face about quality, cost, access, care coordination, and outcomes.
The US health care system cannot continue with “business as usual.” The current model is broken: it does not deliver the kind of care we want for our patients, ourselves, our families, and our communities. It is our role as professionals to help drive change and make medical care more cost-effective and of higher quality, with better satisfaction for patients as well as for providers.
Central to efforts to reform the system are two concepts. One is the “patient-centered medical home,” in which a single provider is responsible for coordinating care for individual patients. The other is “accountable care organizations,” a new way of organizing care along a continuum from doctor to hospital, mandated by the new health care reform law (technically known as the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act).
CURRENT STATE OF HEALTH CARE: HIGH COST AND POOR QUALITY
Since health care reform was initially proposed in the 1990s, trends in the United States have grown steadily worse. Escalating health care costs have outstripped inflation, consuming an increasing percentage of the gross domestic product (GDP) at an unsustainable rate. Despite increased spending, quality outcomes are suboptimal. In addition, with the emergence of specialization and technology, care is increasingly fragmented and poorly coordinated, with multiple providers and poorly managed resources.
Over the last 15 years, the United States has far surpassed most countries in the developed world for total health care expenditures per capita.1,2 In 2009, we spent 17.4% of our GDP on health care, translating to $7,960 per capita, while Japan spent only 8.5% of its GDP, averaging $2,878 per capita.2 At the current rate, health care spending in the United States will increase from $2.5 trillion in 2009 to over $4.6 trillion in 2020.3
Paradoxically, costlier care is often of poorer quality. Many countries that spend far less per capita on health care achieve far better outcomes. Even within the United States, greater Medicare spending on a state and regional basis tends to correlate with poorer quality of care.4 Spending among Medicare beneficiaries is not standardized and varies widely throughout the country.5 The amount of care a patient receives also varies dramatically by region. The number of specialists involved in care during the last year of life is steadily increasing in many regions of the country, indicating poor care coordination.6
PATIENT-CENTERED MEDICAL HOMES: A POSITIVE TREND
The problems of high cost, poor quality, and poor coordination of care have led to the emergence of the concept of the patient-centered medical home. Originally proposed in 1967 by the American Academy of Pediatrics in response to the need for care coordination by a single physician, the idea did not really take root until the early 1990s. In 2002, the American Academy of Family Medicine embraced the concept and moved it forward.
According to the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA), a nonprofit organization that provides voluntary certification for medical organizations, the patient-centered medical home is a model of care in which “patients have a direct relationship with a provider who coordinates a cooperative team of healthcare professionals, takes collective responsibility for the care provided to the patient, and arranges for appropriate care with other qualified providers as needed.”7
Patient-centered medical homes are supposed to improve quality outcomes and lower costs. In addition, they can compete for public or private incentives that reward this model of care and, as we will see later, are at the heart of ACO readiness.
Medical homes meet certification standards
NCQA first formally licensed patient-centered medical homes in 2008, based on nine standards and six key elements. A scoring system was used to rank the level of certification from level 1 (the lowest) to level 3. From 2008 to the end of 2010, the number of certified homes grew from 28 to 1,506. New York has the largest number of medical homes.
The new elements in the NCQA program align more closely with federal programs that are designed to drive quality, including the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services program to encourage the use of the electronic medical record, and with federal rule-making this last spring designed to implement accountable care organizations (ACOs).
Same-day access is now emphasized, as is managing patient populations—rather than just individual patients—with certain chronic diseases, such as diabetes and congestive heart failure. The requirements for tracking and coordinating care have profound implications about how resources are allocated. Ideally, coordinators of chronic disease management are embedded within practices to help manage high-risk patients, although the current reimbursement mechanism does not support this model. Population management may not be feasible for institutions that still rely on paper-based medical records.
Medical homes lower costs, improve quality
Integrated delivery system models such as patient-centered medical homes have demonstrated cost-savings while improving quality of care.8,9 Reducing hospital admissions and visits to the emergency department shows the greatest cost-savings in these models. Several projects have shown significant cost-savings10:
The Group Health Cooperative of Puget Sound reduced total costs by $10 per member per month (from $498 to $488, P = 0.76), with a 16% reduction in hospital admissions (P < .001) and a 29% reduction in emergency department visits (P < .001).
The Geisinger Health System Proven-Health Navigator in Pennsylvania reduced readmissions by 18% (P < .01). They also had a 7% reduction in total costs per member per month relative to a matched control group also in the Geisinger system but not in a medical home, although this difference did not reach statistical significance. Private payer demonstration projects of patient-centered medical homes have also shown cost-savings.
Blue Cross Blue Shield of South Carolina randomized patients to participate in either a patient-centered medical home or their standard system. The patient-centered medical home group had 36% fewer hospital days, 12.4% fewer emergency department visits, and a 6.5% reduction in total medical and pharmacy costs compared with controls.
Finally, the use of chronic care coordinators in a patient-centered medical home has been shown to be cost-effective and can lower the overall cost of care despite the investment to hire them. Johns Hopkins Guided Care program demonstrated a 24% reduction in hospital days, 15% fewer emergency department visits, and a 37% reduction in days in a skilled nursing facility. The annual net Medicare savings was $75,000 per coordinator nurse hired.
ACCOUNTABLE CARE ORGANIZATIONS: A NEW SYSTEM OF HEALTH CARE DELIVERY
While the patient-centered medical home is designed to improve the coordination of care among physicians, ACOs have the broader goal of coordinating care across the entire continuum of health care, from physicians to hospitals to other clinicians. The concept of ACOs was spawned in 2006 by Elliott S. Fisher, MD, MPH, of the Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice. The idea is that, by improving care coordination within an ACO and reducing fragmented care, costs can be controlled and outcomes improved. Of course, the devil is in the details.
As part of its health care reform initiative, the state of Massachusetts’ Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System defined ACOs as health care delivery systems composed of hospitals, physicians, and other clinician and nonclinician providers that manage care across the entire spectrum of care. An ACO could be a real (incorporated) or virtual (contractually networked) organization, for example, a large physician organization that would contract with one or more hospitals and ancillary providers.11
In a 2009 report to Congress, the Medicare Payment Advisory Committee (MedPac) similarly defined ACOs for the Medicare population. But MedPac also introduced the concept of financial risk: providers in the ACO would share in efficiency gains from improved care coordination and could be subjected to financial penalties for poor performance, depending on the structure of the ACO.12
But what has placed ACOs at center stage is the new health care reform law, which encourages the formation of ACOs. On March 31, 2011, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services published proposed rules to implement ACOs for Medicare patients (they appeared in the Federal Register on April 7, 2011).13,14 Comments on the 129-page proposed rules were due by June 6, 2011. Final rules are supposed to be published later this year.
The proposed new rule has a three-part aim:
- Better care for individuals, as described by all six dimensions of quality in the Institute of Medicine report “Crossing the Quality Chasm”15: safety, effectiveness, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity
- Better health for populations, with respect to educating beneficiaries about the major causes of ill health—poor nutrition, physical inactivity, substance abuse, and poverty—as well as about the importance of preventive services such as an annual physical examination and annual influenza vaccination
- Lower growth in expenditures by eliminating waste and inefficiencies while not withholding any needed care that helps beneficiaries.
DETAILS OF THE PROPOSED ACO RULE
Here are some of the highlights of the proposed ACO rule.
Two shared-savings options
Although the program could start as soon as January 1, 2012, the application process is formidable, so this timeline may not be realistic. Moreover, a final rule is pending.
The proposed rule requires at least a 3-year contract, and primary care physicians must be included. Shared savings will be available and will depend on an ACO’s ability to manage costs and to achieve quality target performances. Two shared-savings options will be available: one with no risk until the third year and the other with risk during all 3 years but greater potential benefit. In the one-sided model with no risk until year 3, an ACO would begin to accrue shared savings at a rate of 50% after an initial 2% of savings compared with a risk-adjusted per capita benchmark based on performance during the previous 3 years. In the second plan, an ACO would immediately realize shared savings at a rate of 60% as long as savings were achieved compared with prior benchmark performance. However, in this second model, the ACO would be at risk to repay a share of all losses that were more than 2% higher than the benchmark expenditures, with loss caps of 5%, 7.5%, and 10% above benchmark in years 1, 2, and 3, respectively.
Structure of an ACO
Under the proposed rule, the minimum population size of Medicare beneficiaries is 5,000 patients, with some exceptions in rural or other shortage areas, or areas with critical access hospitals. ACO founders can be primary care physicians, primary care independent practice associations, or employee groups. Participants may include hospitals, critical access hospitals, specialists, and other providers. The ACO must be a legal entity with its own tax identification number and its own governance and management structure.
Concerns have been expressed that, in some markets, certain groups may come together and achieve market dominance with more than half of the population. Proposed ACOs with less than 30% of the market share will be exempt from antitrust concerns, and those with greater than 50% of market share will undergo detailed review.
Patient assignment
Patients will be assigned to an ACO retrospectively, at the end of the 3 years. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services argues that retrospective assignment will encourage the ACO to design a system to help all patients, not just those assigned to the ACO.
Patients may not opt out of being counted against ACO performance measures. Although Medicare will share beneficiaries’ data with the ACO retrospectively so that it can learn more about costs per patient, patients may opt out of this data-sharing. Patients also retain unrestricted choice to see other providers, with attribution of costs incurred to the ACO.
Quality and reporting
The proposed rule has 65 equally weighted quality measures, many of which are not presently reported by most health care organizations. The measures fall within five broad categories: patient and caregiver experience, care coordination, patient safety, preventive health, and managing at-risk populations, including the frail elderly. Bonus payments for cost-savings will be adjusted based on meeting the quality measures.
Governance and management
Under the proposed rule, an ACO must meet stringent governance requirements. It must be a distinct legal entity as governed by state law. There must be proportional representation of all participants (eg, hospitals, community organizations, providers), comprising at least 75% of its Board of Trustees. These members must have authority to execute statutory functions of the ACO. Medicare beneficiaries and community stakeholder organizations must also be represented on the Board.
ACO operations must be managed by an executive director, manager, or general partner, who may or may not be a physician. A board-certified physician who is licensed in the state in which the ACO is domiciled must serve on location as the full-time, senior-level medical director, overseeing and managing clinical operations. A leadership team must be able to influence clinical practice, and a physician-directed process-improvement and quality-assurance committee is required.
Infrastructure and policies
The proposed rule outlines a number of infrastructure and policy requirements that must be addressed in the application process. These include:
- Written performance standards for quality and efficiency
- Evidence-based practice guidelines
- Tools to collect, evaluate, and share data to influence decision-making at the point of care
- Processes to identify and correct poor performance
- Description of how shared savings will be used to further improve care.
CONCERNS ABOUT THE PROPOSED NEW ACO RULE
While there is broad consensus in the health care community that the current system of care delivery fails to achieve the desired outcomes and is financially unsustainable and in need of reform, many concerns have been expressed about the proposed new ACO rule.
The regulations are too detailed. The regulations are highly prescriptive with detailed application, reporting, and regulatory requirements that create significant administrative burdens. Small medical groups are unlikely to have the administrative infrastructure to become involved.
Potential savings are inadequate. The shared savings concept has modest upside gain when modeled with holdback.16 Moreover, a recent analysis from the University Health System Consortium suggested that 50% of ACOs with 5,000 or more attributed lives would sustain unwarranted penalties as a result of random fluctuation of expenditures in the population.17
Participation involves a big investment. Participation requires significant resource investment, such as hiring chronic-disease managers and, in some practices, creating a whole new concept of managing wellness and continuity of care.
Retrospective beneficiary assignment is unpopular. Groups would generally prefer to know beforehand for whom they are responsible financially. A prospective assignment model was considered for the proposed rule but was ultimately rejected.
The patient assignment system is too risky. The plurality rule requires only a single visit with the ACO in order to be responsible for a patient for the entire year. In addition, the fact that the patient has the freedom to choose care elsewhere with expense assigned to the ACO confers significant financial risk.
There are too many quality measures. The high number of quality metrics—65—required to be measured and reported is onerous for most organizations.
Advertising is micromanaged. All marketing materials that are sent to patients about the ACO and any subsequent revisions must first be approved by Medicare, a potentially burdensome and time-consuming requirement.
Specialists are excluded. Using only generalists could actually be less cost-effective for some patients, such as those with human immunodeficiency virus, end-stage renal disease, certain malignancies, or advanced congestive heart failure.
Provider replacement is prohibited. Providers cannot be replaced over the 3 years of the demonstration, but the departing physician’s patients are still the responsibility of the plan. This would be especially problematic for small practices.
PREDICTING ACO READINESS
I believe there are five core competencies that are required to be an ACO:
- Operational excellence in care delivery
- Ability to deliver care across the continuum
- Cultural alignment among participating organizations
- Technical and informatics support to manage individual and population data
- Physician alignment around the concept of the ACO.
Certain strategies will increase the chances of success of an ACO:
Reduce emergency department usage and hospitalization. Cost-savings in patient-centered medical homes have been greatest by reducing hospitalizations, rehospitalizations, and emergency department visits.
Develop a high-quality, efficient primary care network. Have enough of a share in the primary care physician network to deliver effective primary care. Make sure there is good access to care and effective communication between patients and the primary care network. Deliver comprehensive services and have good care coordination. Aggressively manage communication, care coordination, and “hand-offs” across the care continuum and with specialists.
Create an effective patient-centered medical home. The current reimbursement climate fails to incentivize all of the necessary elements, which ultimately need to include chronic-care coordinators for medically complex patients, pharmacy support for patient medication management, adequate support staff to optimize efficiency, and a culture of wellness and necessary resources to support wellness.
PHYSICIANS NEED TO DRIVE SOLUTIONS
Soaring health care costs in the United States, poor quality outcomes, and increasing fragmentation of care are the major drivers of health care reform. The Patient Centered Medical Home is a key component to the solution and has already been shown to improve outcomes and lower costs. Further refinement of this concept and implementation should be priorities for primary care physicians and health care organizations.
The ACO concept attempts to further improve quality and lower costs. The proposed ACO rule released by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services on March 31, 2011, has generated significant controversy in the health care community. In its current form, few health care systems are likely to participate. A revised rule is awaited in the coming months. In the meantime, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services has released a request for application for a Pioneer ACO model, which offers up to 30 organizations the opportunity to participate in an ACO pilot that allows for prospective patient assignment and greater shared savings.
Whether ACOs as proposed achieve widespread implementation remains to be seen. However, the current system of health care delivery in this country is broken. Physicians and health care systems need to drive solutions to the challenges we face about quality, cost, access, care coordination, and outcomes.
- The Concord Coalition. Escalating Health Care Costs and the Federal Budget. April 2, 2009. http://www.concordcoalition.org/files/uploaded_for_nodes/docs/Iowa_Handout_final.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Henry J. Kaiser Family Foundation. Snapshots: Health Care Costs. Health Care Spending in the United States and OECD Countries. April 2011. http://www.kff.org/insurance/snapshot/OECD042111.cfm. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. National health expenditure projections 2010–2020. http://www.cms.gov/NationalHealthExpendData/downloads/proj2010.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Commonwealth Fund. Performance snapshots, 2006. http://www.cmwf.org/snapshots. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Fisher E, Goodman D, Skinner J, Bronner K. Health care spending, quality, and outcomes. More isn’t always better. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2009. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/Spending_Brief_022709.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Goodman DC, Esty AR, Fisher ES, Chang C-H. Trends and variation in end-of-life care for Medicare beneficiaries with severe chronic illness. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2011. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/EOL_Trend_Report_0411.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA). Leveraging health IT to achieve ambulatory quality: the patient-centered medical home (PCMH). www.ncqa.org/Portals/0/Public%20Policy/HIMSS_NCQA_PCMH_Factsheet.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Bodenheimer T. Lessons from the trenches—a high-functioning primary care clinic. N Eng J Med 2011; 365:5–8.
- Gabbay RA, Bailit MH, Mauger DT, Wagner EH, Siminerio L. Multipayer patient-centered medical home implementation guided by the chronic care model. Jt Comm J Qual Patient Saf 2011; 37:265–273.
- Grumbach K, Grundy P. Outcomes of implementing Patient Centered Medical Home interventions: a review of the evidence from prospective evaluation studies in the United States. Patient-Centered Primary Care Collaborative. November 16, 2010. http://www.pcpcc.net/files/evidence_outcomes_in_pcmh.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Kirwan LA, Iselin S. Recommendations of the Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System. Commonwealth of Massachusetts, July 16, 2009. http://www.mass.gov/Eeohhs2/docs/dhcfp/pc/Final_Report/Final_Report.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Medicare Payment Advisory Commission. Report to the Congress. Improving incentives in the Medicare Program. http://www.medpac.gov/documents/jun09_entirereport.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Archives and Records Administration. Federal Register Volume 76, Number 67, Thursday, April 7, 2011. http://edocket.access.gpo.gov/2011/pdf/2011-7880.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Berwick DM. Launching accountable care organizations—the proposed rule for the Medicare Shared Savings Program. N Engl J Med 2011; 364:e32.
- Institute of Medicine. Crossing the Quality Chasm. Washington, DC: National Academy Press; 2001.
- Fitch K, Mirkin D, Murphy-Barron C, Parke R, Pyenson B. A first look at ACOs’ risky business: quality is not enough. Seattle, WA: Millman, Inc; 2011. http://publications.milliman.com/publications/healthreform/pdfs/at-first-lookacos.pdf. Accessed August 10, 2011.
- University HealthSystem Consortium. Accountable care organizations: a measured view for academic medical centers. May 2011.
- The Concord Coalition. Escalating Health Care Costs and the Federal Budget. April 2, 2009. http://www.concordcoalition.org/files/uploaded_for_nodes/docs/Iowa_Handout_final.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Henry J. Kaiser Family Foundation. Snapshots: Health Care Costs. Health Care Spending in the United States and OECD Countries. April 2011. http://www.kff.org/insurance/snapshot/OECD042111.cfm. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. National health expenditure projections 2010–2020. http://www.cms.gov/NationalHealthExpendData/downloads/proj2010.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- The Commonwealth Fund. Performance snapshots, 2006. http://www.cmwf.org/snapshots. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Fisher E, Goodman D, Skinner J, Bronner K. Health care spending, quality, and outcomes. More isn’t always better. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2009. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/Spending_Brief_022709.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Goodman DC, Esty AR, Fisher ES, Chang C-H. Trends and variation in end-of-life care for Medicare beneficiaries with severe chronic illness. The Dartmouth Atlas of Health Care. The Dartmouth Institute for Health Policy and Clinical Practice, 2011. http://www.dartmouthatlas.org/downloads/reports/EOL_Trend_Report_0411.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA). Leveraging health IT to achieve ambulatory quality: the patient-centered medical home (PCMH). www.ncqa.org/Portals/0/Public%20Policy/HIMSS_NCQA_PCMH_Factsheet.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Bodenheimer T. Lessons from the trenches—a high-functioning primary care clinic. N Eng J Med 2011; 365:5–8.
- Gabbay RA, Bailit MH, Mauger DT, Wagner EH, Siminerio L. Multipayer patient-centered medical home implementation guided by the chronic care model. Jt Comm J Qual Patient Saf 2011; 37:265–273.
- Grumbach K, Grundy P. Outcomes of implementing Patient Centered Medical Home interventions: a review of the evidence from prospective evaluation studies in the United States. Patient-Centered Primary Care Collaborative. November 16, 2010. http://www.pcpcc.net/files/evidence_outcomes_in_pcmh.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Kirwan LA, Iselin S. Recommendations of the Special Commission on the Health Care Payment System. Commonwealth of Massachusetts, July 16, 2009. http://www.mass.gov/Eeohhs2/docs/dhcfp/pc/Final_Report/Final_Report.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Medicare Payment Advisory Commission. Report to the Congress. Improving incentives in the Medicare Program. http://www.medpac.gov/documents/jun09_entirereport.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- National Archives and Records Administration. Federal Register Volume 76, Number 67, Thursday, April 7, 2011. http://edocket.access.gpo.gov/2011/pdf/2011-7880.pdf. Accessed August 8, 2011.
- Berwick DM. Launching accountable care organizations—the proposed rule for the Medicare Shared Savings Program. N Engl J Med 2011; 364:e32.
- Institute of Medicine. Crossing the Quality Chasm. Washington, DC: National Academy Press; 2001.
- Fitch K, Mirkin D, Murphy-Barron C, Parke R, Pyenson B. A first look at ACOs’ risky business: quality is not enough. Seattle, WA: Millman, Inc; 2011. http://publications.milliman.com/publications/healthreform/pdfs/at-first-lookacos.pdf. Accessed August 10, 2011.
