Symptoms to Diagnosis

A 78-year-old black woman with a history of osteoarthrosis and chronic diffuse joint pain presents with altered mental status and tachypnea, which began 3 hours earlier. She lives alone, and her family suspects she abuses both alcohol and her pain medications. She has not been eating well and has lost approximately 10 pounds over the past 3 months. Her analgesic regimen includes acetaminophen and acetaminophen-oxycodone.

In the emergency department her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse 100 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 22 per minute, and blood pressure 136/98 mm Hg. She is obtunded but has no focal neurologic defects or meningismus. She has no signs of heart failure (jugular venous distention, cardiomegaly, or gallops), and examination of the lungs and abdomen is unremarkable.

Suspecting that the patient may have taken too much oxycodone, the physician gives her naloxone, but her mental status does not improve. Results of chest radiography and cranial computed tomography are unremarkable. The physician’s initial impression is that the patient has “metabolic encephalopathy of unknown etiology.”

The patient’s laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

WHICH ACID-BASE DISORDER DOES SHE HAVE?

1. Which acid-base disorder does this patient have?

• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
• Metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap
• A triple disturbance: metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis

A 5-step approach

Acid-base disorders can be diagnosed and characterized using a systematic approach known as the “Rules of 5” (Table 2)¹:

1. Determine the arterial pH status.

2. Determine whether the primary process is respiratory, metabolic, or both.

3. Calculate the anion gap.

4. Check the degree of compensation (respiratory or metabolic).

5. If the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, check whether the bicarbonate level has decreased as much as the anion gap has increased (ie, whether there is a delta gap).

Let us apply this approach to the patient described above.

1. What is her pH status?

An arterial pH less than 7.40 is acidemic, whereas a pH higher than 7.44 is alkalemic. (Acidemia and alkalemia refer to the abnormal laboratory value, while acidosis and alkalosis refer to the process causing the abnormal value—a subtle distinction, but worth keeping in mind.)

Caveat. A patient may have a significant acid-base disorder even if the pH is normal. Therefore, even if the pH is normal, one should verify that the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco₂), bicarbonate level, and anion gap are normal. If they are not, the patient may have a mixed acid-base disorder such as respiratory acidosis superimposed on metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s pH is 7.25, which is in the acidemic range.

2. Is her acidosis respiratory, metabolic, or both?

Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis affect the Pco₂. The Pco₂ is high in respiratory acidosis (due to failure to get rid of excess carbon dioxide), whereas it is low in respiratory alkalosis (due to loss of too much carbon dioxide through hyperventilation).

Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, on the other hand, affect the serum bicarbonate level. In metabolic acidosis the bicarbonate level is low, whereas in metabolic alkalosis the bicarbonate level is high.

Moreover, in mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate level can be low and the Pco₂ can be high. In mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis, the bicarbonate level can be high and the Pco₂ can be low (Table 2).

Our patient’s serum bicarbonate level is low at 16.0 mmol/L, indicating that the process is metabolic. Her Pco₂ is also low (28 mm Hg), which reflects an appropriate response to compensate for the acidosis.

3. What is her anion gap?

Always calculate the anion gap, ie, the serum sodium concentration minus the serum chloride and serum bicarbonate concentrations. If the patient’s serum albumin level is low, for every 1 gram it is below normal, an additional 2.5 mmol/L should be added to the calculated anion gap. We consider an anion gap of 10 mmol/L or less as normal.

Caveats. The blood sample used to calculate the anion gap should be drawn close in time to the arterial blood gas sample.

Although the anion gap is an effective tool in assessing acid-base disorders, further investigation is warranted if clinical judgment suggests that an anion gap calculation is inconsistent with the patient’s circumstances.²

Our patient’s anion gap is elevated (21 mmol/L). Her serum albumin level is in the normal range, so her anion gap does not need to be adjusted.

4. Is the degree of compensation appropriate for the primary acid-base disturbance?

The kidneys compensate for the lungs, and vice versa. That is, in respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, the kidneys adjust the bicarbonate levels, and in metabolic acidosis, the lungs adjust the Pco₂ (although in metabolic alkalosis, it is hard for patients to breathe less, especially if they are already hypoxic).

In metabolic acidosis, people compensate by breathing harder to get rid of more carbon dioxide. For every 1-mmol/L decrease in the bicarbonate level, the Pco₂ should decrease by 1.3 mm Hg.

Compensation does not return pH to normal; rather, it mitigates the impact of an acid or alkali excess or deficit. If the pH is normalized with an underlying acid-base disturbance, there may be mixed acid-base processes rather than compensation.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level is 16 mmol/L, which is 9 mmol/L lower than normal (for acid-base calculations, we use 25 mmol/L as the nominal normal level). If she is compensating appropriately, her Pco₂ should decline from 40 mm Hg (the nominal normal level) by about 11.7 mm Hg (9 × 1.3), to approximately 28.3 mm Hg. Her Pco₂ is, indeed, 28 mm Hg, indicating that she is compensating adequately for her metabolic acidosis.

If we use Winter’s formula instead (Pco₂ = [1.5 × the bicarbonate level] + 8 ± 2),³ the lowest calculated Pco₂ would be 30 mm Hg, which is within 2 mm Hg of the Rules of 5 calculation. Other formulas for calculating compensation are available.³

This information rules out the first two answers to question 1, ie, metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis or acidosis.

5. Is there a delta gap?

Although we know the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, we have not ruled out the possibility that she may have a triple disturbance. For this reason we need to check her delta gap. 

In metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, as the bicarbonate level decreases, the anion gap should increase by the same amount. If the bicarbonate level decreases more than the anion gap increases, the additional decline is the result of a second process—an additional normal-anion-gap acidosis. If the bicarbonate level does not decrease as much as the anion gap increases, there is an additional metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level decreased 9 mmol/L (from the nominal normal level of 25 to 16), and therefore her anion gap should have increased approximately the same amount—and it did. (A normal anion gap for problem-solving is 10, and this patient’s anion gap has increased to 21. A difference of ± 2 is insignificant.) This conclusion verifies that a triple acid-base disturbance is not present, so the last answer is incorrect.

So, the correct answer to the question posed above is metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (that is, metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation).