- University HealthSystem Consortium. Accountable care organizations: a measured view for academic medical centers. May 2011.
KEY POINTS
- Compared with other developed countries, health care in the United States is among the costliest and has poor quality measures.
- The patient-centered medical home is an increasingly popular model that emphasizes continuous coordinated patient care. It has been shown to lower costs while improving health care outcomes.
- Patient-centered medical homes are at the heart of ACOs, which establish a team approach to health care delivery systems that includes doctors and hospitals.
- Applications are now being accepted for participation in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services’ ACO Proposed Rule. The 3-year minimum contract specifies numerous details regarding structure, governance, and management, and may or may not involve risk—as well as savings—according to the plan chosen.
When to stop treating the bones
Dr. Susan M. Ott, in this issue of the Journal, argues that many patients on bisphosphonate therapy for more than 5 years should be offered a “drug holiday.” She proposes a simple algorithm that uses measurement of bone turnover and bone density to decide whether to continue therapy, the assumption being that having accumulated in bone, the drug effect will persist after discontinuation.
This will please many patients, who prefer taking fewer drugs. Cost and potential adverse effects are their concerns. Physicians worry about adynamic bone, and as bisphosphonates accumulate in bone with prolonged therapy, they may ultimately increase the incidence of what are now rare adverse effects, ie, jaw necrosis and linear atypical fractures of the femur. To date, we have little evidence that continued drug exposure will cause more of these severe complications, but lack of data is not so comforting.
The data that support taking a bisphosphonate holiday after 5 years (vs continuing therapy for 10 years) are scant compared with the data supporting their initial benefit. The FLEX study (J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982), as Dr. Ott notes, provides only tenuous benefit for the longer therapy option (with alendronate). Benefit of 10 vs 5 years of therapy is based on subset analysis of a relevant but small group of patients in this study (those with a femoral neck T score lower than −2.5 and no vertebral fracture at baseline). Patients in this subset suffered more nonvertebral fractures after stopping the drug at 5 years. Data with other bisphosphonates may well differ. For the other subsets, 10 years of therapy did not seem better than 5. But the numbers are small, certainly too small to offer insight on the incidence of rare side effects developing with the extra 5 years of therapy.
My personal take: on the basis of limited data, I am worried about halting these drugs in patients at highest risk for fracture—those with severe osteoporosis and many prior fractures or ongoing corticosteroid use. In patients with osteoporosis but lower risk of fracture, I have increasingly offered drug holidays. Although it is clearly not based on large interventional outcome studies, I am more inclined to utilize markers of bone turnover than repeated bone density measurements in patients who have been taking bisphosphonates. Chronic bisphosphonate therapy may alter the relationship between density and fracture risk, akin (but opposite) to the way that corticosteroids increase fracture risk above what is suggested by bone density measurements.
But don’t let this discussion about how long to treat stand in the way of initiating therapy in osteoporotic patients at significant risk of fracture.
Dr. Susan M. Ott, in this issue of the Journal, argues that many patients on bisphosphonate therapy for more than 5 years should be offered a “drug holiday.” She proposes a simple algorithm that uses measurement of bone turnover and bone density to decide whether to continue therapy, the assumption being that having accumulated in bone, the drug effect will persist after discontinuation.
This will please many patients, who prefer taking fewer drugs. Cost and potential adverse effects are their concerns. Physicians worry about adynamic bone, and as bisphosphonates accumulate in bone with prolonged therapy, they may ultimately increase the incidence of what are now rare adverse effects, ie, jaw necrosis and linear atypical fractures of the femur. To date, we have little evidence that continued drug exposure will cause more of these severe complications, but lack of data is not so comforting.
The data that support taking a bisphosphonate holiday after 5 years (vs continuing therapy for 10 years) are scant compared with the data supporting their initial benefit. The FLEX study (J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982), as Dr. Ott notes, provides only tenuous benefit for the longer therapy option (with alendronate). Benefit of 10 vs 5 years of therapy is based on subset analysis of a relevant but small group of patients in this study (those with a femoral neck T score lower than −2.5 and no vertebral fracture at baseline). Patients in this subset suffered more nonvertebral fractures after stopping the drug at 5 years. Data with other bisphosphonates may well differ. For the other subsets, 10 years of therapy did not seem better than 5. But the numbers are small, certainly too small to offer insight on the incidence of rare side effects developing with the extra 5 years of therapy.
My personal take: on the basis of limited data, I am worried about halting these drugs in patients at highest risk for fracture—those with severe osteoporosis and many prior fractures or ongoing corticosteroid use. In patients with osteoporosis but lower risk of fracture, I have increasingly offered drug holidays. Although it is clearly not based on large interventional outcome studies, I am more inclined to utilize markers of bone turnover than repeated bone density measurements in patients who have been taking bisphosphonates. Chronic bisphosphonate therapy may alter the relationship between density and fracture risk, akin (but opposite) to the way that corticosteroids increase fracture risk above what is suggested by bone density measurements.
But don’t let this discussion about how long to treat stand in the way of initiating therapy in osteoporotic patients at significant risk of fracture.
Dr. Susan M. Ott, in this issue of the Journal, argues that many patients on bisphosphonate therapy for more than 5 years should be offered a “drug holiday.” She proposes a simple algorithm that uses measurement of bone turnover and bone density to decide whether to continue therapy, the assumption being that having accumulated in bone, the drug effect will persist after discontinuation.
This will please many patients, who prefer taking fewer drugs. Cost and potential adverse effects are their concerns. Physicians worry about adynamic bone, and as bisphosphonates accumulate in bone with prolonged therapy, they may ultimately increase the incidence of what are now rare adverse effects, ie, jaw necrosis and linear atypical fractures of the femur. To date, we have little evidence that continued drug exposure will cause more of these severe complications, but lack of data is not so comforting.
The data that support taking a bisphosphonate holiday after 5 years (vs continuing therapy for 10 years) are scant compared with the data supporting their initial benefit. The FLEX study (J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982), as Dr. Ott notes, provides only tenuous benefit for the longer therapy option (with alendronate). Benefit of 10 vs 5 years of therapy is based on subset analysis of a relevant but small group of patients in this study (those with a femoral neck T score lower than −2.5 and no vertebral fracture at baseline). Patients in this subset suffered more nonvertebral fractures after stopping the drug at 5 years. Data with other bisphosphonates may well differ. For the other subsets, 10 years of therapy did not seem better than 5. But the numbers are small, certainly too small to offer insight on the incidence of rare side effects developing with the extra 5 years of therapy.
My personal take: on the basis of limited data, I am worried about halting these drugs in patients at highest risk for fracture—those with severe osteoporosis and many prior fractures or ongoing corticosteroid use. In patients with osteoporosis but lower risk of fracture, I have increasingly offered drug holidays. Although it is clearly not based on large interventional outcome studies, I am more inclined to utilize markers of bone turnover than repeated bone density measurements in patients who have been taking bisphosphonates. Chronic bisphosphonate therapy may alter the relationship between density and fracture risk, akin (but opposite) to the way that corticosteroids increase fracture risk above what is suggested by bone density measurements.
But don’t let this discussion about how long to treat stand in the way of initiating therapy in osteoporotic patients at significant risk of fracture.
What is the optimal duration of bisphosphonate therapy?
Almost all the data about the safety and efficacy of bisphosphonate drugs for treating osteoporosis are from patients who took them for less than 5 years.
Reports of adverse effects with prolonged use have caused concern about the long-term safety of this class of drugs. This is particularly important because these drugs are retained in the skeleton longer than 10 years, because there are physiologic reasons why excessive bisphosphonate-induced inhibition of bone turnover could be damaging, and because many healthy postmenopausal women have been prescribed bisphosphonates in the hope of preventing fractures that are not expected to occur for 20 to 30 years.
Because information from trials is scant, opinions differ over whether bisphosphonates should be continued indefinitely. In this article, I summarize the physiologic mechanisms of these drugs, review the scant existing data about their effects beyond 5 years, and describe my approach to bisphosphonate therapy (while waiting for better evidence).
MORE THAN 4 MILLION WOMEN TAKE BISPHOSPHONATES
The first medical use of a bisphosphonate was in 1967, when a girl with myositis ossificans was given etidronate (Didronel) because it inhibited mineralization. Two years later, it was given to patients with Paget disease of bone because it was found to inhibit bone resorption.1 Etidronate could not be given for longer than 6 months, however, because patients developed osteomalacia.
Adding a nitrogen to the molecule dramatically increased its potency and led to the second generation of bisphosphonates. Alendronate (Fosamax), the first amino-bisphosphonate, became available in 1995, It was followed by risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate (Boniva), and zoledronic acid (Reclast). These drugs are potent inhibitors of bone resorption; however, in clinical doses they do not inhibit mineralization and therefore do not cause osteomalacia.
Randomized clinical trials involving more than 30,000 patients have provided grade A evidence that these drugs reduce the incidence of fragility fractures in patients with osteoporosis.2 Furthermore, observational studies have confirmed that they prevent fractures and have a good safety profile in clinical practice.
Therefore, the use of these drugs has become common. In 2008, an estimated 4 million women in the United States were taking them.3
BISPHOSPHONATES STRENGTHEN BONE BY INHIBITING RESORPTION
On a molecular level, bisphosphonates inhibit farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, an enzyme necessary for formation of the cytoskeleton in osteoclasts. Thus, they strongly inhibit bone resorption. They do not appear to directly inhibit osteoblasts, the cells that form new bone, but they substantially decrease bone formation indirectly.4
To understand how inhibition of bone resorption affects bone physiology, it is necessary to appreciate the nature of bone remodeling. Bone is not like the skin, which is continually forming a new layer and sloughing off the old. Instead, bone is renewed in small units. It takes about 5 years to remodel cancellous bone and 13 years to remodel cortical bone5; at any one time, about 8% of the surface is being remodeled.
The first step occurs at a spot on the surface, where the osteoclasts resorb some bone to form a pit that looks like a pothole. Then a team of osteoblasts is formed and fills the pit with new bone over the next 3 to 6 months. When first formed, the new bone is mainly collagen and, like the tip of the nose, is not very stiff, but with mineral deposition the bone becomes stronger, like the bridge of the nose. The new bone gradually accumulates mineral and becomes harder and denser over the next 3 years.
When a bisphosphonate is given, the osteoclasts abruptly stop resorbing the bone, but osteoblasts continue to fill the pits that were there when the bisphosphonate was started. For the next several months, while the previous pits are being filled, the bone volume increases slightly. Thereafter, rates of both bone resorption and bone formation are very low.
A misconception: Bisphosphonates build bone
While semantically it is true that the bone formation rate in patients taking bisphosphonates is within the normal premenopausal range, this often-repeated statement is essentially misleading.
With continued bisphosphonate use, the bone gradually becomes more dense. There is no further new bone, but the existing bone matrix is packed more tightly with mineral crystals.9 The old bone is not resorbed. The bone density, measured radiographically, increases most rapidly during the first 6 months (while resorption pits are filling in) and more gradually over the next 3 years (while bone is becoming more mineralized).
Another common misunderstanding is that the bone density increases because the drugs are “building bone.” After 3 years, the bone density in the femur reaches a plateau.10 I have seen patients who were very worried because their bone density was no longer increasing, and their physicians did not realize that this is the expected pattern. The spinal bone density continues to increase modestly, but some of this may be from disk space narrowing, harder bone edges, and soft-tissue calcifications. Spinal bone density frequently increases even in those on placebo.
Bisphosphonates suppress markers of bone turnover
These changes in bone remodeling with bisphosphonates are reflected by changes in markers of bone formation and resorption. The levels of markers of bone resorption—N-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (NTx) and C-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (CTx)—decrease rapidly and remain low. The markers of bone formation—propeptide of type I collagen, bone alkaline phosphatase, and osteocalcin—decrease gradually over 3 to 6 months and then remain low. As measured directly at the bone, bone formation appears to be more suppressed than as measured by biochemical markers in the serum.
In a risedronate trial,11 the fracture rate decreased as the biochemical markers of bone turnover decreased, except when the markers were very low, in which case the fracture rate increased.
Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate
The bisphosphonates do not significantly increase bone volume, but they prevent microscopic architectural deterioration of the bone, as shown on microscopic computed tomographic imaging.12 This prevents fractures for at least 5 years.
But bisphosphonates may have long-term negative effects. One purpose of bone remodeling is to refresh the bone and to repair the microscopic damage that accumulates within any structure. Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate. Because the development and repair of microcracks is complex, it is difficult to predict what will happen with long-term bisphosphonate use. Studies of biopsies from women taking bisphosphonates long-term are inconsistent: one study found accumulation of microcracks,13 but another did not.8
STUDIES OF LONG-TERM USE: FOCUS ON FRACTURES
For this review, I consider long-term bisphosphonate use to be greater than 5 years, and I will focus on fractures. Bone density is only a surrogate end point. Unfortunately, this fact is often not emphasized in the training of young physicians.
The best illustration of this point was in a randomized clinical trial of fluoride,14 in which the bone density of the treated group increased by 8% per year for 4 years, for a total increase of 32%. This is more than we ever see with current therapies. But the patients had more fractures with fluoride than with placebo. This is because the quality of bone produced after fluoride treatment is poor, and although the bone is denser, it is weaker.
Observational studies of fracture incidence in patients who continued taking bisphosphonates compared with those who stopped provide some weak evidence about long-term effectiveness.
Curtis et al15 found, in 9,063 women who were prescribed bisphosphonates, that those who stopped taking them during the first 2 years had higher rates of hip fracture than compliant patients. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 years and then stopped had a rate of hip fracture during the next year similar to that of those who continued taking the drugs.
Meijer et al16 used a database in the Netherlands to examine the fracture rates in 14,750 women who started taking a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis between 1996 and 2004. More than half of the women stopped taking the drug during the first year, and they served as the control group. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 to 4 years had significantly fewer fractures than those who stopped during the first year (odds ratio 0.54). However, those who took them for 5 to 6 years had slightly more fractures than those who took them for less than a year.
Mellström et al17 performed a 2-year uncontrolled extension of a 5-year trial of risedronate that had blinded controls.18 Initially, 407 women were in the risedronate group; 68 completed 7 years.
The vertebral fracture rate in the placebo group was 7.6% per year during years 0 through 3. In the risedronate group, the rate was 4.7% per year during years 0 through 3 and 3.8% per year during years 6 and 7. Nonvertebral fractures occurred in 10.9% of risedronate-treated patients during the first 3 years and in 6% during the last 2 years. Markers of bone turnover remained reduced throughout the 7 years. Bone mineral density of the spine and hip did not change from years 5 to 7. The study did not include those who took risedronate for 5 years and then discontinued it.
Bone et al19 performed a similar, 10-year uncontrolled extension of a 3-year controlled trial of alendronate.20 There were 398 patients randomly assigned to alendronate, and 164 remained in the study for 8 to 10 years.
During years 8 through 10, bone mineral density of the spine increased by about 2%; no change was seen in the hip or total body. The nonvertebral fracture rate was similar in years 0 through 3 and years 6 through 10. Vertebral fractures occurred in approximately 3% of women in the first 3 years and in 9% in the last 5 years.
The FLEX trial: Continuing alendronate vs stopping
Only one study compared continuing a bisphosphonate vs stopping it. The Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension (FLEX)10 was an extension of the Fracture Intervention Trial (FIT)21,22 of alendronate. I am reviewing this study in detail because it is the only one that randomized patients and was double-blinded.
In the original trial,21,22 3,236 women were in the alendronate group. After a mean of 5 years on alendronate, 1,099 of them were randomized into the alendronate or placebo group.10 Those with T scores lower than −3.5 or who had lost bone density during the first 5 years were excluded.
The bone mineral density of the hip in the placebo group decreased by 3.4%, whereas in the alendronate group it decreased by 1.0%. At the spine, the placebo group gained less than the alendronate group.
Despite these differences in bone density, no significant difference was noted in the rates of all clinical fractures, nonvertebral fractures, vertebral fractures as measured on radiographs taken for the study (“morphometric” fractures, 11.3% vs 9.8%), or in the number of severe vertebral fractures (those with more than a two-grade change on radiography) between those who took alendronate for 10 years and those who took it for 5 years followed by placebo for 5 years.
However, fewer “clinical spine fractures” were observed in the group continuing alendronate (2.4% vs 5.3%). A clinical spine fracture was one diagnosed by the patient’s personal physician.
In FIT, these clinical fractures were painful in 90% of patients, and although the community radiographs were reviewed by a central radiologist, only 73% of the fractures were confirmed by subsequent measurements on the per protocol radiographs done at the study centers. About one-fourth of the morphometric fractures were also clinical fractures.23 Therefore, I think morphometric fractures provide the best evidence about the effects of treatment—ie, that treatment beyond 5 years is not beneficial. Other physicians, however, disagree, emphasizing the 55% reduction in clinical fractures.24
Markers of bone turnover gradually increased after discontinuation but remained lower than baseline even after 5 years without alendronate.10 There were no significant differences in fracture rates between the placebo and alendronate groups in those with baseline bone mineral density T scores less than −2.5.10 Also, after age adjustment, the fracture incidence was similar in the FIT and the FLEX studies.
Several years later, the authors published a post hoc subgroup analysis of these data.25 The patients were divided into six subgroups based on bone density and the presence of vertebral fractures at baseline. This is weak evidence, but I include it because reviews in the literature have emphasized only the positive findings, or have misquoted the data: Schwartz et al stated that in those with T scores of −2.5 or below, the risk of nonvertebral fracture was reduced by 50%25; and Shane26 concluded in an editorial that the use of alendronate for 10 years, rather than for 5 years, was associated with significantly fewer new vertebral fractures and nonvertebral fractures in patients with a bone mineral density T score of −2.5 or below.26
ATYPICAL FEMUR FRACTURES
By March 2011, there were 55 papers describing a total of 283 cases, and about 85 individual cases (listed online in Ott SM. Osteoporosis and Bone Physiology. http://courses.washington.edu/bonephys/opsubtroch.html. Accessed 7/30/2011).
The mean age of the patients was 65, bisphosphonate use was longer than 5 years in 77% of cases, and bilateral fractures were seen in 48%.
The fractures occur with minor trauma, such as tripping, stepping off an elevator, or being jolted by a subway stop, and a disproportionate number of cases involve no trauma. They are often preceded by leg pain, typically in the mid-thigh.
These fractures are characterized by radiographic findings of a transverse fracture, with thickened cortices near the site of the fracture. Often, there is a peak on the cortex that may precede the fracture. These fractures initiate on the lateral side, and it is striking that they occur in the same horizontal plane on the contralateral side.
Radiographs and bone scans show stress fractures on the lateral side of the femur that resemble Looser zones (ie, dark lines seen radiographically). These radiographic features are not typical in osteoporosis but are reminiscent of the stress fractures seen with hypophosphatasia, an inherited disease characterized by severely decreased bone formation.31
Bone biopsy specimens show very low bone formation rates, but this is not a necessary feature. At the fracture site itself there is bone activity. For example, pathologists from St. Louis reviewed all iliac crest bone biopsies from patients seen between 2004 and 2007 who had an unusual cortical fracture while taking a bisphosphonate. An absence of double tetracycline labels was seen in 11 of the 16 patients.32
The first reports were anecdotal cases, then some centers reported systematic surveys of their patients. In a key report, Neviaser et al33 reviewed all low-trauma subtrochanteric fractures in their large hospital and found 20 cases with the atypical radiographic appearance; 19 of the patients in these cases had been taking a bisphosphonate. A similar survey in Australia found 41 cases with atypical radiographic features (out of 79 subtrochanteric low-trauma fractures), and all of the patients had been taking a bisphosphonate.34
By now, more than 230 cases have been reported. The estimated incidence is 1 in 1,000, based on a review of operative cases and radiographs.35
However, just because the drugs are associated with the fractures does not mean they caused the fractures, because the patients who took bisphosphonates were more likely to get a fracture in the first place. This confounding by indication makes it difficult to prove beyond a doubt that bisphosphonates cause atypical fractures.
Further, some studies have found no association between bisphosphonates and subtrochanteric fractures.36,37 These database analyses have relied on the coding of the International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision (ICD-9), and not on the examination of radiographs. We reviewed the ability of ICD-9 codes to identify subtrochanteric fractures and found that the predictive ability was only 36%.38 Even for fractures in the correct location, the codes cannot tell which cases have the typical spiral or comminuted fractures seen in osteoporosis and which have the unusual features of the bisphosphonate-associated fractures. Subtrochanteric and shaft fractures are about 10 times less common than hip fractures, and the atypical ones are about 10 times less common than typical ones, so studies based on ICD-9 codes cannot exonerate bisphosphonates.
A report of nearly 15,000 patients from randomized clinical trials did not find a significant incidence of subtrochanteric fractures, but the radiographs were not examined and only 500 of the patients had taken the medication for longer than 5 years.39
A population-based, nested case-control study using a database from Ontario, Canada, found an increased risk of diaphyseal femoral fractures in patients who had taken bisphosphonates longer than 5 years. The study included only women who had started bisphosphonates when they were older than 68, so many of the atypical fractures would have been missed. The investigators did not review the radiographs, so they combined both osteoporotic and atypical diaphyseal fractures in their analysis.40
At the 2010 meeting of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research, preliminary data were presented from a systematic review of radiographs of patients with fractures of the femur from a health care plan with data about the use of medications. The incidence of atypical fractures increased progressively with the duration of bisphosphonate use, and was significantly higher after 5 years compared with less than 3 years.28
OTHER POSSIBLE ADVERSE EFFECTS
There have been conflicting reports about esophageal cancer with bisphosphonate use.41,42
Another possible adverse effect, osteonecrosis of the jaw, may have occurred in 1.4% of patients with cancer who were treated for 3 years with high intravenous doses of bisphosphonates (about 10 to 12 times the doses recommended for osteoporosis).43 This adverse effect is rare in patients with osteoporosis, occurring in less than 1 in 10,000 exposed patients.44
BISPHOSPHONATES SHOULD BE USED WHEN THEY ARE INDICATED
The focus of this paper is on the duration of use, but concern about long-term use should not discourage physicians or patients from using these drugs when there is a high risk of an osteoporotic fracture within the next 10 years, particularly in elderly patients who have experienced a vertebral compression fracture or a hip fracture. Patients with a vertebral fracture have a one-in-five chance of fracturing another vertebra, which is a far higher risk than any of the known long-term side effects from treatment, and bisphosphonates are effective at reducing the risk.
Low bone density alone can be used as an indication for bisphosphonates if the hip T score is lower than −2.5. A cost-effectiveness study concluded that alendronate was beneficial in these cases.45 In the FIT patients without a vertebral fracture at baseline, the overall fracture rate was significantly decreased by 36% with alendronate in those with a hip T score lower than −2.5, but there was no difference between placebo and alendronate in those with T scores between −2 and −2.5, and a 14% (nonsignificant) higher fracture rate when the T score was better than −2.0.22
A new method of calculating the risk of an osteoporotic fracture is the FRAX prediction tool (http://www.shef.ac.uk/FRAX), and one group has suggested that treatment is indicated when the 10-year risk of a hip fracture is greater than 3%.46 Another group, from the United Kingdom, suggests using a sliding scale depending on the fracture risk and the age.47
It is not always clear what to do when the hip fracture risk is greater than 3% for the next decade but the T score is better than −2.5. These patients have other factors that contribute to fracture risk. Their therapy must be individualized, and if they are at risk of fracture because of low weight, smoking, or alcohol use, it makes more sense to focus the approach on those treatable factors.
Women who have osteopenia and have not had a fragility fracture are often treated with bisphosphonates with the intent of preventing osteoporosis in the distant future. This approach is based on hope, not evidence, and several editorial reviews have concluded that these women do not need drug therapy.48–50
MY RECOMMENDATION: STOP AFTER 5 YEARS
Bisphosphonates reduce the incidence of devastating osteoporotic fractures in patients with osteoporosis, but that does not mean they should be used indefinitely.
After 5 years, the overall fracture risk is the same in patients who keep taking bisphosphonates as in patients who discontinue them. Therefore, I think these drugs are no longer necessary after 5 years. The post hoc subgroup analysis that showed benefit in only one of six groups of the FLEX study does not provide compelling evidence to continue taking bisphosphonates.
While awaiting better studies, we use the approach shown in the algorithm in Figure 4.
Follow the patient with bone resorption markers
In patients who have shown some improvement in bone density during 5 years of bisphosphonate treatment and who have not had any fractures, I measure a marker of bone resorption at the end of 5 years.
The use of a biochemical marker to assess patients treated with anti-turnover drugs has not been studied in a formal trial, so we have no grade A evidence for recommending it. However, there have been many papers describing the effects of bisphosphonates on these markers, and it makes physiologic sense to use them in situations where decisions must be made when there is not enough evidence.
In FIT (a trial of alendronate), we reported that the change in bone turnover markers was significantly related to the reduction in fracture risk, and the effect was at least as strong as that observed with a 1-year change in bone density. Those with a 30% decrease in bone alkaline phosphatase had a significant reduction in fracture risk.51
Furthermore, in those patients who were compliant with bisphosphonate treatment, the reduction in fractures with alendronate treatment was significantly better in those who initially had a high bone turnover.52
Similarly, with risedronate, the change in NTx accounted for half of the effect on fracture reduction during the clinical trial, and there was little further improvement in fracture benefit below a decrease of 35% to 40%.10
The baseline NTx level in these clinical trials was about 70 nmol bone collagen equivalents per millimole of creatinine (nmol BCE/mmol Cr) in the risedronate study and 60 in the alendronate study, and in both the fracture reduction was seen at a level of about 40. The FLEX study measured NTx after 5 years, and the average was 19 nmol BCE/mmol Cr. This increased to 22 after 3 years without alendronate.53 At 5 years, the turnover markers had gradually increased but were still 7% to 24% lower than baseline.10
These markers have a diurnal rhythm and daily variation, but despite these limitations they do help identify low bone resorption.
In our hospital, NTx is the most economical marker, and my patients prefer a urine sample to a blood test. Therefore, we measure the NTx and consider values lower than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr to be satisfactory.
If the NTx is as low as expected, I discontinue the bisphosphonate. The patient remains on 1,200 mg/day of calcium and 1,000 U/day vitamin D supplementation and is encouraged to exercise.
Bone density tends to be stable for 1 or 2 years after stopping a bisphosphonate, and the biochemical markers of bone resorption remain reduced for several years. We remeasure the urine NTx level annually, and if it increases to more than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr an antiresorptive medication is given: either the bisphosphonate is restarted or raloxifene (Evista), calcitonin (Miacalcin), or denosumab (Prolia) is used.
Bone density is less helpful, but reassuring
Bone density is less helpful because it decreases even though the markers of bone resorption remain low. Although one could argue that bone density is not helpful in monitoring patients on therapy, I think it is reassuring to know the patient is not excessively losing bone.
Checking at 2-year intervals is reasonable. If the bone density shows a consistent decrease greater than 6% (which is greater than the difference we can see from patients walking around the room), then we would re-evaluate the patient and consider adding another medication.
If the bone density decreases but the biomarkers are low, then clinical judgment must be used. The bone density result may be erroneous due to different positioning or different regions of interest.
If turnover markers are not reduced
If a patient has been prescribed a bisphosphonate for 5 years but the NTx level is not reduced, I reevaluate the patient. Some are not taking the medication or are not taking it properly. The absorption of oral bisphosphonates is quite low in terms of bioavailability, and this decreases to nearly zero if the medication is taken with food. Some patients may have another disease, such as hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, hyperthyroidism, weight loss, malabsorption, celiac sprue, or vitamin D deficiency.
If repeated biochemical tests show high bone resorption and if the bone density response is suboptimal without a secondary cause, I often switch to an intravenous form of bisphosphonate because some patients do not seem to absorb the oral doses.
If a patient has had a fracture
If a patient has had a fracture despite several years of bisphosphonate therapy, I first check for any other medical problems. The bone markers are, unfortunately, not very helpful because they increase after a fracture and stay elevated for at least 4 months.54 If there are no contraindications, treatment with teriparatide (Forteo) is a reasonable choice. There is evidence from human biopsy studies that teriparatide can reduce the number of microcracks that were related to bisphosphonate treatment,13 and can increase the bone formation rate even when there has been prior bisphosphonate treatment.55–57 Although the anabolic response is blunted, it is still there.58
If the patient remains at high risk
A frail patient with a high risk of fracture presents a challenge, especially one who needs treatment with glucocorticoids or who still has a hip T score below −3. Many physicians are uneasy about discontinuing all osteoporosis-specific drugs, even after 5 years of successful bisphosphonate treatment. In these patients anabolic medications make the most sense. Currently, teriparatide is the only one available, but others are being developed. Bone becomes resistant to the anabolic effects of teriparatide after about 18 months, so this drug cannot be used indefinitely. What we really need are longer-lasting anabolic medicines!
If the patient has thigh pain
Finally, in patients with thigh pain, radiography of the femur should be done to check for a stress fracture. Magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography may be needed to diagnose a hairline fracture.
If there are already radiographic changes that precede the atypical fractures, then bisphosphonates should be discontinued. In a follow-up observational study of 16 patients who already had one fracture, all four whose contralateral side showed a fracture line (the “dreaded black line”) eventually completed the fracture.59
Another study found that five of six incomplete fractures went on to a complete fracture if not surgically stabilized with rods.60 This is an indication for prophylactic rodding of the femur.
Teriparatide use and rodding of a femur with thickening but not a fracture line must be decided on an individual basis and should be considered more strongly in those with pain in the thigh.
- Francis MD, Valent DJ. Historical perspectives on the clinical development of bisphosphonates in the treatment of bone diseases. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2007; 7:2–8.
- Bilezikian JP. Efficacy of bisphosphonates in reducing fracture risk in postmenopausal osteoporosis. Am J Med 2009; 122(suppl 2):S14–S21.
- Siris ES, Pasquale MK, Wang Y, Watts NB. Estimating bisphosphonate use and fracture reduction among US women aged 45 years and older, 2001–2008. J Bone Miner Res 2011; 26:3–11.
- Russell RG, Xia Z, Dunford JE, et al. Bisphosphonates: an update on mechanisms of action and how these relate to clinical efficacy. Ann N Y Acad Sci 2007; 1117:209–257.
- Parfitt AM. Misconceptions (2): turnover is always higher in cancellous than in cortical bone. Bone 2002; 30:807–809.
- Han ZH, Palnitkar S, Rao DS, Nelson D, Parfitt AM. Effects of ethnicity and age or menopause on the remodeling and turnover of iliac bone: implications for mechanisms of bone loss. J Bone Miner Res 1997; 12:498–508.
- Chavassieux PM, Arlot ME, Reda C, Wei L, Yates AJ, Meunier PJ. Histomorphometric assessment of the long-term effects of alendronate on bone quality and remodeling in patients with osteoporosis. J Clin Invest 1997; 100:1475–1480.
- Chapurlat RD, Arlot M, Burt-Pichat B, et al. Microcrack frequency and bone remodeling in postmenopausal osteoporotic women on long-term bisphosphonates: a bone biopsy study. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1502–1509.
- Boivin G, Meunier PJ. Effects of bisphosphonates on matrix mineralization. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2002; 2:538–543.
- Black DM, Schwartz AV, Ensrud KE, et al; FLEX Research Group. Effects of continuing or stopping alendronate after 5 years of treatment: the Fracture Intervention Trial Long-term Extension (FLEX): a randomized trial. JAMA 2006; 296:2927–2938.
- Eastell R, Hannon RA, Garnero P, Campbell MJ, Delmas PD. Relationship of early changes in bone resorption to the reduction in fracture risk with risedronate: review of statistical analysis. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1656–1660.
- Borah B, Dufresne TE, Chmielewski PA, Johnson TD, Chines A, Manhart MD. Risedronate preserves bone architecture in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis as measured by three-dimensional microcomputed tomography. Bone 2004; 34:736–746.
- Stepan JJ, Dobnig H, Burr DB, et al. Histomorphometric changes by teriparatide in alendronate pre-treated women with osteoporosis (abstract). Presented at the Annual Meeting of the American Society of Bone and Mineral Research, Montreal 2008: #1019.
- Riggs BL, Hodgson SF, O’Fallon WM, et al. Effect of fluoride treatment on the fracture rate in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 1990; 322:802–809.
- Curtis JR, Westfall AO, Cheng H, Delzell E, Saag KG. Risk of hip fracture after bisphosphonate discontinuation: implications for a drug holiday. Osteoporos Int 2008; 19:1613–1620.
- Meijer WM, Penning-van Beest FJ, Olson M, Herings RM. Relationship between duration of compliant bisphosphonate use and the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Curr Med Res Opin 2008; 24:3217–3222.
- Mellström DD, Sörensen OH, Goemaere S, Roux C, Johnson TD, Chines AA. Seven years of treatment with risedronate in women with postmenopausal osteoporosis. Calcif Tissue Int 2004; 75:462–468.
- Reginster J, Minne HW, Sorensen OH, et al. Randomized trial of the effects of risedronate on vertebral fractures in women with established postmenopausal osteoporosis. Vertebral Efficacy with Risedronate Therapy (VERT) Study Group. Osteoporos Int 2000; 11:83–91.
- Bone HG, Hosking D, Devogelaer JP, et al; Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. Ten years’ experience with alendronate for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:1189–1199.
- Liberman UA, Weiss SR, Bröll J, et al. Effect of oral alendronate on bone mineral density and the incidence of fractures in postmenopausal osteoporosis. The Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. N Engl J Med 1995; 333:1437–1443.
- Black DM, Cummings SR, Karpf DB, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Research Group. Randomised trial of effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with existing vertebral fractures. Lancet 1996; 348:1535–1541.
- Cummings SR, Black DM, Thompson DE, et al. Effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with low bone density but without vertebral fractures: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial. JAMA 1998; 280:2077–2082.
- Fink HA, Milavetz DL, Palermo L, et al. What proportion of incident radiographic vertebral deformities is clinically diagnosed and vice versa? J Bone Miner Res 2005; 20:1216–1222.
- Watts NB, Diab DL. Long-term use of bisphosphonates in osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:1555–1565.
- Schwartz AV, Bauer DC, Cummings SR, et al; FLEX Research Group. Efficacy of continued alendronate for fractures in women with and without prevalent vertebral fracture: the FLEX trial. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982.
- Shane E. Evolving data about subtrochanteric fractures and bisphosphonates (editorial). N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1825–1827.
- Sellmeyer DE. Atypical fractures as a potential complication of long-term bisphosphonate therapy. JAMA 2010; 304:1480–1484.
- Shane E, Burr D, Ebeling PR, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Atypical subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femoral fractures: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:2267–2294.
- Giusti A, Hamdy NA, Papapoulos SE. Atypical fractures of the femur and bisphosphonate therapy: a systematic review of case/case series studies. Bone 2010; 47:169–180.
- Rizzoli R, Akesson K, Bouxsein M, et al. Subtrochanteric fractures after long-term treatment with bisphosphonates: a European Society on Clinical and Economic Aspects of Osteoporosis and Osteoarthritis, and International Osteoporosis Foundation Working Group Report. Osteoporos Int 2011; 22:373–390.
- Whyte MP. Atypical femoral fractures, bisphosphonates, and adult hypophosphatasia. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1132–1134.
- Armamento-Villareal R, Napoli N, Panwar V, Novack D. Suppressed bone turnover during alendronate therapy for high-turnover osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 2006; 355:2048–2050.
- Neviaser AS, Lane JM, Lenart BA, Edobor-Osula F, Lorich DG. Low-energy femoral shaft fractures associated with alendronate use. J Orthop Trauma 2008; 22:346–350.
- Isaacs JD, Shidiak L, Harris IA, Szomor ZL. Femoral insufficiency fractures associated with prolonged bisphosphonate therapy. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2010; 468:3384–3392.
- Schilcher J, Aspenberg P. Incidence of stress fractures of the femoral shaft in women treated with bisphosphonate. Acta Orthop 2009; 80:413–415.
- Abrahamsen B, Eiken P, Eastell R. Cumulative alendronate dose and the long-term absolute risk of subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femur fractures: a register-based national cohort analysis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:5258–5265.
- Kim SY, Schneeweiss S, Katz JN, Levin R, Solomon DH. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur fractures in a population-based cohort. J Bone Miner Res 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Spangler L, Ott SM, Scholes D. Utility of automated data in identifying femoral shaft and subtrochanteric (diaphyseal) fractures. Osteoporos Int. 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Black DM, Kelly MP, Genant HK, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Steering Committee; HORIZON Pivotal Fracture Trial Steering Committee. Bisphosphonates and fractures of the subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1761–1771.
- Park-Wyllie LY, Mamdani MM, Juurlink DN, et al. Bisphosphonate use and the risk of subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures in older women. JAMA 2011; 305:783–789.
- Green J, Czanner G, Reeves G, Watson J, Wise L, Beral V. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of cancer of oesophagus, stomach, and colorectum: case-control analysis within a UK primary care cohort. BMJ 2010; 341:c4444.
- Cardwell CR, Abnet CC, Cantwell MM, Murray LJ. Exposure to oral bisphosphonates and risk of esophageal cancer. JAMA 2010; 304:657–663.
- Stopeck AT, Lipton A, Body JJ, et al. Denosumab compared with zoledronic acid for the treatment of bone metastases in patients with advanced breast cancer: a randomized, double-blind study. J Clin Oncol 2010; 28:5132–5139.
- Khosla S, Burr D, Cauley J, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1479–1491.
- Schousboe JT, Ensrud KE, Nyman JA, Kane RL, Melton LJ. Cost-effectiveness of vertebral fracture assessment to detect prevalent vertebral deformity and select postmenopausal women with a femoral neck T-score > −2.5 for alendronate therapy: a modeling study. J Clin Densitom 2006; 9:133–143.
- Dawson-Hughes B; National Osteoporosis Foundation Guide Committee. A revised clinician’s guide to the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:2463–2465.
- Compston J, Cooper A, Cooper C, et al; the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG). Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and men from the age of 50 years in the UK. Maturitas 2009; 62:105–108.
- Cummings SR. A 55-year-old woman with osteopenia. JAMA 2006; 296:2601–2610.
- Khosla S, Melton LJ. Clinical practice. Osteopenia. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:2293–2300.
- McClung MR. Osteopenia: to treat or not to treat? Ann Intern Med 2005; 142:796–797.
- Bauer DC, Black DM, Garnero P, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Study Group. Change in bone turnover and hip, non-spine, and vertebral fracture in alendronate-treated women: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1250–1258.
- Bauer DC, Garnero P, Hochberg MC, et al; for the Fracture Intervention Research Group. Pretreatment levels of bone turnover and the anti-fracture efficacy of alendronate: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2006; 21:292–299.
- Ensrud KE, Barrett-Connor EL, Schwartz A, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension Research Group. Randomized trial of effect of alendronate continuation versus discontinuation in women with low BMD: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial long-term extension. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1259–1269.
- Ivaska KK, Gerdhem P, Akesson K, Garnero P, Obrant KJ. Effect of fracture on bone turnover markers: a longitudinal study comparing marker levels before and after injury in 113 elderly women. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1155–1164.
- Cosman F, Nieves JW, Zion M, Barbuto N, Lindsay R. Retreatment with teriparatide one year after the first teriparatide course in patients on continued long-term alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1110–1115.
- Jobke B, Pfeifer M, Minne HW. Teriparatide following bisphosphonates: initial and long-term effects on microarchitecture and bone remodeling at the human iliac crest. Connect Tissue Res 2009; 50:46–54.
- Miller PD, Delmas PD, Lindsay R, et al; Open-label Study to Determine How Prior Therapy with Alendronate or Risedronate in Postmenopausal Women with Osteoporosis Influences the Clinical Effectiveness of Teriparatide Investigators. Early responsiveness of women with osteoporosis to teriparatide after therapy with alendronate or risedronate. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:3785–3793.
- Ettinger B, San Martin J, Crans G, Pavo I. Differential effects of teriparatide on BMD after treatment with raloxifene or alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:745–751.
- Koh JS, Goh SK, Png MA, Kwek EB, Howe TS. Femoral cortical stress lesions in long-term bisphosphonate therapy: a herald of impending fracture? J Orthop Trauma 2010; 24:75–81.
- Banffy MB, Vrahas MS, Ready JE, Abraham JA. Nonoperative versus prophylactic treatment of bisphosphonate-associated femoral stress fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2011; 469:2028–2034.
Almost all the data about the safety and efficacy of bisphosphonate drugs for treating osteoporosis are from patients who took them for less than 5 years.
Reports of adverse effects with prolonged use have caused concern about the long-term safety of this class of drugs. This is particularly important because these drugs are retained in the skeleton longer than 10 years, because there are physiologic reasons why excessive bisphosphonate-induced inhibition of bone turnover could be damaging, and because many healthy postmenopausal women have been prescribed bisphosphonates in the hope of preventing fractures that are not expected to occur for 20 to 30 years.