‘MUD PILES’: FINDING THE CAUSE OF ANION GAP METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

The possible causes of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (as in our patient) can be summarized in the mnemonic MUD PILES (methanol, uremia, diabetes, paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate, ethylene glycol, and salicylates), which has been used for many years. Parts of it are no longer useful, but rather than discard it, we propose to update it (Table 3).

Methanol and ethylene glycol

We will address toxic ingestion of methanol and ethylene glycol (the “M” and “E” of MUD PILES) at the same time. 

In cases of suspected ingestion of toxic substances such as these, it is useful to examine the osmol gap, ie, the difference between the calculated and the measured serum osmolality. Serum osmolality (in mOsm/kg) is calculated as the sodium concentration in mmol/L times 2, plus the glucose concentration in mg/dL divided by 18, plus the blood urea nitrogen concentration in mg/dL divided by 2.8 (Table 4). If the measured osmolality is higher than this calculated value, the difference may be due to solutes in the blood that should not be there such as ethylene glycol, diethylene glycol, methanol, and their many metabolic products.

In our patient, ingestion of both methanol and ethylene glycol should be considered, since she lives alone and has been suspected of alcohol and opioid abuse. Her calculated osmol gap is 278 mOsm/kg. Her measured osmolality is 318 mOsm/kg (Table 1). The osmol gap is 40 mOsm/kg (normal is ≤ 10).^4,5 Therefore, her osmol gap is elevated.

Identifying the specific substance the patient ingested that caused metabolic acidosis with anion gap may be difficult. Poisonings with these agents do not always increase the osmol gap.⁶ A high index of suspicion is essential. It is helpful to have the family search for any sources of ethylene glycol and methanol at home and initiate treatment early if an ingestion is suspected, using fomepizole (an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) or parenteral ethanol and hemodialysis.⁷ Liquid chromatography identifies these two toxins, but results are not available emergently.

Diethylene glycol ingestion should also be considered.⁸ Since it is diagnosed and treated like ethylene glycol intoxication, it can be placed with the “E” of (di)ethylene glycol in the mnemonic.

Uremia

Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis.⁹ Our patient has no history of kidney disease, but her blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentrations are above normal, and her estimated glomerular filtration rate by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease formula is 48 mL/min/1.73 m²—low, but not uremic.  

Rhabdomyolysis (suspected by elevated creatine kinase values) should be considered in any patient with mental status changes, suspected toxic ingestion, and metabolic acidosis (see the “I” in MUD PILES below). Compartment syndromes with muscle necrosis may present in a subtle fashion. Therefore, renal failure from rhabdomyolysis may complicate this patient’s course later, and should be kept in mind.

Diabetes

The patient has no history of diabetes and has a normal blood glucose level. Blood testing did not reveal ketones. She is not taking metformin (alleged to cause lactic acidosis) or a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor (which have been associated with ketoacidosis).¹⁰

There is another, less common cause of ketoacidosis: alcohol.¹¹ Although alcoholism is common, alcoholic ketoacidosis is uncommon, even in heavy drinkers. Ethyl alcohol causing metabolic acidosis is similar to metabolic acidosis with (di)ethylene glycol and methanol, and if suspected it should be treated empirically (first with thiamine, then dextrose and saline, and correcting other electrolyte disturbances such as hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia) before specific identification is made. Ketones (predominantly beta-hydroxybutyrate) may persist up to 2 weeks after alcohol ingestion has stopped.¹¹ Ketosis in the setting of alcoholic ketoacidosis is frequently accompanied by other markers of alcohol target organ injury: elevated bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels. The term “ketohepatitis” has been suggested as an alternative to alcoholic ketosis.¹¹

This patient did not have an elevated blood ethanol level, and her liver markers were otherwise normal.

THE NEW MUD PILES

2. Which of the following is (are) true? Regarding the remaining letters of the MUD PILES mnemonic:

• The “P” (paraldehyde) has been replaced by pyroglutamic acid (5-oxoproline) and propylene glycol.
• There are two isomers of lactate (dextro and levo), and consequently two clinical varieties of lactic acidosis.
• Isoniazid is no longer associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap.
• Salicylates can paradoxically be associated both with elevated and low anion gaps.

Isoniazid is still associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap, and so the third answer choice is false; the rest are true.

Paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate

The “P,” “I,” and “L” (d-lactate) of the revamped MUD PILES acronym are less common than the others. They should be considered when the more typical causes of metabolic acidosis are not present, as in this patient.

UPDATING THE ‘P’ IN MUD PILES

Paraldehyde is rarely prescribed anymore. A PubMed search on December 21, 2015 applying the terms paraldehyde and metabolic acidosis yielded 17 results. Those specific to anion gap metabolic acidosis were from 1957 to 1986 (n = 9).^12–20

Therefore, we can eliminate paraldehyde from the MUD PILES mnemonic and replace it with pyroglutamic acid and propylene glycol.

5-Oxoproline or pyroglutamic acid, a metabolite of acetaminophen

Acetaminophen depletes glutathione stores in acute overdoses, in patients with inborn errors of metabolism, and after chronic ingestion of excessive, frequent doses. Depletion of glutathione increases metabolic products, including pyroglutamic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (leading to metabolic acidosis and an anion gap), and 5-oxoproline, (which can be detected in the urine).^21,22

Risk factors for metabolic acidosis with acetaminophen ingestion include malnutrition, chronic alcoholism, liver disease, and female sex. In fact, most cases have been reported in females, and altered mental status has been common.

Metabolic acidosis with pyroglutamic acid can occur without elevated acetaminophen levels. Serum and urine levels of pyroglutamic acid may assist with diagnosis. Since identification of urine pyroglutamic acid usually requires outside laboratory assistance, a clinical diagnosis is often made initially and corroborated later by laboratory results. When the anion gap metabolic acidosis is multifactorial, as it was suspected to be in a case reported by Tan et al,²³ the osmol gap may be elevated as a consequence of additional toxic ingestions, as it was in the reported patient.

No controlled studies of treatment have been done. n-Acetylcysteine may be of benefit. Occasional patients have been dialyzed for removal of excess pyroglutamic acid.

Propylene glycol, a component of parenteral lorazepam

Lorazepam is a hydrophobic drug, so when it is given parenterally, it must be mixed with a suitable solvent. A typical formulation adds propylene glycol. In patients receiving high doses of lorazepam as relaxation therapy for acute respiratory distress syndrome in the intensive care unit, or as treatment of alcohol withdrawal, the propylene glycol component can precipitate anion gap metabolic acidosis.^24,25

Although nearly one-half of the administered propylene glycol is excreted by the kidneys, the remaining substrate is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into d,l-lactaldehyde, then converted into d- or l-lactate. l-Lactate can be metabolized, but d-lactate cannot and leads to anion gap metabolic acidosis. This is another toxic metabolic acidosis associated with an elevated osmol gap. An increasing osmol gap in the intensive care unit can serve as a surrogate marker of excessive propylene glycol administration.²³

Isoniazid

Although it is uncommon, there are reports of isoniazid-induced anion gap metabolic acidosis,²⁶ either due to overdoses, or less commonly, with normal dosing. Isoniazid should therefore remain in the mnemonic MUD PILES and may be suspected when metabolic acidosis is accompanied by seizures unresponsive to usual therapy. The seizures respond to pyridoxine.

The “I” should also be augmented by newer causes of metabolic acidosis associated with “ingestions.” Ecstasy, or 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine, can cause metabolic acidosis and seizures. Ecstasy has been associated with rhabdomyolysis and uremia, also leading to anion gap metabolic acidosis.²⁷ A newer class of abused substances, synthetic cathinones (“bath salts”), are associated with metabolic acidosis, compartment syndrome, and renal failure.²⁸

Lactic acidosis

Lactic acidosis and metabolic acidosis can result from hypoperfusion (type A) or other causes (type B). Not all lactic acidosis is contingent on l-lactate, which humans can metabolize. Metabolic acidosis may be a consequence of d-lactate (mammals have no d-lactate dehydrogenase). d-Lactic acidosis as a result of short bowel syndrome has been known for more than a generation.²⁹ However, d-lactic acidosis occurs in another new setting. The new “P” in MUD PILES, propylene glycol, can generate substantial amounts of d-lactate.²⁹

d-lactic metabolic acidosis is always accompanied by neurologic manifestations (slurred speech, confusion, somnolence, ataxia, abusive behavior, and others).³⁰ With short bowel syndrome, the neurologic manifestations occur after eating and clear later.³⁰

Although our patient’s anion gap is more than 20 mmol/L, her blood level of lactate is not elevated, and she had no history to suggest short-bowel syndrome.

Salicylates

Salicylate overdose can cause a mixed acid-base disorder: metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap and respiratory alkalosis.

Although our patient does not have respiratory alkalosis, an aspirin overdose must be considered. A salicylate level was ordered; it was negative.

Despite the typical association of salicylates with an elevated anion gap, they may also cause a negative anion gap.³¹ Chloride-sensing ion-specific electrodes contain a membrane permeable to chloride. Salicylates can increase the chloride permeability of these membranes, generating pseudohyperchloremia, and consequently, a negative anion gap.

WHAT ELSE MUST BE CONSIDERED?

3. In view of her anion gap metabolic acidosis, elevated osmol gap, and absence of diabetes, renal failure, or lactate excess, what are the remaining diagnoses to consider in this patient? (Choose all that are potential sources of metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap.)

• Methanol, ethylene, or diethylene glycol
• Excessive, chronic acetaminophen ingestion
• Salicylate toxicity
• Alcoholic ketoacidosis

All of the above can potentially contribute to metabolic acidosis.

A search of the patient’s home did not reveal a source of methanol or either ethylene or diethylene glycol. Similarly, no aspirin was found, and the patient’s salicylate levels were not elevated. The patient’s laboratory work did not reveal increased ketones.

Since none of the common causes of metabolic acidosis were discovered, and since the patient had been taking acetaminophen, the diagnosis of excessive chronic acetaminophen ingestion was suspected pending laboratory verification. Identification of 5-oxoproline in the urine may take a week or more since the sample is usually sent to special laboratories. Acetaminophen levels in this patient were significantly elevated, as were urinary oxyproline levels, which returned later.

The patient was diagnosed with pyroglutamic acid metabolic acidosis. She was treated supportively and with n-acetylcysteine intravenously, although there have been no controlled studies of the efficacy of this drug. Seventy-two hours after admission, she had improved. Her acid-base status returned to normal.

GOLD MARK: ANOTHER WAY TO REMEMBER

Another mnemonic device for remembering the causes of metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap is “GOLD MARK”: glycols (ethylene and propylene), oxoproline (instead of pyroglutamic acid from acetaminophen), l-lactate, d-lactate, methanol, aspirin, renal failure, and ketoacidosis).³²

ACID-BASE DISORDERS IN DIFFERENT DISEASES

Diverse diseases cause distinctive acid-base abnormalities. Matching the appropriate acid-base abnormality with its associated disease may lead to more timely diagnosis and treatment:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus, for example, can lead to lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, or type 4 renal tubular acidosis.³³

Heart failure, although not typically framed in the context of acid-base physiology, can lead to elevated lactate, which is associated with a worse prognosis.³⁴

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Abacavir can cause normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.^35,36

Cancer^37,38 can be associated with proximal tubular renal tubular acidosis and lactic acidosis.

An expanding array of toxic ingestions

Metabolic acidosis may be the most prominent and potentially lethal clinical acid-base disturbance. When metabolic acidosis occurs in certain disease states—lactic acidosis with hypoperfusion or methanol ingestion with metabolic acidosis, for example—there is increased morbidity and mortality.

As reflected in the revisions to MUD PILES and in the newer GOLD MARK acronym, the osmol gap has become more valuable in differential diagnosis of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap consequent to an expanding array of toxic ingestions (methanol, propylene glycol, pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline, ethylene glycol, and diethylene glycol), which may accompany pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline.

A 78-year-old black woman with a history of osteoarthrosis and chronic diffuse joint pain presents with altered mental status and tachypnea, which began 3 hours earlier. She lives alone, and her family suspects she abuses both alcohol and her pain medications. She has not been eating well and has lost approximately 10 pounds over the past 3 months. Her analgesic regimen includes acetaminophen and acetaminophen-oxycodone.

In the emergency department her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse 100 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 22 per minute, and blood pressure 136/98 mm Hg. She is obtunded but has no focal neurologic defects or meningismus. She has no signs of heart failure (jugular venous distention, cardiomegaly, or gallops), and examination of the lungs and abdomen is unremarkable.