Because information from trials is scant, opinions differ over whether bisphosphonates should be continued indefinitely. In this article, I summarize the physiologic mechanisms of these drugs, review the scant existing data about their effects beyond 5 years, and describe my approach to bisphosphonate therapy (while waiting for better evidence).
MORE THAN 4 MILLION WOMEN TAKE BISPHOSPHONATES
The first medical use of a bisphosphonate was in 1967, when a girl with myositis ossificans was given etidronate (Didronel) because it inhibited mineralization. Two years later, it was given to patients with Paget disease of bone because it was found to inhibit bone resorption.1 Etidronate could not be given for longer than 6 months, however, because patients developed osteomalacia.
Adding a nitrogen to the molecule dramatically increased its potency and led to the second generation of bisphosphonates. Alendronate (Fosamax), the first amino-bisphosphonate, became available in 1995, It was followed by risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate (Boniva), and zoledronic acid (Reclast). These drugs are potent inhibitors of bone resorption; however, in clinical doses they do not inhibit mineralization and therefore do not cause osteomalacia.
Randomized clinical trials involving more than 30,000 patients have provided grade A evidence that these drugs reduce the incidence of fragility fractures in patients with osteoporosis.2 Furthermore, observational studies have confirmed that they prevent fractures and have a good safety profile in clinical practice.
Therefore, the use of these drugs has become common. In 2008, an estimated 4 million women in the United States were taking them.3
BISPHOSPHONATES STRENGTHEN BONE BY INHIBITING RESORPTION
On a molecular level, bisphosphonates inhibit farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, an enzyme necessary for formation of the cytoskeleton in osteoclasts. Thus, they strongly inhibit bone resorption. They do not appear to directly inhibit osteoblasts, the cells that form new bone, but they substantially decrease bone formation indirectly.4
To understand how inhibition of bone resorption affects bone physiology, it is necessary to appreciate the nature of bone remodeling. Bone is not like the skin, which is continually forming a new layer and sloughing off the old. Instead, bone is renewed in small units. It takes about 5 years to remodel cancellous bone and 13 years to remodel cortical bone5; at any one time, about 8% of the surface is being remodeled.
The first step occurs at a spot on the surface, where the osteoclasts resorb some bone to form a pit that looks like a pothole. Then a team of osteoblasts is formed and fills the pit with new bone over the next 3 to 6 months. When first formed, the new bone is mainly collagen and, like the tip of the nose, is not very stiff, but with mineral deposition the bone becomes stronger, like the bridge of the nose. The new bone gradually accumulates mineral and becomes harder and denser over the next 3 years.
When a bisphosphonate is given, the osteoclasts abruptly stop resorbing the bone, but osteoblasts continue to fill the pits that were there when the bisphosphonate was started. For the next several months, while the previous pits are being filled, the bone volume increases slightly. Thereafter, rates of both bone resorption and bone formation are very low.
A misconception: Bisphosphonates build bone
While semantically it is true that the bone formation rate in patients taking bisphosphonates is within the normal premenopausal range, this often-repeated statement is essentially misleading.
With continued bisphosphonate use, the bone gradually becomes more dense. There is no further new bone, but the existing bone matrix is packed more tightly with mineral crystals.9 The old bone is not resorbed. The bone density, measured radiographically, increases most rapidly during the first 6 months (while resorption pits are filling in) and more gradually over the next 3 years (while bone is becoming more mineralized).
Another common misunderstanding is that the bone density increases because the drugs are “building bone.” After 3 years, the bone density in the femur reaches a plateau.10 I have seen patients who were very worried because their bone density was no longer increasing, and their physicians did not realize that this is the expected pattern. The spinal bone density continues to increase modestly, but some of this may be from disk space narrowing, harder bone edges, and soft-tissue calcifications. Spinal bone density frequently increases even in those on placebo.
Bisphosphonates suppress markers of bone turnover
These changes in bone remodeling with bisphosphonates are reflected by changes in markers of bone formation and resorption. The levels of markers of bone resorption—N-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (NTx) and C-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (CTx)—decrease rapidly and remain low. The markers of bone formation—propeptide of type I collagen, bone alkaline phosphatase, and osteocalcin—decrease gradually over 3 to 6 months and then remain low. As measured directly at the bone, bone formation appears to be more suppressed than as measured by biochemical markers in the serum.
In a risedronate trial,11 the fracture rate decreased as the biochemical markers of bone turnover decreased, except when the markers were very low, in which case the fracture rate increased.
Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate
The bisphosphonates do not significantly increase bone volume, but they prevent microscopic architectural deterioration of the bone, as shown on microscopic computed tomographic imaging.12 This prevents fractures for at least 5 years.
But bisphosphonates may have long-term negative effects. One purpose of bone remodeling is to refresh the bone and to repair the microscopic damage that accumulates within any structure. Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate. Because the development and repair of microcracks is complex, it is difficult to predict what will happen with long-term bisphosphonate use. Studies of biopsies from women taking bisphosphonates long-term are inconsistent: one study found accumulation of microcracks,13 but another did not.8
STUDIES OF LONG-TERM USE: FOCUS ON FRACTURES
For this review, I consider long-term bisphosphonate use to be greater than 5 years, and I will focus on fractures. Bone density is only a surrogate end point. Unfortunately, this fact is often not emphasized in the training of young physicians.
The best illustration of this point was in a randomized clinical trial of fluoride,14 in which the bone density of the treated group increased by 8% per year for 4 years, for a total increase of 32%. This is more than we ever see with current therapies. But the patients had more fractures with fluoride than with placebo. This is because the quality of bone produced after fluoride treatment is poor, and although the bone is denser, it is weaker.
Observational studies of fracture incidence in patients who continued taking bisphosphonates compared with those who stopped provide some weak evidence about long-term effectiveness.
Curtis et al15 found, in 9,063 women who were prescribed bisphosphonates, that those who stopped taking them during the first 2 years had higher rates of hip fracture than compliant patients. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 years and then stopped had a rate of hip fracture during the next year similar to that of those who continued taking the drugs.
Meijer et al16 used a database in the Netherlands to examine the fracture rates in 14,750 women who started taking a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis between 1996 and 2004. More than half of the women stopped taking the drug during the first year, and they served as the control group. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 to 4 years had significantly fewer fractures than those who stopped during the first year (odds ratio 0.54). However, those who took them for 5 to 6 years had slightly more fractures than those who took them for less than a year.
Mellström et al17 performed a 2-year uncontrolled extension of a 5-year trial of risedronate that had blinded controls.18 Initially, 407 women were in the risedronate group; 68 completed 7 years.
The vertebral fracture rate in the placebo group was 7.6% per year during years 0 through 3. In the risedronate group, the rate was 4.7% per year during years 0 through 3 and 3.8% per year during years 6 and 7. Nonvertebral fractures occurred in 10.9% of risedronate-treated patients during the first 3 years and in 6% during the last 2 years. Markers of bone turnover remained reduced throughout the 7 years. Bone mineral density of the spine and hip did not change from years 5 to 7. The study did not include those who took risedronate for 5 years and then discontinued it.
Bone et al19 performed a similar, 10-year uncontrolled extension of a 3-year controlled trial of alendronate.20 There were 398 patients randomly assigned to alendronate, and 164 remained in the study for 8 to 10 years.
During years 8 through 10, bone mineral density of the spine increased by about 2%; no change was seen in the hip or total body. The nonvertebral fracture rate was similar in years 0 through 3 and years 6 through 10. Vertebral fractures occurred in approximately 3% of women in the first 3 years and in 9% in the last 5 years.
The FLEX trial: Continuing alendronate vs stopping
Only one study compared continuing a bisphosphonate vs stopping it. The Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension (FLEX)10 was an extension of the Fracture Intervention Trial (FIT)21,22 of alendronate. I am reviewing this study in detail because it is the only one that randomized patients and was double-blinded.
In the original trial,21,22 3,236 women were in the alendronate group. After a mean of 5 years on alendronate, 1,099 of them were randomized into the alendronate or placebo group.10 Those with T scores lower than −3.5 or who had lost bone density during the first 5 years were excluded.
The bone mineral density of the hip in the placebo group decreased by 3.4%, whereas in the alendronate group it decreased by 1.0%. At the spine, the placebo group gained less than the alendronate group.
Despite these differences in bone density, no significant difference was noted in the rates of all clinical fractures, nonvertebral fractures, vertebral fractures as measured on radiographs taken for the study (“morphometric” fractures, 11.3% vs 9.8%), or in the number of severe vertebral fractures (those with more than a two-grade change on radiography) between those who took alendronate for 10 years and those who took it for 5 years followed by placebo for 5 years.
However, fewer “clinical spine fractures” were observed in the group continuing alendronate (2.4% vs 5.3%). A clinical spine fracture was one diagnosed by the patient’s personal physician.
In FIT, these clinical fractures were painful in 90% of patients, and although the community radiographs were reviewed by a central radiologist, only 73% of the fractures were confirmed by subsequent measurements on the per protocol radiographs done at the study centers. About one-fourth of the morphometric fractures were also clinical fractures.23 Therefore, I think morphometric fractures provide the best evidence about the effects of treatment—ie, that treatment beyond 5 years is not beneficial. Other physicians, however, disagree, emphasizing the 55% reduction in clinical fractures.24
Markers of bone turnover gradually increased after discontinuation but remained lower than baseline even after 5 years without alendronate.10 There were no significant differences in fracture rates between the placebo and alendronate groups in those with baseline bone mineral density T scores less than −2.5.10 Also, after age adjustment, the fracture incidence was similar in the FIT and the FLEX studies.
Several years later, the authors published a post hoc subgroup analysis of these data.25 The patients were divided into six subgroups based on bone density and the presence of vertebral fractures at baseline. This is weak evidence, but I include it because reviews in the literature have emphasized only the positive findings, or have misquoted the data: Schwartz et al stated that in those with T scores of −2.5 or below, the risk of nonvertebral fracture was reduced by 50%25; and Shane26 concluded in an editorial that the use of alendronate for 10 years, rather than for 5 years, was associated with significantly fewer new vertebral fractures and nonvertebral fractures in patients with a bone mineral density T score of −2.5 or below.26
ATYPICAL FEMUR FRACTURES
By March 2011, there were 55 papers describing a total of 283 cases, and about 85 individual cases (listed online in Ott SM. Osteoporosis and Bone Physiology. http://courses.washington.edu/bonephys/opsubtroch.html. Accessed 7/30/2011).
The mean age of the patients was 65, bisphosphonate use was longer than 5 years in 77% of cases, and bilateral fractures were seen in 48%.
The fractures occur with minor trauma, such as tripping, stepping off an elevator, or being jolted by a subway stop, and a disproportionate number of cases involve no trauma. They are often preceded by leg pain, typically in the mid-thigh.
These fractures are characterized by radiographic findings of a transverse fracture, with thickened cortices near the site of the fracture. Often, there is a peak on the cortex that may precede the fracture. These fractures initiate on the lateral side, and it is striking that they occur in the same horizontal plane on the contralateral side.
Radiographs and bone scans show stress fractures on the lateral side of the femur that resemble Looser zones (ie, dark lines seen radiographically). These radiographic features are not typical in osteoporosis but are reminiscent of the stress fractures seen with hypophosphatasia, an inherited disease characterized by severely decreased bone formation.31
Bone biopsy specimens show very low bone formation rates, but this is not a necessary feature. At the fracture site itself there is bone activity. For example, pathologists from St. Louis reviewed all iliac crest bone biopsies from patients seen between 2004 and 2007 who had an unusual cortical fracture while taking a bisphosphonate. An absence of double tetracycline labels was seen in 11 of the 16 patients.32
The first reports were anecdotal cases, then some centers reported systematic surveys of their patients. In a key report, Neviaser et al33 reviewed all low-trauma subtrochanteric fractures in their large hospital and found 20 cases with the atypical radiographic appearance; 19 of the patients in these cases had been taking a bisphosphonate. A similar survey in Australia found 41 cases with atypical radiographic features (out of 79 subtrochanteric low-trauma fractures), and all of the patients had been taking a bisphosphonate.34
By now, more than 230 cases have been reported. The estimated incidence is 1 in 1,000, based on a review of operative cases and radiographs.35
However, just because the drugs are associated with the fractures does not mean they caused the fractures, because the patients who took bisphosphonates were more likely to get a fracture in the first place. This confounding by indication makes it difficult to prove beyond a doubt that bisphosphonates cause atypical fractures.
Further, some studies have found no association between bisphosphonates and subtrochanteric fractures.36,37 These database analyses have relied on the coding of the International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision (ICD-9), and not on the examination of radiographs. We reviewed the ability of ICD-9 codes to identify subtrochanteric fractures and found that the predictive ability was only 36%.38 Even for fractures in the correct location, the codes cannot tell which cases have the typical spiral or comminuted fractures seen in osteoporosis and which have the unusual features of the bisphosphonate-associated fractures. Subtrochanteric and shaft fractures are about 10 times less common than hip fractures, and the atypical ones are about 10 times less common than typical ones, so studies based on ICD-9 codes cannot exonerate bisphosphonates.
A report of nearly 15,000 patients from randomized clinical trials did not find a significant incidence of subtrochanteric fractures, but the radiographs were not examined and only 500 of the patients had taken the medication for longer than 5 years.39
A population-based, nested case-control study using a database from Ontario, Canada, found an increased risk of diaphyseal femoral fractures in patients who had taken bisphosphonates longer than 5 years. The study included only women who had started bisphosphonates when they were older than 68, so many of the atypical fractures would have been missed. The investigators did not review the radiographs, so they combined both osteoporotic and atypical diaphyseal fractures in their analysis.40
At the 2010 meeting of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research, preliminary data were presented from a systematic review of radiographs of patients with fractures of the femur from a health care plan with data about the use of medications. The incidence of atypical fractures increased progressively with the duration of bisphosphonate use, and was significantly higher after 5 years compared with less than 3 years.28
OTHER POSSIBLE ADVERSE EFFECTS
There have been conflicting reports about esophageal cancer with bisphosphonate use.41,42
Another possible adverse effect, osteonecrosis of the jaw, may have occurred in 1.4% of patients with cancer who were treated for 3 years with high intravenous doses of bisphosphonates (about 10 to 12 times the doses recommended for osteoporosis).43 This adverse effect is rare in patients with osteoporosis, occurring in less than 1 in 10,000 exposed patients.44
BISPHOSPHONATES SHOULD BE USED WHEN THEY ARE INDICATED
The focus of this paper is on the duration of use, but concern about long-term use should not discourage physicians or patients from using these drugs when there is a high risk of an osteoporotic fracture within the next 10 years, particularly in elderly patients who have experienced a vertebral compression fracture or a hip fracture. Patients with a vertebral fracture have a one-in-five chance of fracturing another vertebra, which is a far higher risk than any of the known long-term side effects from treatment, and bisphosphonates are effective at reducing the risk.
Low bone density alone can be used as an indication for bisphosphonates if the hip T score is lower than −2.5. A cost-effectiveness study concluded that alendronate was beneficial in these cases.45 In the FIT patients without a vertebral fracture at baseline, the overall fracture rate was significantly decreased by 36% with alendronate in those with a hip T score lower than −2.5, but there was no difference between placebo and alendronate in those with T scores between −2 and −2.5, and a 14% (nonsignificant) higher fracture rate when the T score was better than −2.0.22
A new method of calculating the risk of an osteoporotic fracture is the FRAX prediction tool (http://www.shef.ac.uk/FRAX), and one group has suggested that treatment is indicated when the 10-year risk of a hip fracture is greater than 3%.46 Another group, from the United Kingdom, suggests using a sliding scale depending on the fracture risk and the age.47
It is not always clear what to do when the hip fracture risk is greater than 3% for the next decade but the T score is better than −2.5. These patients have other factors that contribute to fracture risk. Their therapy must be individualized, and if they are at risk of fracture because of low weight, smoking, or alcohol use, it makes more sense to focus the approach on those treatable factors.
Women who have osteopenia and have not had a fragility fracture are often treated with bisphosphonates with the intent of preventing osteoporosis in the distant future. This approach is based on hope, not evidence, and several editorial reviews have concluded that these women do not need drug therapy.48–50
MY RECOMMENDATION: STOP AFTER 5 YEARS
Bisphosphonates reduce the incidence of devastating osteoporotic fractures in patients with osteoporosis, but that does not mean they should be used indefinitely.
After 5 years, the overall fracture risk is the same in patients who keep taking bisphosphonates as in patients who discontinue them. Therefore, I think these drugs are no longer necessary after 5 years. The post hoc subgroup analysis that showed benefit in only one of six groups of the FLEX study does not provide compelling evidence to continue taking bisphosphonates.
While awaiting better studies, we use the approach shown in the algorithm in Figure 4.
Follow the patient with bone resorption markers
In patients who have shown some improvement in bone density during 5 years of bisphosphonate treatment and who have not had any fractures, I measure a marker of bone resorption at the end of 5 years.
The use of a biochemical marker to assess patients treated with anti-turnover drugs has not been studied in a formal trial, so we have no grade A evidence for recommending it. However, there have been many papers describing the effects of bisphosphonates on these markers, and it makes physiologic sense to use them in situations where decisions must be made when there is not enough evidence.
In FIT (a trial of alendronate), we reported that the change in bone turnover markers was significantly related to the reduction in fracture risk, and the effect was at least as strong as that observed with a 1-year change in bone density. Those with a 30% decrease in bone alkaline phosphatase had a significant reduction in fracture risk.51
Furthermore, in those patients who were compliant with bisphosphonate treatment, the reduction in fractures with alendronate treatment was significantly better in those who initially had a high bone turnover.52
Similarly, with risedronate, the change in NTx accounted for half of the effect on fracture reduction during the clinical trial, and there was little further improvement in fracture benefit below a decrease of 35% to 40%.10
The baseline NTx level in these clinical trials was about 70 nmol bone collagen equivalents per millimole of creatinine (nmol BCE/mmol Cr) in the risedronate study and 60 in the alendronate study, and in both the fracture reduction was seen at a level of about 40. The FLEX study measured NTx after 5 years, and the average was 19 nmol BCE/mmol Cr. This increased to 22 after 3 years without alendronate.53 At 5 years, the turnover markers had gradually increased but were still 7% to 24% lower than baseline.10
These markers have a diurnal rhythm and daily variation, but despite these limitations they do help identify low bone resorption.
In our hospital, NTx is the most economical marker, and my patients prefer a urine sample to a blood test. Therefore, we measure the NTx and consider values lower than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr to be satisfactory.
If the NTx is as low as expected, I discontinue the bisphosphonate. The patient remains on 1,200 mg/day of calcium and 1,000 U/day vitamin D supplementation and is encouraged to exercise.
Bone density tends to be stable for 1 or 2 years after stopping a bisphosphonate, and the biochemical markers of bone resorption remain reduced for several years. We remeasure the urine NTx level annually, and if it increases to more than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr an antiresorptive medication is given: either the bisphosphonate is restarted or raloxifene (Evista), calcitonin (Miacalcin), or denosumab (Prolia) is used.
Bone density is less helpful, but reassuring
Bone density is less helpful because it decreases even though the markers of bone resorption remain low. Although one could argue that bone density is not helpful in monitoring patients on therapy, I think it is reassuring to know the patient is not excessively losing bone.
Checking at 2-year intervals is reasonable. If the bone density shows a consistent decrease greater than 6% (which is greater than the difference we can see from patients walking around the room), then we would re-evaluate the patient and consider adding another medication.
If the bone density decreases but the biomarkers are low, then clinical judgment must be used. The bone density result may be erroneous due to different positioning or different regions of interest.
If turnover markers are not reduced
If a patient has been prescribed a bisphosphonate for 5 years but the NTx level is not reduced, I reevaluate the patient. Some are not taking the medication or are not taking it properly. The absorption of oral bisphosphonates is quite low in terms of bioavailability, and this decreases to nearly zero if the medication is taken with food. Some patients may have another disease, such as hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, hyperthyroidism, weight loss, malabsorption, celiac sprue, or vitamin D deficiency.
If repeated biochemical tests show high bone resorption and if the bone density response is suboptimal without a secondary cause, I often switch to an intravenous form of bisphosphonate because some patients do not seem to absorb the oral doses.