Suspecting that the patient may have taken too much oxycodone, the physician gives her naloxone, but her mental status does not improve. Results of chest radiography and cranial computed tomography are unremarkable. The physician’s initial impression is that the patient has “metabolic encephalopathy of unknown etiology.”

The patient’s laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

WHICH ACID-BASE DISORDER DOES SHE HAVE?

1. Which acid-base disorder does this patient have?

• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
• Metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap
• A triple disturbance: metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis

A 5-step approach

Acid-base disorders can be diagnosed and characterized using a systematic approach known as the “Rules of 5” (Table 2)¹:

1. Determine the arterial pH status.

2. Determine whether the primary process is respiratory, metabolic, or both.

3. Calculate the anion gap.

4. Check the degree of compensation (respiratory or metabolic).

5. If the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, check whether the bicarbonate level has decreased as much as the anion gap has increased (ie, whether there is a delta gap).

Let us apply this approach to the patient described above.

1. What is her pH status?

An arterial pH less than 7.40 is acidemic, whereas a pH higher than 7.44 is alkalemic. (Acidemia and alkalemia refer to the abnormal laboratory value, while acidosis and alkalosis refer to the process causing the abnormal value—a subtle distinction, but worth keeping in mind.)

Caveat. A patient may have a significant acid-base disorder even if the pH is normal. Therefore, even if the pH is normal, one should verify that the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco₂), bicarbonate level, and anion gap are normal. If they are not, the patient may have a mixed acid-base disorder such as respiratory acidosis superimposed on metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s pH is 7.25, which is in the acidemic range.

2. Is her acidosis respiratory, metabolic, or both?

Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis affect the Pco₂. The Pco₂ is high in respiratory acidosis (due to failure to get rid of excess carbon dioxide), whereas it is low in respiratory alkalosis (due to loss of too much carbon dioxide through hyperventilation).

Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, on the other hand, affect the serum bicarbonate level. In metabolic acidosis the bicarbonate level is low, whereas in metabolic alkalosis the bicarbonate level is high.

Moreover, in mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate level can be low and the Pco₂ can be high. In mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis, the bicarbonate level can be high and the Pco₂ can be low (Table 2).

Our patient’s serum bicarbonate level is low at 16.0 mmol/L, indicating that the process is metabolic. Her Pco₂ is also low (28 mm Hg), which reflects an appropriate response to compensate for the acidosis.

3. What is her anion gap?

Always calculate the anion gap, ie, the serum sodium concentration minus the serum chloride and serum bicarbonate concentrations. If the patient’s serum albumin level is low, for every 1 gram it is below normal, an additional 2.5 mmol/L should be added to the calculated anion gap. We consider an anion gap of 10 mmol/L or less as normal.

Caveats. The blood sample used to calculate the anion gap should be drawn close in time to the arterial blood gas sample.

Although the anion gap is an effective tool in assessing acid-base disorders, further investigation is warranted if clinical judgment suggests that an anion gap calculation is inconsistent with the patient’s circumstances.²

Our patient’s anion gap is elevated (21 mmol/L). Her serum albumin level is in the normal range, so her anion gap does not need to be adjusted.

4. Is the degree of compensation appropriate for the primary acid-base disturbance?

The kidneys compensate for the lungs, and vice versa. That is, in respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, the kidneys adjust the bicarbonate levels, and in metabolic acidosis, the lungs adjust the Pco₂ (although in metabolic alkalosis, it is hard for patients to breathe less, especially if they are already hypoxic).

In metabolic acidosis, people compensate by breathing harder to get rid of more carbon dioxide. For every 1-mmol/L decrease in the bicarbonate level, the Pco₂ should decrease by 1.3 mm Hg.

Compensation does not return pH to normal; rather, it mitigates the impact of an acid or alkali excess or deficit. If the pH is normalized with an underlying acid-base disturbance, there may be mixed acid-base processes rather than compensation.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level is 16 mmol/L, which is 9 mmol/L lower than normal (for acid-base calculations, we use 25 mmol/L as the nominal normal level). If she is compensating appropriately, her Pco₂ should decline from 40 mm Hg (the nominal normal level) by about 11.7 mm Hg (9 × 1.3), to approximately 28.3 mm Hg. Her Pco₂ is, indeed, 28 mm Hg, indicating that she is compensating adequately for her metabolic acidosis.

If we use Winter’s formula instead (Pco₂ = [1.5 × the bicarbonate level] + 8 ± 2),³ the lowest calculated Pco₂ would be 30 mm Hg, which is within 2 mm Hg of the Rules of 5 calculation. Other formulas for calculating compensation are available.³

This information rules out the first two answers to question 1, ie, metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis or acidosis.

5. Is there a delta gap?

Although we know the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, we have not ruled out the possibility that she may have a triple disturbance. For this reason we need to check her delta gap. 

In metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, as the bicarbonate level decreases, the anion gap should increase by the same amount. If the bicarbonate level decreases more than the anion gap increases, the additional decline is the result of a second process—an additional normal-anion-gap acidosis. If the bicarbonate level does not decrease as much as the anion gap increases, there is an additional metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level decreased 9 mmol/L (from the nominal normal level of 25 to 16), and therefore her anion gap should have increased approximately the same amount—and it did. (A normal anion gap for problem-solving is 10, and this patient’s anion gap has increased to 21. A difference of ± 2 is insignificant.) This conclusion verifies that a triple acid-base disturbance is not present, so the last answer is incorrect.

So, the correct answer to the question posed above is metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (that is, metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation).

‘MUD PILES’: FINDING THE CAUSE OF ANION GAP METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

The possible causes of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (as in our patient) can be summarized in the mnemonic MUD PILES (methanol, uremia, diabetes, paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate, ethylene glycol, and salicylates), which has been used for many years. Parts of it are no longer useful, but rather than discard it, we propose to update it (Table 3).

Methanol and ethylene glycol

We will address toxic ingestion of methanol and ethylene glycol (the “M” and “E” of MUD PILES) at the same time. 

In cases of suspected ingestion of toxic substances such as these, it is useful to examine the osmol gap, ie, the difference between the calculated and the measured serum osmolality. Serum osmolality (in mOsm/kg) is calculated as the sodium concentration in mmol/L times 2, plus the glucose concentration in mg/dL divided by 18, plus the blood urea nitrogen concentration in mg/dL divided by 2.8 (Table 4). If the measured osmolality is higher than this calculated value, the difference may be due to solutes in the blood that should not be there such as ethylene glycol, diethylene glycol, methanol, and their many metabolic products.

In our patient, ingestion of both methanol and ethylene glycol should be considered, since she lives alone and has been suspected of alcohol and opioid abuse. Her calculated osmol gap is 278 mOsm/kg. Her measured osmolality is 318 mOsm/kg (Table 1). The osmol gap is 40 mOsm/kg (normal is ≤ 10).^4,5 Therefore, her osmol gap is elevated.

Identifying the specific substance the patient ingested that caused metabolic acidosis with anion gap may be difficult. Poisonings with these agents do not always increase the osmol gap.⁶ A high index of suspicion is essential. It is helpful to have the family search for any sources of ethylene glycol and methanol at home and initiate treatment early if an ingestion is suspected, using fomepizole (an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) or parenteral ethanol and hemodialysis.⁷ Liquid chromatography identifies these two toxins, but results are not available emergently.

Diethylene glycol ingestion should also be considered.⁸ Since it is diagnosed and treated like ethylene glycol intoxication, it can be placed with the “E” of (di)ethylene glycol in the mnemonic.

Uremia

Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis.⁹ Our patient has no history of kidney disease, but her blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentrations are above normal, and her estimated glomerular filtration rate by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease formula is 48 mL/min/1.73 m²—low, but not uremic.  

Rhabdomyolysis (suspected by elevated creatine kinase values) should be considered in any patient with mental status changes, suspected toxic ingestion, and metabolic acidosis (see the “I” in MUD PILES below). Compartment syndromes with muscle necrosis may present in a subtle fashion. Therefore, renal failure from rhabdomyolysis may complicate this patient’s course later, and should be kept in mind.

Diabetes

The patient has no history of diabetes and has a normal blood glucose level. Blood testing did not reveal ketones. She is not taking metformin (alleged to cause lactic acidosis) or a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor (which have been associated with ketoacidosis).¹⁰

There is another, less common cause of ketoacidosis: alcohol.¹¹ Although alcoholism is common, alcoholic ketoacidosis is uncommon, even in heavy drinkers. Ethyl alcohol causing metabolic acidosis is similar to metabolic acidosis with (di)ethylene glycol and methanol, and if suspected it should be treated empirically (first with thiamine, then dextrose and saline, and correcting other electrolyte disturbances such as hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia) before specific identification is made. Ketones (predominantly beta-hydroxybutyrate) may persist up to 2 weeks after alcohol ingestion has stopped.¹¹ Ketosis in the setting of alcoholic ketoacidosis is frequently accompanied by other markers of alcohol target organ injury: elevated bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels. The term “ketohepatitis” has been suggested as an alternative to alcoholic ketosis.¹¹

This patient did not have an elevated blood ethanol level, and her liver markers were otherwise normal.

THE NEW MUD PILES

2. Which of the following is (are) true? Regarding the remaining letters of the MUD PILES mnemonic:

• The “P” (paraldehyde) has been replaced by pyroglutamic acid (5-oxoproline) and propylene glycol.
• There are two isomers of lactate (dextro and levo), and consequently two clinical varieties of lactic acidosis.
• Isoniazid is no longer associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap.
• Salicylates can paradoxically be associated both with elevated and low anion gaps.

Isoniazid is still associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap, and so the third answer choice is false; the rest are true.

Paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate

The “P,” “I,” and “L” (d-lactate) of the revamped MUD PILES acronym are less common than the others. They should be considered when the more typical causes of metabolic acidosis are not present, as in this patient.

UPDATING THE ‘P’ IN MUD PILES

Paraldehyde is rarely prescribed anymore. A PubMed search on December 21, 2015 applying the terms paraldehyde and metabolic acidosis yielded 17 results. Those specific to anion gap metabolic acidosis were from 1957 to 1986 (n = 9).^12–20

Therefore, we can eliminate paraldehyde from the MUD PILES mnemonic and replace it with pyroglutamic acid and propylene glycol.

5-Oxoproline or pyroglutamic acid, a metabolite of acetaminophen

Acetaminophen depletes glutathione stores in acute overdoses, in patients with inborn errors of metabolism, and after chronic ingestion of excessive, frequent doses. Depletion of glutathione increases metabolic products, including pyroglutamic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (leading to metabolic acidosis and an anion gap), and 5-oxoproline, (which can be detected in the urine).^21,22

Risk factors for metabolic acidosis with acetaminophen ingestion include malnutrition, chronic alcoholism, liver disease, and female sex. In fact, most cases have been reported in females, and altered mental status has been common.

Metabolic acidosis with pyroglutamic acid can occur without elevated acetaminophen levels. Serum and urine levels of pyroglutamic acid may assist with diagnosis. Since identification of urine pyroglutamic acid usually requires outside laboratory assistance, a clinical diagnosis is often made initially and corroborated later by laboratory results. When the anion gap metabolic acidosis is multifactorial, as it was suspected to be in a case reported by Tan et al,²³ the osmol gap may be elevated as a consequence of additional toxic ingestions, as it was in the reported patient.

No controlled studies of treatment have been done. n-Acetylcysteine may be of benefit. Occasional patients have been dialyzed for removal of excess pyroglutamic acid.

Propylene glycol, a component of parenteral lorazepam

Lorazepam is a hydrophobic drug, so when it is given parenterally, it must be mixed with a suitable solvent. A typical formulation adds propylene glycol. In patients receiving high doses of lorazepam as relaxation therapy for acute respiratory distress syndrome in the intensive care unit, or as treatment of alcohol withdrawal, the propylene glycol component can precipitate anion gap metabolic acidosis.^24,25

Although nearly one-half of the administered propylene glycol is excreted by the kidneys, the remaining substrate is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into d,l-lactaldehyde, then converted into d- or l-lactate. l-Lactate can be metabolized, but d-lactate cannot and leads to anion gap metabolic acidosis. This is another toxic metabolic acidosis associated with an elevated osmol gap. An increasing osmol gap in the intensive care unit can serve as a surrogate marker of excessive propylene glycol administration.²³

Isoniazid

Although it is uncommon, there are reports of isoniazid-induced anion gap metabolic acidosis,²⁶ either due to overdoses, or less commonly, with normal dosing. Isoniazid should therefore remain in the mnemonic MUD PILES and may be suspected when metabolic acidosis is accompanied by seizures unresponsive to usual therapy. The seizures respond to pyridoxine.