If a patient has had a fracture
If a patient has had a fracture despite several years of bisphosphonate therapy, I first check for any other medical problems. The bone markers are, unfortunately, not very helpful because they increase after a fracture and stay elevated for at least 4 months.54 If there are no contraindications, treatment with teriparatide (Forteo) is a reasonable choice. There is evidence from human biopsy studies that teriparatide can reduce the number of microcracks that were related to bisphosphonate treatment,13 and can increase the bone formation rate even when there has been prior bisphosphonate treatment.55–57 Although the anabolic response is blunted, it is still there.58
If the patient remains at high risk
A frail patient with a high risk of fracture presents a challenge, especially one who needs treatment with glucocorticoids or who still has a hip T score below −3. Many physicians are uneasy about discontinuing all osteoporosis-specific drugs, even after 5 years of successful bisphosphonate treatment. In these patients anabolic medications make the most sense. Currently, teriparatide is the only one available, but others are being developed. Bone becomes resistant to the anabolic effects of teriparatide after about 18 months, so this drug cannot be used indefinitely. What we really need are longer-lasting anabolic medicines!
If the patient has thigh pain
Finally, in patients with thigh pain, radiography of the femur should be done to check for a stress fracture. Magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography may be needed to diagnose a hairline fracture.
If there are already radiographic changes that precede the atypical fractures, then bisphosphonates should be discontinued. In a follow-up observational study of 16 patients who already had one fracture, all four whose contralateral side showed a fracture line (the “dreaded black line”) eventually completed the fracture.59
Another study found that five of six incomplete fractures went on to a complete fracture if not surgically stabilized with rods.60 This is an indication for prophylactic rodding of the femur.
Teriparatide use and rodding of a femur with thickening but not a fracture line must be decided on an individual basis and should be considered more strongly in those with pain in the thigh.
Almost all the data about the safety and efficacy of bisphosphonate drugs for treating osteoporosis are from patients who took them for less than 5 years.
Reports of adverse effects with prolonged use have caused concern about the long-term safety of this class of drugs. This is particularly important because these drugs are retained in the skeleton longer than 10 years, because there are physiologic reasons why excessive bisphosphonate-induced inhibition of bone turnover could be damaging, and because many healthy postmenopausal women have been prescribed bisphosphonates in the hope of preventing fractures that are not expected to occur for 20 to 30 years.
Because information from trials is scant, opinions differ over whether bisphosphonates should be continued indefinitely. In this article, I summarize the physiologic mechanisms of these drugs, review the scant existing data about their effects beyond 5 years, and describe my approach to bisphosphonate therapy (while waiting for better evidence).
MORE THAN 4 MILLION WOMEN TAKE BISPHOSPHONATES
The first medical use of a bisphosphonate was in 1967, when a girl with myositis ossificans was given etidronate (Didronel) because it inhibited mineralization. Two years later, it was given to patients with Paget disease of bone because it was found to inhibit bone resorption.1 Etidronate could not be given for longer than 6 months, however, because patients developed osteomalacia.
Adding a nitrogen to the molecule dramatically increased its potency and led to the second generation of bisphosphonates. Alendronate (Fosamax), the first amino-bisphosphonate, became available in 1995, It was followed by risedronate (Actonel), ibandronate (Boniva), and zoledronic acid (Reclast). These drugs are potent inhibitors of bone resorption; however, in clinical doses they do not inhibit mineralization and therefore do not cause osteomalacia.
Randomized clinical trials involving more than 30,000 patients have provided grade A evidence that these drugs reduce the incidence of fragility fractures in patients with osteoporosis.2 Furthermore, observational studies have confirmed that they prevent fractures and have a good safety profile in clinical practice.
Therefore, the use of these drugs has become common. In 2008, an estimated 4 million women in the United States were taking them.3
BISPHOSPHONATES STRENGTHEN BONE BY INHIBITING RESORPTION
On a molecular level, bisphosphonates inhibit farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, an enzyme necessary for formation of the cytoskeleton in osteoclasts. Thus, they strongly inhibit bone resorption. They do not appear to directly inhibit osteoblasts, the cells that form new bone, but they substantially decrease bone formation indirectly.4
To understand how inhibition of bone resorption affects bone physiology, it is necessary to appreciate the nature of bone remodeling. Bone is not like the skin, which is continually forming a new layer and sloughing off the old. Instead, bone is renewed in small units. It takes about 5 years to remodel cancellous bone and 13 years to remodel cortical bone5; at any one time, about 8% of the surface is being remodeled.
The first step occurs at a spot on the surface, where the osteoclasts resorb some bone to form a pit that looks like a pothole. Then a team of osteoblasts is formed and fills the pit with new bone over the next 3 to 6 months. When first formed, the new bone is mainly collagen and, like the tip of the nose, is not very stiff, but with mineral deposition the bone becomes stronger, like the bridge of the nose. The new bone gradually accumulates mineral and becomes harder and denser over the next 3 years.
When a bisphosphonate is given, the osteoclasts abruptly stop resorbing the bone, but osteoblasts continue to fill the pits that were there when the bisphosphonate was started. For the next several months, while the previous pits are being filled, the bone volume increases slightly. Thereafter, rates of both bone resorption and bone formation are very low.
A misconception: Bisphosphonates build bone
While semantically it is true that the bone formation rate in patients taking bisphosphonates is within the normal premenopausal range, this often-repeated statement is essentially misleading.
With continued bisphosphonate use, the bone gradually becomes more dense. There is no further new bone, but the existing bone matrix is packed more tightly with mineral crystals.9 The old bone is not resorbed. The bone density, measured radiographically, increases most rapidly during the first 6 months (while resorption pits are filling in) and more gradually over the next 3 years (while bone is becoming more mineralized).
Another common misunderstanding is that the bone density increases because the drugs are “building bone.” After 3 years, the bone density in the femur reaches a plateau.10 I have seen patients who were very worried because their bone density was no longer increasing, and their physicians did not realize that this is the expected pattern. The spinal bone density continues to increase modestly, but some of this may be from disk space narrowing, harder bone edges, and soft-tissue calcifications. Spinal bone density frequently increases even in those on placebo.
Bisphosphonates suppress markers of bone turnover
These changes in bone remodeling with bisphosphonates are reflected by changes in markers of bone formation and resorption. The levels of markers of bone resorption—N-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (NTx) and C-telopeptide cross-linked type I collagen (CTx)—decrease rapidly and remain low. The markers of bone formation—propeptide of type I collagen, bone alkaline phosphatase, and osteocalcin—decrease gradually over 3 to 6 months and then remain low. As measured directly at the bone, bone formation appears to be more suppressed than as measured by biochemical markers in the serum.
In a risedronate trial,11 the fracture rate decreased as the biochemical markers of bone turnover decreased, except when the markers were very low, in which case the fracture rate increased.
Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate
The bisphosphonates do not significantly increase bone volume, but they prevent microscopic architectural deterioration of the bone, as shown on microscopic computed tomographic imaging.12 This prevents fractures for at least 5 years.
But bisphosphonates may have long-term negative effects. One purpose of bone remodeling is to refresh the bone and to repair the microscopic damage that accumulates within any structure. Without remodeling, cracks can accumulate. Because the development and repair of microcracks is complex, it is difficult to predict what will happen with long-term bisphosphonate use. Studies of biopsies from women taking bisphosphonates long-term are inconsistent: one study found accumulation of microcracks,13 but another did not.8
STUDIES OF LONG-TERM USE: FOCUS ON FRACTURES
For this review, I consider long-term bisphosphonate use to be greater than 5 years, and I will focus on fractures. Bone density is only a surrogate end point. Unfortunately, this fact is often not emphasized in the training of young physicians.
The best illustration of this point was in a randomized clinical trial of fluoride,14 in which the bone density of the treated group increased by 8% per year for 4 years, for a total increase of 32%. This is more than we ever see with current therapies. But the patients had more fractures with fluoride than with placebo. This is because the quality of bone produced after fluoride treatment is poor, and although the bone is denser, it is weaker.
Observational studies of fracture incidence in patients who continued taking bisphosphonates compared with those who stopped provide some weak evidence about long-term effectiveness.
Curtis et al15 found, in 9,063 women who were prescribed bisphosphonates, that those who stopped taking them during the first 2 years had higher rates of hip fracture than compliant patients. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 years and then stopped had a rate of hip fracture during the next year similar to that of those who continued taking the drugs.
Meijer et al16 used a database in the Netherlands to examine the fracture rates in 14,750 women who started taking a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis between 1996 and 2004. More than half of the women stopped taking the drug during the first year, and they served as the control group. Those who took bisphosphonates for 3 to 4 years had significantly fewer fractures than those who stopped during the first year (odds ratio 0.54). However, those who took them for 5 to 6 years had slightly more fractures than those who took them for less than a year.
Mellström et al17 performed a 2-year uncontrolled extension of a 5-year trial of risedronate that had blinded controls.18 Initially, 407 women were in the risedronate group; 68 completed 7 years.
The vertebral fracture rate in the placebo group was 7.6% per year during years 0 through 3. In the risedronate group, the rate was 4.7% per year during years 0 through 3 and 3.8% per year during years 6 and 7. Nonvertebral fractures occurred in 10.9% of risedronate-treated patients during the first 3 years and in 6% during the last 2 years. Markers of bone turnover remained reduced throughout the 7 years. Bone mineral density of the spine and hip did not change from years 5 to 7. The study did not include those who took risedronate for 5 years and then discontinued it.
Bone et al19 performed a similar, 10-year uncontrolled extension of a 3-year controlled trial of alendronate.20 There were 398 patients randomly assigned to alendronate, and 164 remained in the study for 8 to 10 years.
During years 8 through 10, bone mineral density of the spine increased by about 2%; no change was seen in the hip or total body. The nonvertebral fracture rate was similar in years 0 through 3 and years 6 through 10. Vertebral fractures occurred in approximately 3% of women in the first 3 years and in 9% in the last 5 years.
The FLEX trial: Continuing alendronate vs stopping
Only one study compared continuing a bisphosphonate vs stopping it. The Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension (FLEX)10 was an extension of the Fracture Intervention Trial (FIT)21,22 of alendronate. I am reviewing this study in detail because it is the only one that randomized patients and was double-blinded.
In the original trial,21,22 3,236 women were in the alendronate group. After a mean of 5 years on alendronate, 1,099 of them were randomized into the alendronate or placebo group.10 Those with T scores lower than −3.5 or who had lost bone density during the first 5 years were excluded.
The bone mineral density of the hip in the placebo group decreased by 3.4%, whereas in the alendronate group it decreased by 1.0%. At the spine, the placebo group gained less than the alendronate group.
Despite these differences in bone density, no significant difference was noted in the rates of all clinical fractures, nonvertebral fractures, vertebral fractures as measured on radiographs taken for the study (“morphometric” fractures, 11.3% vs 9.8%), or in the number of severe vertebral fractures (those with more than a two-grade change on radiography) between those who took alendronate for 10 years and those who took it for 5 years followed by placebo for 5 years.
However, fewer “clinical spine fractures” were observed in the group continuing alendronate (2.4% vs 5.3%). A clinical spine fracture was one diagnosed by the patient’s personal physician.
In FIT, these clinical fractures were painful in 90% of patients, and although the community radiographs were reviewed by a central radiologist, only 73% of the fractures were confirmed by subsequent measurements on the per protocol radiographs done at the study centers. About one-fourth of the morphometric fractures were also clinical fractures.23 Therefore, I think morphometric fractures provide the best evidence about the effects of treatment—ie, that treatment beyond 5 years is not beneficial. Other physicians, however, disagree, emphasizing the 55% reduction in clinical fractures.24
Markers of bone turnover gradually increased after discontinuation but remained lower than baseline even after 5 years without alendronate.10 There were no significant differences in fracture rates between the placebo and alendronate groups in those with baseline bone mineral density T scores less than −2.5.10 Also, after age adjustment, the fracture incidence was similar in the FIT and the FLEX studies.
Several years later, the authors published a post hoc subgroup analysis of these data.25 The patients were divided into six subgroups based on bone density and the presence of vertebral fractures at baseline. This is weak evidence, but I include it because reviews in the literature have emphasized only the positive findings, or have misquoted the data: Schwartz et al stated that in those with T scores of −2.5 or below, the risk of nonvertebral fracture was reduced by 50%25; and Shane26 concluded in an editorial that the use of alendronate for 10 years, rather than for 5 years, was associated with significantly fewer new vertebral fractures and nonvertebral fractures in patients with a bone mineral density T score of −2.5 or below.26
ATYPICAL FEMUR FRACTURES
By March 2011, there were 55 papers describing a total of 283 cases, and about 85 individual cases (listed online in Ott SM. Osteoporosis and Bone Physiology. http://courses.washington.edu/bonephys/opsubtroch.html. Accessed 7/30/2011).
The mean age of the patients was 65, bisphosphonate use was longer than 5 years in 77% of cases, and bilateral fractures were seen in 48%.
The fractures occur with minor trauma, such as tripping, stepping off an elevator, or being jolted by a subway stop, and a disproportionate number of cases involve no trauma. They are often preceded by leg pain, typically in the mid-thigh.
These fractures are characterized by radiographic findings of a transverse fracture, with thickened cortices near the site of the fracture. Often, there is a peak on the cortex that may precede the fracture. These fractures initiate on the lateral side, and it is striking that they occur in the same horizontal plane on the contralateral side.
Radiographs and bone scans show stress fractures on the lateral side of the femur that resemble Looser zones (ie, dark lines seen radiographically). These radiographic features are not typical in osteoporosis but are reminiscent of the stress fractures seen with hypophosphatasia, an inherited disease characterized by severely decreased bone formation.31
Bone biopsy specimens show very low bone formation rates, but this is not a necessary feature. At the fracture site itself there is bone activity. For example, pathologists from St. Louis reviewed all iliac crest bone biopsies from patients seen between 2004 and 2007 who had an unusual cortical fracture while taking a bisphosphonate. An absence of double tetracycline labels was seen in 11 of the 16 patients.32
The first reports were anecdotal cases, then some centers reported systematic surveys of their patients. In a key report, Neviaser et al33 reviewed all low-trauma subtrochanteric fractures in their large hospital and found 20 cases with the atypical radiographic appearance; 19 of the patients in these cases had been taking a bisphosphonate. A similar survey in Australia found 41 cases with atypical radiographic features (out of 79 subtrochanteric low-trauma fractures), and all of the patients had been taking a bisphosphonate.34
By now, more than 230 cases have been reported. The estimated incidence is 1 in 1,000, based on a review of operative cases and radiographs.35
However, just because the drugs are associated with the fractures does not mean they caused the fractures, because the patients who took bisphosphonates were more likely to get a fracture in the first place. This confounding by indication makes it difficult to prove beyond a doubt that bisphosphonates cause atypical fractures.
Further, some studies have found no association between bisphosphonates and subtrochanteric fractures.36,37 These database analyses have relied on the coding of the International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision (ICD-9), and not on the examination of radiographs. We reviewed the ability of ICD-9 codes to identify subtrochanteric fractures and found that the predictive ability was only 36%.38 Even for fractures in the correct location, the codes cannot tell which cases have the typical spiral or comminuted fractures seen in osteoporosis and which have the unusual features of the bisphosphonate-associated fractures. Subtrochanteric and shaft fractures are about 10 times less common than hip fractures, and the atypical ones are about 10 times less common than typical ones, so studies based on ICD-9 codes cannot exonerate bisphosphonates.
A report of nearly 15,000 patients from randomized clinical trials did not find a significant incidence of subtrochanteric fractures, but the radiographs were not examined and only 500 of the patients had taken the medication for longer than 5 years.39
A population-based, nested case-control study using a database from Ontario, Canada, found an increased risk of diaphyseal femoral fractures in patients who had taken bisphosphonates longer than 5 years. The study included only women who had started bisphosphonates when they were older than 68, so many of the atypical fractures would have been missed. The investigators did not review the radiographs, so they combined both osteoporotic and atypical diaphyseal fractures in their analysis.40
At the 2010 meeting of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research, preliminary data were presented from a systematic review of radiographs of patients with fractures of the femur from a health care plan with data about the use of medications. The incidence of atypical fractures increased progressively with the duration of bisphosphonate use, and was significantly higher after 5 years compared with less than 3 years.28
OTHER POSSIBLE ADVERSE EFFECTS
There have been conflicting reports about esophageal cancer with bisphosphonate use.41,42
Another possible adverse effect, osteonecrosis of the jaw, may have occurred in 1.4% of patients with cancer who were treated for 3 years with high intravenous doses of bisphosphonates (about 10 to 12 times the doses recommended for osteoporosis).43 This adverse effect is rare in patients with osteoporosis, occurring in less than 1 in 10,000 exposed patients.44
BISPHOSPHONATES SHOULD BE USED WHEN THEY ARE INDICATED
The focus of this paper is on the duration of use, but concern about long-term use should not discourage physicians or patients from using these drugs when there is a high risk of an osteoporotic fracture within the next 10 years, particularly in elderly patients who have experienced a vertebral compression fracture or a hip fracture. Patients with a vertebral fracture have a one-in-five chance of fracturing another vertebra, which is a far higher risk than any of the known long-term side effects from treatment, and bisphosphonates are effective at reducing the risk.
Low bone density alone can be used as an indication for bisphosphonates if the hip T score is lower than −2.5. A cost-effectiveness study concluded that alendronate was beneficial in these cases.45 In the FIT patients without a vertebral fracture at baseline, the overall fracture rate was significantly decreased by 36% with alendronate in those with a hip T score lower than −2.5, but there was no difference between placebo and alendronate in those with T scores between −2 and −2.5, and a 14% (nonsignificant) higher fracture rate when the T score was better than −2.0.22
A new method of calculating the risk of an osteoporotic fracture is the FRAX prediction tool (http://www.shef.ac.uk/FRAX), and one group has suggested that treatment is indicated when the 10-year risk of a hip fracture is greater than 3%.46 Another group, from the United Kingdom, suggests using a sliding scale depending on the fracture risk and the age.47
It is not always clear what to do when the hip fracture risk is greater than 3% for the next decade but the T score is better than −2.5. These patients have other factors that contribute to fracture risk. Their therapy must be individualized, and if they are at risk of fracture because of low weight, smoking, or alcohol use, it makes more sense to focus the approach on those treatable factors.
Women who have osteopenia and have not had a fragility fracture are often treated with bisphosphonates with the intent of preventing osteoporosis in the distant future. This approach is based on hope, not evidence, and several editorial reviews have concluded that these women do not need drug therapy.48–50
MY RECOMMENDATION: STOP AFTER 5 YEARS
Bisphosphonates reduce the incidence of devastating osteoporotic fractures in patients with osteoporosis, but that does not mean they should be used indefinitely.
After 5 years, the overall fracture risk is the same in patients who keep taking bisphosphonates as in patients who discontinue them. Therefore, I think these drugs are no longer necessary after 5 years. The post hoc subgroup analysis that showed benefit in only one of six groups of the FLEX study does not provide compelling evidence to continue taking bisphosphonates.
While awaiting better studies, we use the approach shown in the algorithm in Figure 4.
Follow the patient with bone resorption markers
In patients who have shown some improvement in bone density during 5 years of bisphosphonate treatment and who have not had any fractures, I measure a marker of bone resorption at the end of 5 years.
The use of a biochemical marker to assess patients treated with anti-turnover drugs has not been studied in a formal trial, so we have no grade A evidence for recommending it. However, there have been many papers describing the effects of bisphosphonates on these markers, and it makes physiologic sense to use them in situations where decisions must be made when there is not enough evidence.
In FIT (a trial of alendronate), we reported that the change in bone turnover markers was significantly related to the reduction in fracture risk, and the effect was at least as strong as that observed with a 1-year change in bone density. Those with a 30% decrease in bone alkaline phosphatase had a significant reduction in fracture risk.51
Furthermore, in those patients who were compliant with bisphosphonate treatment, the reduction in fractures with alendronate treatment was significantly better in those who initially had a high bone turnover.52
Similarly, with risedronate, the change in NTx accounted for half of the effect on fracture reduction during the clinical trial, and there was little further improvement in fracture benefit below a decrease of 35% to 40%.10
The baseline NTx level in these clinical trials was about 70 nmol bone collagen equivalents per millimole of creatinine (nmol BCE/mmol Cr) in the risedronate study and 60 in the alendronate study, and in both the fracture reduction was seen at a level of about 40. The FLEX study measured NTx after 5 years, and the average was 19 nmol BCE/mmol Cr. This increased to 22 after 3 years without alendronate.53 At 5 years, the turnover markers had gradually increased but were still 7% to 24% lower than baseline.10
These markers have a diurnal rhythm and daily variation, but despite these limitations they do help identify low bone resorption.
In our hospital, NTx is the most economical marker, and my patients prefer a urine sample to a blood test. Therefore, we measure the NTx and consider values lower than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr to be satisfactory.