The “I” should also be augmented by newer causes of metabolic acidosis associated with “ingestions.” Ecstasy, or 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine, can cause metabolic acidosis and seizures. Ecstasy has been associated with rhabdomyolysis and uremia, also leading to anion gap metabolic acidosis.²⁷ A newer class of abused substances, synthetic cathinones (“bath salts”), are associated with metabolic acidosis, compartment syndrome, and renal failure.²⁸

Lactic acidosis

Lactic acidosis and metabolic acidosis can result from hypoperfusion (type A) or other causes (type B). Not all lactic acidosis is contingent on l-lactate, which humans can metabolize. Metabolic acidosis may be a consequence of d-lactate (mammals have no d-lactate dehydrogenase). d-Lactic acidosis as a result of short bowel syndrome has been known for more than a generation.²⁹ However, d-lactic acidosis occurs in another new setting. The new “P” in MUD PILES, propylene glycol, can generate substantial amounts of d-lactate.²⁹

d-lactic metabolic acidosis is always accompanied by neurologic manifestations (slurred speech, confusion, somnolence, ataxia, abusive behavior, and others).³⁰ With short bowel syndrome, the neurologic manifestations occur after eating and clear later.³⁰

Although our patient’s anion gap is more than 20 mmol/L, her blood level of lactate is not elevated, and she had no history to suggest short-bowel syndrome.

Salicylates

Salicylate overdose can cause a mixed acid-base disorder: metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap and respiratory alkalosis.

Although our patient does not have respiratory alkalosis, an aspirin overdose must be considered. A salicylate level was ordered; it was negative.

Despite the typical association of salicylates with an elevated anion gap, they may also cause a negative anion gap.³¹ Chloride-sensing ion-specific electrodes contain a membrane permeable to chloride. Salicylates can increase the chloride permeability of these membranes, generating pseudohyperchloremia, and consequently, a negative anion gap.

WHAT ELSE MUST BE CONSIDERED?

3. In view of her anion gap metabolic acidosis, elevated osmol gap, and absence of diabetes, renal failure, or lactate excess, what are the remaining diagnoses to consider in this patient? (Choose all that are potential sources of metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap.)

• Methanol, ethylene, or diethylene glycol
• Excessive, chronic acetaminophen ingestion
• Salicylate toxicity
• Alcoholic ketoacidosis

All of the above can potentially contribute to metabolic acidosis.

A search of the patient’s home did not reveal a source of methanol or either ethylene or diethylene glycol. Similarly, no aspirin was found, and the patient’s salicylate levels were not elevated. The patient’s laboratory work did not reveal increased ketones.

Since none of the common causes of metabolic acidosis were discovered, and since the patient had been taking acetaminophen, the diagnosis of excessive chronic acetaminophen ingestion was suspected pending laboratory verification. Identification of 5-oxoproline in the urine may take a week or more since the sample is usually sent to special laboratories. Acetaminophen levels in this patient were significantly elevated, as were urinary oxyproline levels, which returned later.

The patient was diagnosed with pyroglutamic acid metabolic acidosis. She was treated supportively and with n-acetylcysteine intravenously, although there have been no controlled studies of the efficacy of this drug. Seventy-two hours after admission, she had improved. Her acid-base status returned to normal.

GOLD MARK: ANOTHER WAY TO REMEMBER

Another mnemonic device for remembering the causes of metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap is “GOLD MARK”: glycols (ethylene and propylene), oxoproline (instead of pyroglutamic acid from acetaminophen), l-lactate, d-lactate, methanol, aspirin, renal failure, and ketoacidosis).³²

ACID-BASE DISORDERS IN DIFFERENT DISEASES

Diverse diseases cause distinctive acid-base abnormalities. Matching the appropriate acid-base abnormality with its associated disease may lead to more timely diagnosis and treatment:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus, for example, can lead to lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, or type 4 renal tubular acidosis.³³

Heart failure, although not typically framed in the context of acid-base physiology, can lead to elevated lactate, which is associated with a worse prognosis.³⁴

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Abacavir can cause normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.^35,36

Cancer^37,38 can be associated with proximal tubular renal tubular acidosis and lactic acidosis.

An expanding array of toxic ingestions

Metabolic acidosis may be the most prominent and potentially lethal clinical acid-base disturbance. When metabolic acidosis occurs in certain disease states—lactic acidosis with hypoperfusion or methanol ingestion with metabolic acidosis, for example—there is increased morbidity and mortality.

As reflected in the revisions to MUD PILES and in the newer GOLD MARK acronym, the osmol gap has become more valuable in differential diagnosis of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap consequent to an expanding array of toxic ingestions (methanol, propylene glycol, pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline, ethylene glycol, and diethylene glycol), which may accompany pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline.

A 78-year-old black woman with a history of osteoarthrosis and chronic diffuse joint pain presents with altered mental status and tachypnea, which began 3 hours earlier. She lives alone, and her family suspects she abuses both alcohol and her pain medications. She has not been eating well and has lost approximately 10 pounds over the past 3 months. Her analgesic regimen includes acetaminophen and acetaminophen-oxycodone.

In the emergency department her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse 100 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 22 per minute, and blood pressure 136/98 mm Hg. She is obtunded but has no focal neurologic defects or meningismus. She has no signs of heart failure (jugular venous distention, cardiomegaly, or gallops), and examination of the lungs and abdomen is unremarkable.

Suspecting that the patient may have taken too much oxycodone, the physician gives her naloxone, but her mental status does not improve. Results of chest radiography and cranial computed tomography are unremarkable. The physician’s initial impression is that the patient has “metabolic encephalopathy of unknown etiology.”

The patient’s laboratory values are shown in Table 1.

WHICH ACID-BASE DISORDER DOES SHE HAVE?