If the NTx is as low as expected, I discontinue the bisphosphonate. The patient remains on 1,200 mg/day of calcium and 1,000 U/day vitamin D supplementation and is encouraged to exercise.
Bone density tends to be stable for 1 or 2 years after stopping a bisphosphonate, and the biochemical markers of bone resorption remain reduced for several years. We remeasure the urine NTx level annually, and if it increases to more than 40 nmol BCE/mmol Cr an antiresorptive medication is given: either the bisphosphonate is restarted or raloxifene (Evista), calcitonin (Miacalcin), or denosumab (Prolia) is used.
Bone density is less helpful, but reassuring
Bone density is less helpful because it decreases even though the markers of bone resorption remain low. Although one could argue that bone density is not helpful in monitoring patients on therapy, I think it is reassuring to know the patient is not excessively losing bone.
Checking at 2-year intervals is reasonable. If the bone density shows a consistent decrease greater than 6% (which is greater than the difference we can see from patients walking around the room), then we would re-evaluate the patient and consider adding another medication.
If the bone density decreases but the biomarkers are low, then clinical judgment must be used. The bone density result may be erroneous due to different positioning or different regions of interest.
If turnover markers are not reduced
If a patient has been prescribed a bisphosphonate for 5 years but the NTx level is not reduced, I reevaluate the patient. Some are not taking the medication or are not taking it properly. The absorption of oral bisphosphonates is quite low in terms of bioavailability, and this decreases to nearly zero if the medication is taken with food. Some patients may have another disease, such as hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, hyperthyroidism, weight loss, malabsorption, celiac sprue, or vitamin D deficiency.
If repeated biochemical tests show high bone resorption and if the bone density response is suboptimal without a secondary cause, I often switch to an intravenous form of bisphosphonate because some patients do not seem to absorb the oral doses.
If a patient has had a fracture
If a patient has had a fracture despite several years of bisphosphonate therapy, I first check for any other medical problems. The bone markers are, unfortunately, not very helpful because they increase after a fracture and stay elevated for at least 4 months.54 If there are no contraindications, treatment with teriparatide (Forteo) is a reasonable choice. There is evidence from human biopsy studies that teriparatide can reduce the number of microcracks that were related to bisphosphonate treatment,13 and can increase the bone formation rate even when there has been prior bisphosphonate treatment.55–57 Although the anabolic response is blunted, it is still there.58
If the patient remains at high risk
A frail patient with a high risk of fracture presents a challenge, especially one who needs treatment with glucocorticoids or who still has a hip T score below −3. Many physicians are uneasy about discontinuing all osteoporosis-specific drugs, even after 5 years of successful bisphosphonate treatment. In these patients anabolic medications make the most sense. Currently, teriparatide is the only one available, but others are being developed. Bone becomes resistant to the anabolic effects of teriparatide after about 18 months, so this drug cannot be used indefinitely. What we really need are longer-lasting anabolic medicines!
If the patient has thigh pain
Finally, in patients with thigh pain, radiography of the femur should be done to check for a stress fracture. Magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography may be needed to diagnose a hairline fracture.
If there are already radiographic changes that precede the atypical fractures, then bisphosphonates should be discontinued. In a follow-up observational study of 16 patients who already had one fracture, all four whose contralateral side showed a fracture line (the “dreaded black line”) eventually completed the fracture.59
Another study found that five of six incomplete fractures went on to a complete fracture if not surgically stabilized with rods.60 This is an indication for prophylactic rodding of the femur.
Teriparatide use and rodding of a femur with thickening but not a fracture line must be decided on an individual basis and should be considered more strongly in those with pain in the thigh.
- Francis MD, Valent DJ. Historical perspectives on the clinical development of bisphosphonates in the treatment of bone diseases. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2007; 7:2–8.
- Bilezikian JP. Efficacy of bisphosphonates in reducing fracture risk in postmenopausal osteoporosis. Am J Med 2009; 122(suppl 2):S14–S21.
- Siris ES, Pasquale MK, Wang Y, Watts NB. Estimating bisphosphonate use and fracture reduction among US women aged 45 years and older, 2001–2008. J Bone Miner Res 2011; 26:3–11.
- Russell RG, Xia Z, Dunford JE, et al. Bisphosphonates: an update on mechanisms of action and how these relate to clinical efficacy. Ann N Y Acad Sci 2007; 1117:209–257.
- Parfitt AM. Misconceptions (2): turnover is always higher in cancellous than in cortical bone. Bone 2002; 30:807–809.
- Han ZH, Palnitkar S, Rao DS, Nelson D, Parfitt AM. Effects of ethnicity and age or menopause on the remodeling and turnover of iliac bone: implications for mechanisms of bone loss. J Bone Miner Res 1997; 12:498–508.
- Chavassieux PM, Arlot ME, Reda C, Wei L, Yates AJ, Meunier PJ. Histomorphometric assessment of the long-term effects of alendronate on bone quality and remodeling in patients with osteoporosis. J Clin Invest 1997; 100:1475–1480.
- Chapurlat RD, Arlot M, Burt-Pichat B, et al. Microcrack frequency and bone remodeling in postmenopausal osteoporotic women on long-term bisphosphonates: a bone biopsy study. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1502–1509.
- Boivin G, Meunier PJ. Effects of bisphosphonates on matrix mineralization. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2002; 2:538–543.
- Black DM, Schwartz AV, Ensrud KE, et al; FLEX Research Group. Effects of continuing or stopping alendronate after 5 years of treatment: the Fracture Intervention Trial Long-term Extension (FLEX): a randomized trial. JAMA 2006; 296:2927–2938.
- Eastell R, Hannon RA, Garnero P, Campbell MJ, Delmas PD. Relationship of early changes in bone resorption to the reduction in fracture risk with risedronate: review of statistical analysis. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1656–1660.
- Borah B, Dufresne TE, Chmielewski PA, Johnson TD, Chines A, Manhart MD. Risedronate preserves bone architecture in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis as measured by three-dimensional microcomputed tomography. Bone 2004; 34:736–746.
- Stepan JJ, Dobnig H, Burr DB, et al. Histomorphometric changes by teriparatide in alendronate pre-treated women with osteoporosis (abstract). Presented at the Annual Meeting of the American Society of Bone and Mineral Research, Montreal 2008: #1019.
- Riggs BL, Hodgson SF, O’Fallon WM, et al. Effect of fluoride treatment on the fracture rate in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 1990; 322:802–809.
- Curtis JR, Westfall AO, Cheng H, Delzell E, Saag KG. Risk of hip fracture after bisphosphonate discontinuation: implications for a drug holiday. Osteoporos Int 2008; 19:1613–1620.
- Meijer WM, Penning-van Beest FJ, Olson M, Herings RM. Relationship between duration of compliant bisphosphonate use and the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Curr Med Res Opin 2008; 24:3217–3222.
- Mellström DD, Sörensen OH, Goemaere S, Roux C, Johnson TD, Chines AA. Seven years of treatment with risedronate in women with postmenopausal osteoporosis. Calcif Tissue Int 2004; 75:462–468.
- Reginster J, Minne HW, Sorensen OH, et al. Randomized trial of the effects of risedronate on vertebral fractures in women with established postmenopausal osteoporosis. Vertebral Efficacy with Risedronate Therapy (VERT) Study Group. Osteoporos Int 2000; 11:83–91.
- Bone HG, Hosking D, Devogelaer JP, et al; Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. Ten years’ experience with alendronate for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:1189–1199.
- Liberman UA, Weiss SR, Bröll J, et al. Effect of oral alendronate on bone mineral density and the incidence of fractures in postmenopausal osteoporosis. The Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. N Engl J Med 1995; 333:1437–1443.
- Black DM, Cummings SR, Karpf DB, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Research Group. Randomised trial of effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with existing vertebral fractures. Lancet 1996; 348:1535–1541.
- Cummings SR, Black DM, Thompson DE, et al. Effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with low bone density but without vertebral fractures: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial. JAMA 1998; 280:2077–2082.
- Fink HA, Milavetz DL, Palermo L, et al. What proportion of incident radiographic vertebral deformities is clinically diagnosed and vice versa? J Bone Miner Res 2005; 20:1216–1222.
- Watts NB, Diab DL. Long-term use of bisphosphonates in osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:1555–1565.
- Schwartz AV, Bauer DC, Cummings SR, et al; FLEX Research Group. Efficacy of continued alendronate for fractures in women with and without prevalent vertebral fracture: the FLEX trial. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982.
- Shane E. Evolving data about subtrochanteric fractures and bisphosphonates (editorial). N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1825–1827.
- Sellmeyer DE. Atypical fractures as a potential complication of long-term bisphosphonate therapy. JAMA 2010; 304:1480–1484.
- Shane E, Burr D, Ebeling PR, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Atypical subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femoral fractures: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:2267–2294.
- Giusti A, Hamdy NA, Papapoulos SE. Atypical fractures of the femur and bisphosphonate therapy: a systematic review of case/case series studies. Bone 2010; 47:169–180.
- Rizzoli R, Akesson K, Bouxsein M, et al. Subtrochanteric fractures after long-term treatment with bisphosphonates: a European Society on Clinical and Economic Aspects of Osteoporosis and Osteoarthritis, and International Osteoporosis Foundation Working Group Report. Osteoporos Int 2011; 22:373–390.
- Whyte MP. Atypical femoral fractures, bisphosphonates, and adult hypophosphatasia. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1132–1134.
- Armamento-Villareal R, Napoli N, Panwar V, Novack D. Suppressed bone turnover during alendronate therapy for high-turnover osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 2006; 355:2048–2050.
- Neviaser AS, Lane JM, Lenart BA, Edobor-Osula F, Lorich DG. Low-energy femoral shaft fractures associated with alendronate use. J Orthop Trauma 2008; 22:346–350.
- Isaacs JD, Shidiak L, Harris IA, Szomor ZL. Femoral insufficiency fractures associated with prolonged bisphosphonate therapy. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2010; 468:3384–3392.
- Schilcher J, Aspenberg P. Incidence of stress fractures of the femoral shaft in women treated with bisphosphonate. Acta Orthop 2009; 80:413–415.
- Abrahamsen B, Eiken P, Eastell R. Cumulative alendronate dose and the long-term absolute risk of subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femur fractures: a register-based national cohort analysis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:5258–5265.
- Kim SY, Schneeweiss S, Katz JN, Levin R, Solomon DH. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur fractures in a population-based cohort. J Bone Miner Res 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Spangler L, Ott SM, Scholes D. Utility of automated data in identifying femoral shaft and subtrochanteric (diaphyseal) fractures. Osteoporos Int. 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Black DM, Kelly MP, Genant HK, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Steering Committee; HORIZON Pivotal Fracture Trial Steering Committee. Bisphosphonates and fractures of the subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1761–1771.
- Park-Wyllie LY, Mamdani MM, Juurlink DN, et al. Bisphosphonate use and the risk of subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures in older women. JAMA 2011; 305:783–789.
- Green J, Czanner G, Reeves G, Watson J, Wise L, Beral V. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of cancer of oesophagus, stomach, and colorectum: case-control analysis within a UK primary care cohort. BMJ 2010; 341:c4444.
- Cardwell CR, Abnet CC, Cantwell MM, Murray LJ. Exposure to oral bisphosphonates and risk of esophageal cancer. JAMA 2010; 304:657–663.
- Stopeck AT, Lipton A, Body JJ, et al. Denosumab compared with zoledronic acid for the treatment of bone metastases in patients with advanced breast cancer: a randomized, double-blind study. J Clin Oncol 2010; 28:5132–5139.
- Khosla S, Burr D, Cauley J, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1479–1491.
- Schousboe JT, Ensrud KE, Nyman JA, Kane RL, Melton LJ. Cost-effectiveness of vertebral fracture assessment to detect prevalent vertebral deformity and select postmenopausal women with a femoral neck T-score > −2.5 for alendronate therapy: a modeling study. J Clin Densitom 2006; 9:133–143.
- Dawson-Hughes B; National Osteoporosis Foundation Guide Committee. A revised clinician’s guide to the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:2463–2465.
- Compston J, Cooper A, Cooper C, et al; the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG). Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and men from the age of 50 years in the UK. Maturitas 2009; 62:105–108.
- Cummings SR. A 55-year-old woman with osteopenia. JAMA 2006; 296:2601–2610.
- Khosla S, Melton LJ. Clinical practice. Osteopenia. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:2293–2300.
- McClung MR. Osteopenia: to treat or not to treat? Ann Intern Med 2005; 142:796–797.
- Bauer DC, Black DM, Garnero P, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Study Group. Change in bone turnover and hip, non-spine, and vertebral fracture in alendronate-treated women: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1250–1258.
- Bauer DC, Garnero P, Hochberg MC, et al; for the Fracture Intervention Research Group. Pretreatment levels of bone turnover and the anti-fracture efficacy of alendronate: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2006; 21:292–299.
- Ensrud KE, Barrett-Connor EL, Schwartz A, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension Research Group. Randomized trial of effect of alendronate continuation versus discontinuation in women with low BMD: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial long-term extension. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1259–1269.
- Ivaska KK, Gerdhem P, Akesson K, Garnero P, Obrant KJ. Effect of fracture on bone turnover markers: a longitudinal study comparing marker levels before and after injury in 113 elderly women. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1155–1164.
- Cosman F, Nieves JW, Zion M, Barbuto N, Lindsay R. Retreatment with teriparatide one year after the first teriparatide course in patients on continued long-term alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1110–1115.
- Jobke B, Pfeifer M, Minne HW. Teriparatide following bisphosphonates: initial and long-term effects on microarchitecture and bone remodeling at the human iliac crest. Connect Tissue Res 2009; 50:46–54.
- Miller PD, Delmas PD, Lindsay R, et al; Open-label Study to Determine How Prior Therapy with Alendronate or Risedronate in Postmenopausal Women with Osteoporosis Influences the Clinical Effectiveness of Teriparatide Investigators. Early responsiveness of women with osteoporosis to teriparatide after therapy with alendronate or risedronate. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:3785–3793.
- Ettinger B, San Martin J, Crans G, Pavo I. Differential effects of teriparatide on BMD after treatment with raloxifene or alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:745–751.
- Koh JS, Goh SK, Png MA, Kwek EB, Howe TS. Femoral cortical stress lesions in long-term bisphosphonate therapy: a herald of impending fracture? J Orthop Trauma 2010; 24:75–81.
- Banffy MB, Vrahas MS, Ready JE, Abraham JA. Nonoperative versus prophylactic treatment of bisphosphonate-associated femoral stress fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2011; 469:2028–2034.
- Francis MD, Valent DJ. Historical perspectives on the clinical development of bisphosphonates in the treatment of bone diseases. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2007; 7:2–8.
- Bilezikian JP. Efficacy of bisphosphonates in reducing fracture risk in postmenopausal osteoporosis. Am J Med 2009; 122(suppl 2):S14–S21.
- Siris ES, Pasquale MK, Wang Y, Watts NB. Estimating bisphosphonate use and fracture reduction among US women aged 45 years and older, 2001–2008. J Bone Miner Res 2011; 26:3–11.
- Russell RG, Xia Z, Dunford JE, et al. Bisphosphonates: an update on mechanisms of action and how these relate to clinical efficacy. Ann N Y Acad Sci 2007; 1117:209–257.
- Parfitt AM. Misconceptions (2): turnover is always higher in cancellous than in cortical bone. Bone 2002; 30:807–809.
- Han ZH, Palnitkar S, Rao DS, Nelson D, Parfitt AM. Effects of ethnicity and age or menopause on the remodeling and turnover of iliac bone: implications for mechanisms of bone loss. J Bone Miner Res 1997; 12:498–508.
- Chavassieux PM, Arlot ME, Reda C, Wei L, Yates AJ, Meunier PJ. Histomorphometric assessment of the long-term effects of alendronate on bone quality and remodeling in patients with osteoporosis. J Clin Invest 1997; 100:1475–1480.
- Chapurlat RD, Arlot M, Burt-Pichat B, et al. Microcrack frequency and bone remodeling in postmenopausal osteoporotic women on long-term bisphosphonates: a bone biopsy study. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1502–1509.
- Boivin G, Meunier PJ. Effects of bisphosphonates on matrix mineralization. J Musculoskelet Neuronal Interact 2002; 2:538–543.
- Black DM, Schwartz AV, Ensrud KE, et al; FLEX Research Group. Effects of continuing or stopping alendronate after 5 years of treatment: the Fracture Intervention Trial Long-term Extension (FLEX): a randomized trial. JAMA 2006; 296:2927–2938.
- Eastell R, Hannon RA, Garnero P, Campbell MJ, Delmas PD. Relationship of early changes in bone resorption to the reduction in fracture risk with risedronate: review of statistical analysis. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1656–1660.
- Borah B, Dufresne TE, Chmielewski PA, Johnson TD, Chines A, Manhart MD. Risedronate preserves bone architecture in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis as measured by three-dimensional microcomputed tomography. Bone 2004; 34:736–746.
- Stepan JJ, Dobnig H, Burr DB, et al. Histomorphometric changes by teriparatide in alendronate pre-treated women with osteoporosis (abstract). Presented at the Annual Meeting of the American Society of Bone and Mineral Research, Montreal 2008: #1019.
- Riggs BL, Hodgson SF, O’Fallon WM, et al. Effect of fluoride treatment on the fracture rate in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 1990; 322:802–809.
- Curtis JR, Westfall AO, Cheng H, Delzell E, Saag KG. Risk of hip fracture after bisphosphonate discontinuation: implications for a drug holiday. Osteoporos Int 2008; 19:1613–1620.
- Meijer WM, Penning-van Beest FJ, Olson M, Herings RM. Relationship between duration of compliant bisphosphonate use and the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Curr Med Res Opin 2008; 24:3217–3222.
- Mellström DD, Sörensen OH, Goemaere S, Roux C, Johnson TD, Chines AA. Seven years of treatment with risedronate in women with postmenopausal osteoporosis. Calcif Tissue Int 2004; 75:462–468.
- Reginster J, Minne HW, Sorensen OH, et al. Randomized trial of the effects of risedronate on vertebral fractures in women with established postmenopausal osteoporosis. Vertebral Efficacy with Risedronate Therapy (VERT) Study Group. Osteoporos Int 2000; 11:83–91.
- Bone HG, Hosking D, Devogelaer JP, et al; Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. Ten years’ experience with alendronate for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. N Engl J Med 2004; 350:1189–1199.
- Liberman UA, Weiss SR, Bröll J, et al. Effect of oral alendronate on bone mineral density and the incidence of fractures in postmenopausal osteoporosis. The Alendronate Phase III Osteoporosis Treatment Study Group. N Engl J Med 1995; 333:1437–1443.
- Black DM, Cummings SR, Karpf DB, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Research Group. Randomised trial of effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with existing vertebral fractures. Lancet 1996; 348:1535–1541.
- Cummings SR, Black DM, Thompson DE, et al. Effect of alendronate on risk of fracture in women with low bone density but without vertebral fractures: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial. JAMA 1998; 280:2077–2082.
- Fink HA, Milavetz DL, Palermo L, et al. What proportion of incident radiographic vertebral deformities is clinically diagnosed and vice versa? J Bone Miner Res 2005; 20:1216–1222.
- Watts NB, Diab DL. Long-term use of bisphosphonates in osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:1555–1565.
- Schwartz AV, Bauer DC, Cummings SR, et al; FLEX Research Group. Efficacy of continued alendronate for fractures in women with and without prevalent vertebral fracture: the FLEX trial. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:976–982.
- Shane E. Evolving data about subtrochanteric fractures and bisphosphonates (editorial). N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1825–1827.
- Sellmeyer DE. Atypical fractures as a potential complication of long-term bisphosphonate therapy. JAMA 2010; 304:1480–1484.
- Shane E, Burr D, Ebeling PR, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Atypical subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femoral fractures: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2010; 25:2267–2294.
- Giusti A, Hamdy NA, Papapoulos SE. Atypical fractures of the femur and bisphosphonate therapy: a systematic review of case/case series studies. Bone 2010; 47:169–180.
- Rizzoli R, Akesson K, Bouxsein M, et al. Subtrochanteric fractures after long-term treatment with bisphosphonates: a European Society on Clinical and Economic Aspects of Osteoporosis and Osteoarthritis, and International Osteoporosis Foundation Working Group Report. Osteoporos Int 2011; 22:373–390.
- Whyte MP. Atypical femoral fractures, bisphosphonates, and adult hypophosphatasia. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1132–1134.
- Armamento-Villareal R, Napoli N, Panwar V, Novack D. Suppressed bone turnover during alendronate therapy for high-turnover osteoporosis. N Engl J Med 2006; 355:2048–2050.
- Neviaser AS, Lane JM, Lenart BA, Edobor-Osula F, Lorich DG. Low-energy femoral shaft fractures associated with alendronate use. J Orthop Trauma 2008; 22:346–350.
- Isaacs JD, Shidiak L, Harris IA, Szomor ZL. Femoral insufficiency fractures associated with prolonged bisphosphonate therapy. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2010; 468:3384–3392.
- Schilcher J, Aspenberg P. Incidence of stress fractures of the femoral shaft in women treated with bisphosphonate. Acta Orthop 2009; 80:413–415.
- Abrahamsen B, Eiken P, Eastell R. Cumulative alendronate dose and the long-term absolute risk of subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femur fractures: a register-based national cohort analysis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2010; 95:5258–5265.
- Kim SY, Schneeweiss S, Katz JN, Levin R, Solomon DH. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur fractures in a population-based cohort. J Bone Miner Res 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Spangler L, Ott SM, Scholes D. Utility of automated data in identifying femoral shaft and subtrochanteric (diaphyseal) fractures. Osteoporos Int. 2010. [Epub ahead of print]
- Black DM, Kelly MP, Genant HK, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Steering Committee; HORIZON Pivotal Fracture Trial Steering Committee. Bisphosphonates and fractures of the subtrochanteric or diaphyseal femur. N Engl J Med 2010; 362:1761–1771.
- Park-Wyllie LY, Mamdani MM, Juurlink DN, et al. Bisphosphonate use and the risk of subtrochanteric or femoral shaft fractures in older women. JAMA 2011; 305:783–789.
- Green J, Czanner G, Reeves G, Watson J, Wise L, Beral V. Oral bisphosphonates and risk of cancer of oesophagus, stomach, and colorectum: case-control analysis within a UK primary care cohort. BMJ 2010; 341:c4444.
- Cardwell CR, Abnet CC, Cantwell MM, Murray LJ. Exposure to oral bisphosphonates and risk of esophageal cancer. JAMA 2010; 304:657–663.
- Stopeck AT, Lipton A, Body JJ, et al. Denosumab compared with zoledronic acid for the treatment of bone metastases in patients with advanced breast cancer: a randomized, double-blind study. J Clin Oncol 2010; 28:5132–5139.
- Khosla S, Burr D, Cauley J, et al; American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. Bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw: report of a task force of the American Society for Bone and Mineral Research. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1479–1491.
- Schousboe JT, Ensrud KE, Nyman JA, Kane RL, Melton LJ. Cost-effectiveness of vertebral fracture assessment to detect prevalent vertebral deformity and select postmenopausal women with a femoral neck T-score > −2.5 for alendronate therapy: a modeling study. J Clin Densitom 2006; 9:133–143.
- Dawson-Hughes B; National Osteoporosis Foundation Guide Committee. A revised clinician’s guide to the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:2463–2465.
- Compston J, Cooper A, Cooper C, et al; the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG). Guidelines for the diagnosis and management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and men from the age of 50 years in the UK. Maturitas 2009; 62:105–108.
- Cummings SR. A 55-year-old woman with osteopenia. JAMA 2006; 296:2601–2610.
- Khosla S, Melton LJ. Clinical practice. Osteopenia. N Engl J Med 2007; 356:2293–2300.
- McClung MR. Osteopenia: to treat or not to treat? Ann Intern Med 2005; 142:796–797.
- Bauer DC, Black DM, Garnero P, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Study Group. Change in bone turnover and hip, non-spine, and vertebral fracture in alendronate-treated women: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1250–1258.
- Bauer DC, Garnero P, Hochberg MC, et al; for the Fracture Intervention Research Group. Pretreatment levels of bone turnover and the anti-fracture efficacy of alendronate: the fracture intervention trial. J Bone Miner Res 2006; 21:292–299.
- Ensrud KE, Barrett-Connor EL, Schwartz A, et al; Fracture Intervention Trial Long-Term Extension Research Group. Randomized trial of effect of alendronate continuation versus discontinuation in women with low BMD: results from the Fracture Intervention Trial long-term extension. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:1259–1269.
- Ivaska KK, Gerdhem P, Akesson K, Garnero P, Obrant KJ. Effect of fracture on bone turnover markers: a longitudinal study comparing marker levels before and after injury in 113 elderly women. J Bone Miner Res 2007; 22:1155–1164.
- Cosman F, Nieves JW, Zion M, Barbuto N, Lindsay R. Retreatment with teriparatide one year after the first teriparatide course in patients on continued long-term alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2009; 24:1110–1115.
- Jobke B, Pfeifer M, Minne HW. Teriparatide following bisphosphonates: initial and long-term effects on microarchitecture and bone remodeling at the human iliac crest. Connect Tissue Res 2009; 50:46–54.
- Miller PD, Delmas PD, Lindsay R, et al; Open-label Study to Determine How Prior Therapy with Alendronate or Risedronate in Postmenopausal Women with Osteoporosis Influences the Clinical Effectiveness of Teriparatide Investigators. Early responsiveness of women with osteoporosis to teriparatide after therapy with alendronate or risedronate. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2008; 93:3785–3793.
- Ettinger B, San Martin J, Crans G, Pavo I. Differential effects of teriparatide on BMD after treatment with raloxifene or alendronate. J Bone Miner Res 2004; 19:745–751.
- Koh JS, Goh SK, Png MA, Kwek EB, Howe TS. Femoral cortical stress lesions in long-term bisphosphonate therapy: a herald of impending fracture? J Orthop Trauma 2010; 24:75–81.
- Banffy MB, Vrahas MS, Ready JE, Abraham JA. Nonoperative versus prophylactic treatment of bisphosphonate-associated femoral stress fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2011; 469:2028–2034.
KEY POINTS
- Bisphosphonates reduce the risk of osteoporotic fractures, including devastating hip and spine fractures.
- As with any drugs, bisphosphonates should not be used indiscriminately. They are indicated for patients at high risk of fracture, especially those with vertebral fractures or a hip bone density T score lower than −2.5.
- There is little evidence to guide physicians about the duration of bisphosphonate therapy beyond 5 years. One study with marginal power did not show any difference in fracture rates between those who continued taking alendronate and those who discontinued after 5 years (JAMA 2006; 296:2927–2938).
- Evidence is accumulating that the risk of atypical fracture of the femur increases after 5 years of bisphosphonate use.
- Anabolic drugs are needed; the only one currently available is teriparatide (Forteo), which can be used when fractures occur despite (or perhaps because of) bisphosphonate use.
Proceedings of the 2010 Heart-Brain Summit
Supplement Editor:
Marc S. Penn, MD, PhD
Contents
Depression and Heart Disease
The Bypassing the Blues trial: Collaborative care for post-CABG depression and implications for future research
Bruce L. Rollman, MD, MPH, and Bea Herbeck Belnap, Dr Biol Hum
Type D personality and vulnerability to adverse outcomes in heart disease
Johan Denollet, PhD, and Viviane M. Conraads, MD, PhD
Biofeedback in the treatment of heart disease
Christine S. Moravec, PhD, and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Device-Based Therapies
Electrical vagus nerve stimulation for the treatment of chronic heart failure
Hani N. Sabbah, PhD, FACC, FCCP, FAHA
Treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases with implantable medical devices
Ralph J. Zitnik, MD
Pioneer Lecture
New frontiers in cardiovascular behavioral medicine: Comparative effectiveness of exercise and medication in treating depression
James A. Blumenthal, PhD
Depression and Inflammatory Signaling in Alzheimer Disease
Depression: A shared risk factor for cardiovascular and Alzheimer disease
Dylan Wint, MD
Inflammatory signaling in Alzheimer disease
Robert Barber, PhD
Vascular signaling abnormalities in Alzheimer disease
Paula Grammas, PhD; Alma Sanchez, PhD; Debjani Tripathy, PhD; Ester Luo, PhD; and Joseph Martinez
Stress in Medicine
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—The burdens of caregiver stress
Michael G. McKee, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Promoting better outcomes with stress and anxiety reduction
A. Marc Gillinov, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Addressing the impact of clinician stress
M. Bridget Duffy, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback in the treatment of stress
Richard N. Gevirtz, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback for extreme stress: Wounded warriors
Carmen V. Russoniello, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Panel discussion
Annual Review of Key Publications in Heart-Brain Medicine
Key 2010 publications in behavioral medicine
Laura D. Kubzansky, PhD, MPH
Novel Findings in Heart-Brain Medicine
Imaging for autonomic dysfunction
Stephen E. Jones, MD, PhD
Neurohormonal control of heart failure
Gary S. Francis, MD
Poster Abstracts
Abstract 1: Biofeedback in coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes, and multiple sclerosis
Matt Baumann, BS; Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Michael Liebenstein, PhD; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Leo Pozuelo, MD; Leslie Cho, MD; Gordon Blackburn, PhD; Francois Bethoux, MD; Mary Rensel, MD; Betul Hatipoglu, MD; Jim Young, MD; Christine S. Moravec, PhD; and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Abstract 2: Biofeedback in heart failure patients awaiting transplantation
Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Matt Baumann, BS; Lamees Khorshid, PsyD; Alex Grossman-McKee; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Wilson Tang, MD; Randall C. Starling, MD; Michael G. McKee, PhD; and Christine S. Moravec, PhD
Abstract 3: Prevalence of anxiety and type D personality in an outpatient ICD clinic
Leo Pozuelo, MD; Melanie Panko, RN; Betty Ching, RN; Denise Kosty-Sweeney, RN; Scott Bea, PhD; Karen Broer, PhD; Julie Thornton, MS; Kathy Wolski, MPH; Karl-Heinz Ladwig, MD; Sam Sears, PhD; Suzanne Pedersen, PhD; Johan Denollet, PhD; and Mina K. Chung, MD
Abstract 4: Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy: Finding the missing cardiac links
Lara Jehi, MD; Thomas Callahan, MD; David Vance, MD; Liang Li, PhD; and Imad Najm, MD
Abstract 5: Low levels of depressive symptoms predict the combined outcome of good health-related quality of life and no cardiac events in patients with heart failure
Kyoung Suk Lee, Terry A. Lennie, Sandra B. Dunbar, Susan J. Pressler, Seongkum Heo, and Debra K. Moser
Abstract 6: Spectral HRV and C-reactive protein in a community-based sample of African Americans
Larry Keen II, MS
Abstract 7: Symptoms of depression and anxiety determine fatigue but not physical fitness in patients with CAD
Adomas Bunevicius, Albinas Stankus, Julija Brozaitiene, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 8: Depression, cardiovascular symptom reporting, and functional status in heart failure patients
Andrew J. Wawrzyniak, Kristie M. Harris, Kerry S. Whittaker, Nadine S. Bekkouche, Sarah M. Godoy, Willem J. Kop, Stephen S. Gottlieb, and David S. Krantz
Abstract 9: Cardiotopic organization of the functionally associated axons within the cervical vagus nerves that project to the ventricles of the cat heart
E. Adetobi-Oladele, S.E. Ekejiuba, M. Shirahata, S. Ruble, A. Caparso, and V.J. Massari
Abstract 10: Significance of carotid intimal thickening in hypertensive patients
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 11: Lacunar infarcts in a hypertensive population and their correlation with systemic vascular resistance
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 12: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: I. Hypertension
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 13: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: II. Diabetes mellitus
Aaron I. Vinik, PhD, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 14: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: III. Coronary artery disease
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 15: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: IV: HIV/AIDS
Patrick Nemechek, DO; Sam Ghosh Dastidar, PhD; and Joe Colombo, PhD
Abstract 16: The existential dilemma of coronary artery disease: Nurse as agent of change in the emerging field of behavioral cardiology
Patricia Baum, RN, BSN
Abstract 17: Phantom shocks as markers of underlying PTSD and depression
Ana Bilanovic, Jane Irvine, Adrienne Kovacs, Ann Hill, Doug Cameron, and Joel Katz
Abstract 18: Psychologic markers of stress, anxiety, and depression are associated with indices of vascular impairment in women with high stress levels and advanced coronary artery disease
U.G. Bronas, R. Lindquist, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik
Abstract 19: Personality dimensions and health-related quality of life in patients with coronary artery disease
Juste Buneviciute, Margarita Staniute, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 20: Behavioral stress results in reversible myocardial dysfunction in a rodent model
Fangping Chen, Sherry Xie, and Mitchell S. Finkel
Abstract 21: Perceived stress, psychosocial stressors, and behavioral factors: Association with inflammatory, immune, and neuroendocrine biomarkers in a cohort of healthy very elderly men and women
Grant D. Chikazawa-Nelson, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Anna Kurdowska, PhD; Douglas Stephenson, DO; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; and David Zava, PhD
Abstract 22: Prognostic significance of PD2i in heart failure patients
Iwona Cygankiewicz, MD, PhD; Wojciech Zareba, MD, PhD; Scott McNitt, MS; and Antoni Bayes de Luna, MD
Abstract 23: Sympathovagal imbalance assessed by heart rate variability correlates with percent body fat and skeletal muscle, independent of body mass index
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 24: Trajectory of depressive symptoms in patients with heart failure: Influence on cardiac event-free survival
Rebecca L. Dekker, PhD, ARNP; Terry A. Lennie, PhD, RN; Nancy M. Albert, PhD, CCNS; Mary K. Rayens, PhD; Misook L. Chung, PhD, RN; Jia-Rong Wu, PhD, RN; and Debra K. Moser, DNSc, RN
Abstract 25: Autonomic modulation of ankle brachial index assessed by heart rate variability in healthy young male and female volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 26: Toward uncovering key factors in adherence in a post–heart transplant population: A project in the making
Flavio Epstein, PhD, and Parag Kale, MD
Abstract 27: Sympathovagal tone assessed by heart rate variability is directly related to body mass index, percent body fat, and skeletal muscle in healthy male and female young volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 28: Biofeedback training to promote ANS resilience in Army ROTC cadets
M. Haney, MS; K. Quigley, PhD; B. Batorsky, PhD; LTC J. Nepute; S. Moore, BS; A. Uhlig, MS; and L. Zambrana, BA
Abstract 29: Trait hostility is associated with endothelial cell apoptosis in healthy adults
Manjunath Harlapur, MD; Leah Rosenberg, MD; Lauren T. Wasson, MD, MPH; Erika Mejia, BA; Shuqing Zhao, MS; Matthew Cholankeril, BA; Matthew Burg, PhD; and Daichi Shimbo, MD
Abstract 30: Vascular depression impairs health-related behavior
K.K. Hegde, B.T. Mast, and P.A. Lichtenbeg
Abstract 31: Detection of acute mild hypovolemia by nonlinear heart rate variability
Pamela L. Jett, MD; James E. Skinner, PhD; Jerry M. Anchin, PhD; Daniel N. Weiss, MD; Douglas E. Parsell, PhD; and James J. Hughes, MD
Abstract 32: Metabolic pathway perturbation of patients with chronic heart failure and comorbid major depressive disorder
Wei Jiang, MD; David Steffens, MD; Edward Karoly, PhD; Maragatha Kuchibhatla, PhD; Michael S. Cuffe, MD; Christopher M. O’Connor, MD; Ranga Krishnan, MD; and Rima Kaddurah-Daouk, PhD
Abstract 33: Headache: An unusual presenting symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome
Kanchan Kanel, Aisha Chohan, Reza Vaghefi hosseini, Murray Flaster, and Hesham Mohamed
Abstract 34: Effect of stress reduction using the BREATHE technique on inflammatory markers and risk factors for atherosclerosis
John M. Kennedy, MD, FACC, and Donna J. Miller, MSN, FNP-C
Abstract 35: The lite HEARTEN study: How exercise and relaxation techniques affect subclinical markers of heart disease in women: Patterns of change and effect sizes to power future studies of treatment efficacy
R. Lindquist, U. Bronas, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik,
Abstract 36: Cardiovascular effects of spinal cord stimulation in hypertensive patients
Shailesh Musley, Xiaohong Zhou, Ashish Singal, and David Schultz
Abstract 37: Screening for depression and anxiety in patients admitted for coronary artery bypass graft: Comparison of nurses’ reports vs hospital anxiety and depression scale
Ali-Akbar Nejatisafa, Nazila Shahmansouri, and Sina Mazaheri
Abstract 38: Hormonal heart-mind connections: Clinical and research implications
Jan B. Newman, MD, MA, FACS, ABIHM
Abstract 39: Gender differences in longevity and sympathovagal balance
Edward Pereira, MD; Scott Baker, MD; Robert Bulgarelli, DO; Gary L. Murray, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 40: Neuroendocrine, inflammatory, and immune biomarkers associated with body composition, depression, and cognitive impairment in elderly men and women
Jean P. Roux, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; David Zava, PhD; Robert Haussman, PhD; Christine Gély-Nargeot; and Courtney Townsend
Abstract 41: Short-term heart rate complexity determined by the PD2i algorithm is reduced in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus
James E. Skinner, Daniel N. Weiss, Jerry M. Anchin, Zuzana Turianikova, Ingrid Tonhajzerova, Jana Javorkova, Kamil Javorka, Mathias Baumert, and Michal Javorka
Abstract 42: Heart rate variability biofeedback and mindfulness: A functional neuroimaging study
Paula Sigafus
Abstract 43: Heart, brain, and the octopus connection
Nirmal Sunkara
Abstract 44: Relationship between depressive symptoms and cardiovascular risk factors in black individuals
Ali A. Weinstein, PhD; Preetha Abraham; Stacey A. Zeno, MS; Guoqing Diao, PhD; and Patricia A. Deuster, PhD
Abstract 45: History of depression affects patients’ depression scores and inflammatory biomarkers in women hospitalized for acute coronary syndromes
Erica Teng-Yuan Yu, PhD, RN, ARNP
Supplement Editor:
Marc S. Penn, MD, PhD
Contents
Depression and Heart Disease
The Bypassing the Blues trial: Collaborative care for post-CABG depression and implications for future research
Bruce L. Rollman, MD, MPH, and Bea Herbeck Belnap, Dr Biol Hum
Type D personality and vulnerability to adverse outcomes in heart disease
Johan Denollet, PhD, and Viviane M. Conraads, MD, PhD
Biofeedback in the treatment of heart disease
Christine S. Moravec, PhD, and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Device-Based Therapies
Electrical vagus nerve stimulation for the treatment of chronic heart failure
Hani N. Sabbah, PhD, FACC, FCCP, FAHA
Treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases with implantable medical devices
Ralph J. Zitnik, MD
Pioneer Lecture
New frontiers in cardiovascular behavioral medicine: Comparative effectiveness of exercise and medication in treating depression
James A. Blumenthal, PhD
Depression and Inflammatory Signaling in Alzheimer Disease
Depression: A shared risk factor for cardiovascular and Alzheimer disease
Dylan Wint, MD
Inflammatory signaling in Alzheimer disease
Robert Barber, PhD
Vascular signaling abnormalities in Alzheimer disease
Paula Grammas, PhD; Alma Sanchez, PhD; Debjani Tripathy, PhD; Ester Luo, PhD; and Joseph Martinez
Stress in Medicine
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—The burdens of caregiver stress
Michael G. McKee, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Promoting better outcomes with stress and anxiety reduction
A. Marc Gillinov, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Addressing the impact of clinician stress
M. Bridget Duffy, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback in the treatment of stress
Richard N. Gevirtz, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback for extreme stress: Wounded warriors
Carmen V. Russoniello, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Panel discussion
Annual Review of Key Publications in Heart-Brain Medicine
Key 2010 publications in behavioral medicine
Laura D. Kubzansky, PhD, MPH
Novel Findings in Heart-Brain Medicine
Imaging for autonomic dysfunction
Stephen E. Jones, MD, PhD
Neurohormonal control of heart failure
Gary S. Francis, MD
Poster Abstracts
Abstract 1: Biofeedback in coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes, and multiple sclerosis