1. Which acid-base disorder does this patient have?

• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
• Metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
• Metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap
• A triple disturbance: metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis

A 5-step approach

Acid-base disorders can be diagnosed and characterized using a systematic approach known as the “Rules of 5” (Table 2)¹:

1. Determine the arterial pH status.

2. Determine whether the primary process is respiratory, metabolic, or both.

3. Calculate the anion gap.

4. Check the degree of compensation (respiratory or metabolic).

5. If the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, check whether the bicarbonate level has decreased as much as the anion gap has increased (ie, whether there is a delta gap).

Let us apply this approach to the patient described above.

1. What is her pH status?

An arterial pH less than 7.40 is acidemic, whereas a pH higher than 7.44 is alkalemic. (Acidemia and alkalemia refer to the abnormal laboratory value, while acidosis and alkalosis refer to the process causing the abnormal value—a subtle distinction, but worth keeping in mind.)

Caveat. A patient may have a significant acid-base disorder even if the pH is normal. Therefore, even if the pH is normal, one should verify that the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco₂), bicarbonate level, and anion gap are normal. If they are not, the patient may have a mixed acid-base disorder such as respiratory acidosis superimposed on metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s pH is 7.25, which is in the acidemic range.

2. Is her acidosis respiratory, metabolic, or both?

Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis affect the Pco₂. The Pco₂ is high in respiratory acidosis (due to failure to get rid of excess carbon dioxide), whereas it is low in respiratory alkalosis (due to loss of too much carbon dioxide through hyperventilation).

Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, on the other hand, affect the serum bicarbonate level. In metabolic acidosis the bicarbonate level is low, whereas in metabolic alkalosis the bicarbonate level is high.

Moreover, in mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate level can be low and the Pco₂ can be high. In mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis, the bicarbonate level can be high and the Pco₂ can be low (Table 2).

Our patient’s serum bicarbonate level is low at 16.0 mmol/L, indicating that the process is metabolic. Her Pco₂ is also low (28 mm Hg), which reflects an appropriate response to compensate for the acidosis.

3. What is her anion gap?

Always calculate the anion gap, ie, the serum sodium concentration minus the serum chloride and serum bicarbonate concentrations. If the patient’s serum albumin level is low, for every 1 gram it is below normal, an additional 2.5 mmol/L should be added to the calculated anion gap. We consider an anion gap of 10 mmol/L or less as normal.

Caveats. The blood sample used to calculate the anion gap should be drawn close in time to the arterial blood gas sample.

Although the anion gap is an effective tool in assessing acid-base disorders, further investigation is warranted if clinical judgment suggests that an anion gap calculation is inconsistent with the patient’s circumstances.²

Our patient’s anion gap is elevated (21 mmol/L). Her serum albumin level is in the normal range, so her anion gap does not need to be adjusted.

4. Is the degree of compensation appropriate for the primary acid-base disturbance?

The kidneys compensate for the lungs, and vice versa. That is, in respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, the kidneys adjust the bicarbonate levels, and in metabolic acidosis, the lungs adjust the Pco₂ (although in metabolic alkalosis, it is hard for patients to breathe less, especially if they are already hypoxic).

In metabolic acidosis, people compensate by breathing harder to get rid of more carbon dioxide. For every 1-mmol/L decrease in the bicarbonate level, the Pco₂ should decrease by 1.3 mm Hg.

Compensation does not return pH to normal; rather, it mitigates the impact of an acid or alkali excess or deficit. If the pH is normalized with an underlying acid-base disturbance, there may be mixed acid-base processes rather than compensation.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level is 16 mmol/L, which is 9 mmol/L lower than normal (for acid-base calculations, we use 25 mmol/L as the nominal normal level). If she is compensating appropriately, her Pco₂ should decline from 40 mm Hg (the nominal normal level) by about 11.7 mm Hg (9 × 1.3), to approximately 28.3 mm Hg. Her Pco₂ is, indeed, 28 mm Hg, indicating that she is compensating adequately for her metabolic acidosis.

If we use Winter’s formula instead (Pco₂ = [1.5 × the bicarbonate level] + 8 ± 2),³ the lowest calculated Pco₂ would be 30 mm Hg, which is within 2 mm Hg of the Rules of 5 calculation. Other formulas for calculating compensation are available.³

This information rules out the first two answers to question 1, ie, metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis or acidosis.

5. Is there a delta gap?

Although we know the patient has metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, we have not ruled out the possibility that she may have a triple disturbance. For this reason we need to check her delta gap. 

In metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap, as the bicarbonate level decreases, the anion gap should increase by the same amount. If the bicarbonate level decreases more than the anion gap increases, the additional decline is the result of a second process—an additional normal-anion-gap acidosis. If the bicarbonate level does not decrease as much as the anion gap increases, there is an additional metabolic alkalosis.

Our patient’s bicarbonate level decreased 9 mmol/L (from the nominal normal level of 25 to 16), and therefore her anion gap should have increased approximately the same amount—and it did. (A normal anion gap for problem-solving is 10, and this patient’s anion gap has increased to 21. A difference of ± 2 is insignificant.) This conclusion verifies that a triple acid-base disturbance is not present, so the last answer is incorrect.

So, the correct answer to the question posed above is metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (that is, metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation).

‘MUD PILES’: FINDING THE CAUSE OF ANION GAP METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

The possible causes of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap (as in our patient) can be summarized in the mnemonic MUD PILES (methanol, uremia, diabetes, paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate, ethylene glycol, and salicylates), which has been used for many years. Parts of it are no longer useful, but rather than discard it, we propose to update it (Table 3).

Methanol and ethylene glycol

We will address toxic ingestion of methanol and ethylene glycol (the “M” and “E” of MUD PILES) at the same time. 

In cases of suspected ingestion of toxic substances such as these, it is useful to examine the osmol gap, ie, the difference between the calculated and the measured serum osmolality. Serum osmolality (in mOsm/kg) is calculated as the sodium concentration in mmol/L times 2, plus the glucose concentration in mg/dL divided by 18, plus the blood urea nitrogen concentration in mg/dL divided by 2.8 (Table 4). If the measured osmolality is higher than this calculated value, the difference may be due to solutes in the blood that should not be there such as ethylene glycol, diethylene glycol, methanol, and their many metabolic products.

In our patient, ingestion of both methanol and ethylene glycol should be considered, since she lives alone and has been suspected of alcohol and opioid abuse. Her calculated osmol gap is 278 mOsm/kg. Her measured osmolality is 318 mOsm/kg (Table 1). The osmol gap is 40 mOsm/kg (normal is ≤ 10).^4,5 Therefore, her osmol gap is elevated.