Matt Baumann, BS; Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Michael Liebenstein, PhD; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Leo Pozuelo, MD; Leslie Cho, MD; Gordon Blackburn, PhD; Francois Bethoux, MD; Mary Rensel, MD; Betul Hatipoglu, MD; Jim Young, MD; Christine S. Moravec, PhD; and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Abstract 2: Biofeedback in heart failure patients awaiting transplantation
Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Matt Baumann, BS; Lamees Khorshid, PsyD; Alex Grossman-McKee; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Wilson Tang, MD; Randall C. Starling, MD; Michael G. McKee, PhD; and Christine S. Moravec, PhD
Abstract 3: Prevalence of anxiety and type D personality in an outpatient ICD clinic
Leo Pozuelo, MD; Melanie Panko, RN; Betty Ching, RN; Denise Kosty-Sweeney, RN; Scott Bea, PhD; Karen Broer, PhD; Julie Thornton, MS; Kathy Wolski, MPH; Karl-Heinz Ladwig, MD; Sam Sears, PhD; Suzanne Pedersen, PhD; Johan Denollet, PhD; and Mina K. Chung, MD
Abstract 4: Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy: Finding the missing cardiac links
Lara Jehi, MD; Thomas Callahan, MD; David Vance, MD; Liang Li, PhD; and Imad Najm, MD
Abstract 5: Low levels of depressive symptoms predict the combined outcome of good health-related quality of life and no cardiac events in patients with heart failure
Kyoung Suk Lee, Terry A. Lennie, Sandra B. Dunbar, Susan J. Pressler, Seongkum Heo, and Debra K. Moser
Abstract 6: Spectral HRV and C-reactive protein in a community-based sample of African Americans
Larry Keen II, MS
Abstract 7: Symptoms of depression and anxiety determine fatigue but not physical fitness in patients with CAD
Adomas Bunevicius, Albinas Stankus, Julija Brozaitiene, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 8: Depression, cardiovascular symptom reporting, and functional status in heart failure patients
Andrew J. Wawrzyniak, Kristie M. Harris, Kerry S. Whittaker, Nadine S. Bekkouche, Sarah M. Godoy, Willem J. Kop, Stephen S. Gottlieb, and David S. Krantz
Abstract 9: Cardiotopic organization of the functionally associated axons within the cervical vagus nerves that project to the ventricles of the cat heart
E. Adetobi-Oladele, S.E. Ekejiuba, M. Shirahata, S. Ruble, A. Caparso, and V.J. Massari
Abstract 10: Significance of carotid intimal thickening in hypertensive patients
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 11: Lacunar infarcts in a hypertensive population and their correlation with systemic vascular resistance
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 12: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: I. Hypertension
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 13: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: II. Diabetes mellitus
Aaron I. Vinik, PhD, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 14: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: III. Coronary artery disease
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 15: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: IV: HIV/AIDS
Patrick Nemechek, DO; Sam Ghosh Dastidar, PhD; and Joe Colombo, PhD
Abstract 16: The existential dilemma of coronary artery disease: Nurse as agent of change in the emerging field of behavioral cardiology
Patricia Baum, RN, BSN
Abstract 17: Phantom shocks as markers of underlying PTSD and depression
Ana Bilanovic, Jane Irvine, Adrienne Kovacs, Ann Hill, Doug Cameron, and Joel Katz
Abstract 18: Psychologic markers of stress, anxiety, and depression are associated with indices of vascular impairment in women with high stress levels and advanced coronary artery disease
U.G. Bronas, R. Lindquist, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik
Abstract 19: Personality dimensions and health-related quality of life in patients with coronary artery disease
Juste Buneviciute, Margarita Staniute, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 20: Behavioral stress results in reversible myocardial dysfunction in a rodent model
Fangping Chen, Sherry Xie, and Mitchell S. Finkel
Abstract 21: Perceived stress, psychosocial stressors, and behavioral factors: Association with inflammatory, immune, and neuroendocrine biomarkers in a cohort of healthy very elderly men and women
Grant D. Chikazawa-Nelson, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Anna Kurdowska, PhD; Douglas Stephenson, DO; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; and David Zava, PhD
Abstract 22: Prognostic significance of PD2i in heart failure patients
Iwona Cygankiewicz, MD, PhD; Wojciech Zareba, MD, PhD; Scott McNitt, MS; and Antoni Bayes de Luna, MD
Abstract 23: Sympathovagal imbalance assessed by heart rate variability correlates with percent body fat and skeletal muscle, independent of body mass index
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 24: Trajectory of depressive symptoms in patients with heart failure: Influence on cardiac event-free survival
Rebecca L. Dekker, PhD, ARNP; Terry A. Lennie, PhD, RN; Nancy M. Albert, PhD, CCNS; Mary K. Rayens, PhD; Misook L. Chung, PhD, RN; Jia-Rong Wu, PhD, RN; and Debra K. Moser, DNSc, RN
Abstract 25: Autonomic modulation of ankle brachial index assessed by heart rate variability in healthy young male and female volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 26: Toward uncovering key factors in adherence in a post–heart transplant population: A project in the making
Flavio Epstein, PhD, and Parag Kale, MD
Abstract 27: Sympathovagal tone assessed by heart rate variability is directly related to body mass index, percent body fat, and skeletal muscle in healthy male and female young volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 28: Biofeedback training to promote ANS resilience in Army ROTC cadets
M. Haney, MS; K. Quigley, PhD; B. Batorsky, PhD; LTC J. Nepute; S. Moore, BS; A. Uhlig, MS; and L. Zambrana, BA
Abstract 29: Trait hostility is associated with endothelial cell apoptosis in healthy adults
Manjunath Harlapur, MD; Leah Rosenberg, MD; Lauren T. Wasson, MD, MPH; Erika Mejia, BA; Shuqing Zhao, MS; Matthew Cholankeril, BA; Matthew Burg, PhD; and Daichi Shimbo, MD
Abstract 30: Vascular depression impairs health-related behavior
K.K. Hegde, B.T. Mast, and P.A. Lichtenbeg
Abstract 31: Detection of acute mild hypovolemia by nonlinear heart rate variability
Pamela L. Jett, MD; James E. Skinner, PhD; Jerry M. Anchin, PhD; Daniel N. Weiss, MD; Douglas E. Parsell, PhD; and James J. Hughes, MD
Abstract 32: Metabolic pathway perturbation of patients with chronic heart failure and comorbid major depressive disorder
Wei Jiang, MD; David Steffens, MD; Edward Karoly, PhD; Maragatha Kuchibhatla, PhD; Michael S. Cuffe, MD; Christopher M. O’Connor, MD; Ranga Krishnan, MD; and Rima Kaddurah-Daouk, PhD
Abstract 33: Headache: An unusual presenting symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome
Kanchan Kanel, Aisha Chohan, Reza Vaghefi hosseini, Murray Flaster, and Hesham Mohamed
Abstract 34: Effect of stress reduction using the BREATHE technique on inflammatory markers and risk factors for atherosclerosis
John M. Kennedy, MD, FACC, and Donna J. Miller, MSN, FNP-C
Abstract 35: The lite HEARTEN study: How exercise and relaxation techniques affect subclinical markers of heart disease in women: Patterns of change and effect sizes to power future studies of treatment efficacy
R. Lindquist, U. Bronas, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik,
Abstract 36: Cardiovascular effects of spinal cord stimulation in hypertensive patients
Shailesh Musley, Xiaohong Zhou, Ashish Singal, and David Schultz
Abstract 37: Screening for depression and anxiety in patients admitted for coronary artery bypass graft: Comparison of nurses’ reports vs hospital anxiety and depression scale
Ali-Akbar Nejatisafa, Nazila Shahmansouri, and Sina Mazaheri
Abstract 38: Hormonal heart-mind connections: Clinical and research implications
Jan B. Newman, MD, MA, FACS, ABIHM
Abstract 39: Gender differences in longevity and sympathovagal balance
Edward Pereira, MD; Scott Baker, MD; Robert Bulgarelli, DO; Gary L. Murray, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 40: Neuroendocrine, inflammatory, and immune biomarkers associated with body composition, depression, and cognitive impairment in elderly men and women
Jean P. Roux, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; David Zava, PhD; Robert Haussman, PhD; Christine Gély-Nargeot; and Courtney Townsend
Abstract 41: Short-term heart rate complexity determined by the PD2i algorithm is reduced in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus
James E. Skinner, Daniel N. Weiss, Jerry M. Anchin, Zuzana Turianikova, Ingrid Tonhajzerova, Jana Javorkova, Kamil Javorka, Mathias Baumert, and Michal Javorka
Abstract 42: Heart rate variability biofeedback and mindfulness: A functional neuroimaging study
Paula Sigafus
Abstract 43: Heart, brain, and the octopus connection
Nirmal Sunkara
Abstract 44: Relationship between depressive symptoms and cardiovascular risk factors in black individuals
Ali A. Weinstein, PhD; Preetha Abraham; Stacey A. Zeno, MS; Guoqing Diao, PhD; and Patricia A. Deuster, PhD
Abstract 45: History of depression affects patients’ depression scores and inflammatory biomarkers in women hospitalized for acute coronary syndromes
Erica Teng-Yuan Yu, PhD, RN, ARNP
Supplement Editor:
Marc S. Penn, MD, PhD
Contents
Depression and Heart Disease
The Bypassing the Blues trial: Collaborative care for post-CABG depression and implications for future research
Bruce L. Rollman, MD, MPH, and Bea Herbeck Belnap, Dr Biol Hum
Type D personality and vulnerability to adverse outcomes in heart disease
Johan Denollet, PhD, and Viviane M. Conraads, MD, PhD
Biofeedback in the treatment of heart disease
Christine S. Moravec, PhD, and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Device-Based Therapies
Electrical vagus nerve stimulation for the treatment of chronic heart failure
Hani N. Sabbah, PhD, FACC, FCCP, FAHA
Treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases with implantable medical devices
Ralph J. Zitnik, MD
Pioneer Lecture
New frontiers in cardiovascular behavioral medicine: Comparative effectiveness of exercise and medication in treating depression
James A. Blumenthal, PhD
Depression and Inflammatory Signaling in Alzheimer Disease
Depression: A shared risk factor for cardiovascular and Alzheimer disease
Dylan Wint, MD
Inflammatory signaling in Alzheimer disease
Robert Barber, PhD
Vascular signaling abnormalities in Alzheimer disease
Paula Grammas, PhD; Alma Sanchez, PhD; Debjani Tripathy, PhD; Ester Luo, PhD; and Joseph Martinez
Stress in Medicine
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—The burdens of caregiver stress
Michael G. McKee, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Promoting better outcomes with stress and anxiety reduction
A. Marc Gillinov, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Addressing the impact of clinician stress
M. Bridget Duffy, MD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback in the treatment of stress
Richard N. Gevirtz, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Biofeedback for extreme stress: Wounded warriors
Carmen V. Russoniello, PhD
Stress in medicine: Strategies for cargivers, patients, clinicians—Panel discussion
Annual Review of Key Publications in Heart-Brain Medicine
Key 2010 publications in behavioral medicine
Laura D. Kubzansky, PhD, MPH
Novel Findings in Heart-Brain Medicine
Imaging for autonomic dysfunction
Stephen E. Jones, MD, PhD
Neurohormonal control of heart failure
Gary S. Francis, MD
Poster Abstracts
Abstract 1: Biofeedback in coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes, and multiple sclerosis
Matt Baumann, BS; Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Michael Liebenstein, PhD; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Leo Pozuelo, MD; Leslie Cho, MD; Gordon Blackburn, PhD; Francois Bethoux, MD; Mary Rensel, MD; Betul Hatipoglu, MD; Jim Young, MD; Christine S. Moravec, PhD; and Michael G. McKee, PhD
Abstract 2: Biofeedback in heart failure patients awaiting transplantation
Dana L. Frank, PhDc; Matt Baumann, BS; Lamees Khorshid, PsyD; Alex Grossman-McKee; Jerry Kiffer, MA; Wilson Tang, MD; Randall C. Starling, MD; Michael G. McKee, PhD; and Christine S. Moravec, PhD
Abstract 3: Prevalence of anxiety and type D personality in an outpatient ICD clinic
Leo Pozuelo, MD; Melanie Panko, RN; Betty Ching, RN; Denise Kosty-Sweeney, RN; Scott Bea, PhD; Karen Broer, PhD; Julie Thornton, MS; Kathy Wolski, MPH; Karl-Heinz Ladwig, MD; Sam Sears, PhD; Suzanne Pedersen, PhD; Johan Denollet, PhD; and Mina K. Chung, MD
Abstract 4: Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy: Finding the missing cardiac links
Lara Jehi, MD; Thomas Callahan, MD; David Vance, MD; Liang Li, PhD; and Imad Najm, MD
Abstract 5: Low levels of depressive symptoms predict the combined outcome of good health-related quality of life and no cardiac events in patients with heart failure
Kyoung Suk Lee, Terry A. Lennie, Sandra B. Dunbar, Susan J. Pressler, Seongkum Heo, and Debra K. Moser
Abstract 6: Spectral HRV and C-reactive protein in a community-based sample of African Americans
Larry Keen II, MS
Abstract 7: Symptoms of depression and anxiety determine fatigue but not physical fitness in patients with CAD
Adomas Bunevicius, Albinas Stankus, Julija Brozaitiene, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 8: Depression, cardiovascular symptom reporting, and functional status in heart failure patients
Andrew J. Wawrzyniak, Kristie M. Harris, Kerry S. Whittaker, Nadine S. Bekkouche, Sarah M. Godoy, Willem J. Kop, Stephen S. Gottlieb, and David S. Krantz
Abstract 9: Cardiotopic organization of the functionally associated axons within the cervical vagus nerves that project to the ventricles of the cat heart
E. Adetobi-Oladele, S.E. Ekejiuba, M. Shirahata, S. Ruble, A. Caparso, and V.J. Massari
Abstract 10: Significance of carotid intimal thickening in hypertensive patients
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 11: Lacunar infarcts in a hypertensive population and their correlation with systemic vascular resistance
Shashi K. Agarwal, MD, and Neil K. Agarwal
Abstract 12: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: I. Hypertension
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 13: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: II. Diabetes mellitus
Aaron I. Vinik, PhD, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 14: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: III. Coronary artery disease
Rohit R. Arora, MD; Samanwoy Ghosh-Dastidar, PhD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 15: Age-matched attenuation of both autonomic branches in chronic disease: IV: HIV/AIDS
Patrick Nemechek, DO; Sam Ghosh Dastidar, PhD; and Joe Colombo, PhD
Abstract 16: The existential dilemma of coronary artery disease: Nurse as agent of change in the emerging field of behavioral cardiology
Patricia Baum, RN, BSN
Abstract 17: Phantom shocks as markers of underlying PTSD and depression
Ana Bilanovic, Jane Irvine, Adrienne Kovacs, Ann Hill, Doug Cameron, and Joel Katz
Abstract 18: Psychologic markers of stress, anxiety, and depression are associated with indices of vascular impairment in women with high stress levels and advanced coronary artery disease
U.G. Bronas, R. Lindquist, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik
Abstract 19: Personality dimensions and health-related quality of life in patients with coronary artery disease
Juste Buneviciute, Margarita Staniute, and Robertas Bunevicius
Abstract 20: Behavioral stress results in reversible myocardial dysfunction in a rodent model
Fangping Chen, Sherry Xie, and Mitchell S. Finkel
Abstract 21: Perceived stress, psychosocial stressors, and behavioral factors: Association with inflammatory, immune, and neuroendocrine biomarkers in a cohort of healthy very elderly men and women
Grant D. Chikazawa-Nelson, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Anna Kurdowska, PhD; Douglas Stephenson, DO; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; and David Zava, PhD
Abstract 22: Prognostic significance of PD2i in heart failure patients
Iwona Cygankiewicz, MD, PhD; Wojciech Zareba, MD, PhD; Scott McNitt, MS; and Antoni Bayes de Luna, MD
Abstract 23: Sympathovagal imbalance assessed by heart rate variability correlates with percent body fat and skeletal muscle, independent of body mass index
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 24: Trajectory of depressive symptoms in patients with heart failure: Influence on cardiac event-free survival
Rebecca L. Dekker, PhD, ARNP; Terry A. Lennie, PhD, RN; Nancy M. Albert, PhD, CCNS; Mary K. Rayens, PhD; Misook L. Chung, PhD, RN; Jia-Rong Wu, PhD, RN; and Debra K. Moser, DNSc, RN
Abstract 25: Autonomic modulation of ankle brachial index assessed by heart rate variability in healthy young male and female volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 26: Toward uncovering key factors in adherence in a post–heart transplant population: A project in the making
Flavio Epstein, PhD, and Parag Kale, MD
Abstract 27: Sympathovagal tone assessed by heart rate variability is directly related to body mass index, percent body fat, and skeletal muscle in healthy male and female young volunteers
David Martinez Duncker R., MD, PhD; Martha Elva Rebolledo Rea, MD, MSc; Ernesto González Rodríguez, MD, MSc; David M. Duncker Rebolledo, MD; and Martha E.M. Duncker Rebolledo, MS
Abstract 28: Biofeedback training to promote ANS resilience in Army ROTC cadets
M. Haney, MS; K. Quigley, PhD; B. Batorsky, PhD; LTC J. Nepute; S. Moore, BS; A. Uhlig, MS; and L. Zambrana, BA
Abstract 29: Trait hostility is associated with endothelial cell apoptosis in healthy adults
Manjunath Harlapur, MD; Leah Rosenberg, MD; Lauren T. Wasson, MD, MPH; Erika Mejia, BA; Shuqing Zhao, MS; Matthew Cholankeril, BA; Matthew Burg, PhD; and Daichi Shimbo, MD
Abstract 30: Vascular depression impairs health-related behavior
K.K. Hegde, B.T. Mast, and P.A. Lichtenbeg
Abstract 31: Detection of acute mild hypovolemia by nonlinear heart rate variability
Pamela L. Jett, MD; James E. Skinner, PhD; Jerry M. Anchin, PhD; Daniel N. Weiss, MD; Douglas E. Parsell, PhD; and James J. Hughes, MD
Abstract 32: Metabolic pathway perturbation of patients with chronic heart failure and comorbid major depressive disorder
Wei Jiang, MD; David Steffens, MD; Edward Karoly, PhD; Maragatha Kuchibhatla, PhD; Michael S. Cuffe, MD; Christopher M. O’Connor, MD; Ranga Krishnan, MD; and Rima Kaddurah-Daouk, PhD
Abstract 33: Headache: An unusual presenting symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome
Kanchan Kanel, Aisha Chohan, Reza Vaghefi hosseini, Murray Flaster, and Hesham Mohamed
Abstract 34: Effect of stress reduction using the BREATHE technique on inflammatory markers and risk factors for atherosclerosis
John M. Kennedy, MD, FACC, and Donna J. Miller, MSN, FNP-C
Abstract 35: The lite HEARTEN study: How exercise and relaxation techniques affect subclinical markers of heart disease in women: Patterns of change and effect sizes to power future studies of treatment efficacy
R. Lindquist, U. Bronas, A. Leon, Y. Song, D. Windenburg, D. Witt, D. Treat-Jacobson, E. Grey, W. Hines, and K. Savik,
Abstract 36: Cardiovascular effects of spinal cord stimulation in hypertensive patients
Shailesh Musley, Xiaohong Zhou, Ashish Singal, and David Schultz
Abstract 37: Screening for depression and anxiety in patients admitted for coronary artery bypass graft: Comparison of nurses’ reports vs hospital anxiety and depression scale
Ali-Akbar Nejatisafa, Nazila Shahmansouri, and Sina Mazaheri
Abstract 38: Hormonal heart-mind connections: Clinical and research implications
Jan B. Newman, MD, MA, FACS, ABIHM
Abstract 39: Gender differences in longevity and sympathovagal balance
Edward Pereira, MD; Scott Baker, MD; Robert Bulgarelli, DO; Gary L. Murray, MD; Rohit R. Arora, MD; and Joseph Colombo, PhD
Abstract 40: Neuroendocrine, inflammatory, and immune biomarkers associated with body composition, depression, and cognitive impairment in elderly men and women
Jean P. Roux, PhD; Kenna Stephenson, MD; Sanjay Kapur, PhD; David Zava, PhD; Robert Haussman, PhD; Christine Gély-Nargeot; and Courtney Townsend
Abstract 41: Short-term heart rate complexity determined by the PD2i algorithm is reduced in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus
James E. Skinner, Daniel N. Weiss, Jerry M. Anchin, Zuzana Turianikova, Ingrid Tonhajzerova, Jana Javorkova, Kamil Javorka, Mathias Baumert, and Michal Javorka
Abstract 42: Heart rate variability biofeedback and mindfulness: A functional neuroimaging study
Paula Sigafus
Abstract 43: Heart, brain, and the octopus connection
Nirmal Sunkara
Abstract 44: Relationship between depressive symptoms and cardiovascular risk factors in black individuals
Ali A. Weinstein, PhD; Preetha Abraham; Stacey A. Zeno, MS; Guoqing Diao, PhD; and Patricia A. Deuster, PhD
Abstract 45: History of depression affects patients’ depression scores and inflammatory biomarkers in women hospitalized for acute coronary syndromes
Erica Teng-Yuan Yu, PhD, RN, ARNP