Identifying the specific substance the patient ingested that caused metabolic acidosis with anion gap may be difficult. Poisonings with these agents do not always increase the osmol gap.⁶ A high index of suspicion is essential. It is helpful to have the family search for any sources of ethylene glycol and methanol at home and initiate treatment early if an ingestion is suspected, using fomepizole (an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) or parenteral ethanol and hemodialysis.⁷ Liquid chromatography identifies these two toxins, but results are not available emergently.

Diethylene glycol ingestion should also be considered.⁸ Since it is diagnosed and treated like ethylene glycol intoxication, it can be placed with the “E” of (di)ethylene glycol in the mnemonic.

Uremia

Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis.⁹ Our patient has no history of kidney disease, but her blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentrations are above normal, and her estimated glomerular filtration rate by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease formula is 48 mL/min/1.73 m²—low, but not uremic.  

Rhabdomyolysis (suspected by elevated creatine kinase values) should be considered in any patient with mental status changes, suspected toxic ingestion, and metabolic acidosis (see the “I” in MUD PILES below). Compartment syndromes with muscle necrosis may present in a subtle fashion. Therefore, renal failure from rhabdomyolysis may complicate this patient’s course later, and should be kept in mind.

Diabetes

The patient has no history of diabetes and has a normal blood glucose level. Blood testing did not reveal ketones. She is not taking metformin (alleged to cause lactic acidosis) or a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor (which have been associated with ketoacidosis).¹⁰

There is another, less common cause of ketoacidosis: alcohol.¹¹ Although alcoholism is common, alcoholic ketoacidosis is uncommon, even in heavy drinkers. Ethyl alcohol causing metabolic acidosis is similar to metabolic acidosis with (di)ethylene glycol and methanol, and if suspected it should be treated empirically (first with thiamine, then dextrose and saline, and correcting other electrolyte disturbances such as hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia) before specific identification is made. Ketones (predominantly beta-hydroxybutyrate) may persist up to 2 weeks after alcohol ingestion has stopped.¹¹ Ketosis in the setting of alcoholic ketoacidosis is frequently accompanied by other markers of alcohol target organ injury: elevated bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels. The term “ketohepatitis” has been suggested as an alternative to alcoholic ketosis.¹¹

This patient did not have an elevated blood ethanol level, and her liver markers were otherwise normal.

THE NEW MUD PILES

2. Which of the following is (are) true? Regarding the remaining letters of the MUD PILES mnemonic:

• The “P” (paraldehyde) has been replaced by pyroglutamic acid (5-oxoproline) and propylene glycol.
• There are two isomers of lactate (dextro and levo), and consequently two clinical varieties of lactic acidosis.
• Isoniazid is no longer associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap.
• Salicylates can paradoxically be associated both with elevated and low anion gaps.

Isoniazid is still associated with metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap, and so the third answer choice is false; the rest are true.

Paraldehyde, isoniazid, lactate

The “P,” “I,” and “L” (d-lactate) of the revamped MUD PILES acronym are less common than the others. They should be considered when the more typical causes of metabolic acidosis are not present, as in this patient.

UPDATING THE ‘P’ IN MUD PILES

Paraldehyde is rarely prescribed anymore. A PubMed search on December 21, 2015 applying the terms paraldehyde and metabolic acidosis yielded 17 results. Those specific to anion gap metabolic acidosis were from 1957 to 1986 (n = 9).^12–20

Therefore, we can eliminate paraldehyde from the MUD PILES mnemonic and replace it with pyroglutamic acid and propylene glycol.

5-Oxoproline or pyroglutamic acid, a metabolite of acetaminophen

Acetaminophen depletes glutathione stores in acute overdoses, in patients with inborn errors of metabolism, and after chronic ingestion of excessive, frequent doses. Depletion of glutathione increases metabolic products, including pyroglutamic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (leading to metabolic acidosis and an anion gap), and 5-oxoproline, (which can be detected in the urine).^21,22

Risk factors for metabolic acidosis with acetaminophen ingestion include malnutrition, chronic alcoholism, liver disease, and female sex. In fact, most cases have been reported in females, and altered mental status has been common.

Metabolic acidosis with pyroglutamic acid can occur without elevated acetaminophen levels. Serum and urine levels of pyroglutamic acid may assist with diagnosis. Since identification of urine pyroglutamic acid usually requires outside laboratory assistance, a clinical diagnosis is often made initially and corroborated later by laboratory results. When the anion gap metabolic acidosis is multifactorial, as it was suspected to be in a case reported by Tan et al,²³ the osmol gap may be elevated as a consequence of additional toxic ingestions, as it was in the reported patient.

No controlled studies of treatment have been done. n-Acetylcysteine may be of benefit. Occasional patients have been dialyzed for removal of excess pyroglutamic acid.

Propylene glycol, a component of parenteral lorazepam

Lorazepam is a hydrophobic drug, so when it is given parenterally, it must be mixed with a suitable solvent. A typical formulation adds propylene glycol. In patients receiving high doses of lorazepam as relaxation therapy for acute respiratory distress syndrome in the intensive care unit, or as treatment of alcohol withdrawal, the propylene glycol component can precipitate anion gap metabolic acidosis.^24,25

Although nearly one-half of the administered propylene glycol is excreted by the kidneys, the remaining substrate is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into d,l-lactaldehyde, then converted into d- or l-lactate. l-Lactate can be metabolized, but d-lactate cannot and leads to anion gap metabolic acidosis. This is another toxic metabolic acidosis associated with an elevated osmol gap. An increasing osmol gap in the intensive care unit can serve as a surrogate marker of excessive propylene glycol administration.²³

Isoniazid

Although it is uncommon, there are reports of isoniazid-induced anion gap metabolic acidosis,²⁶ either due to overdoses, or less commonly, with normal dosing. Isoniazid should therefore remain in the mnemonic MUD PILES and may be suspected when metabolic acidosis is accompanied by seizures unresponsive to usual therapy. The seizures respond to pyridoxine.

The “I” should also be augmented by newer causes of metabolic acidosis associated with “ingestions.” Ecstasy, or 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine, can cause metabolic acidosis and seizures. Ecstasy has been associated with rhabdomyolysis and uremia, also leading to anion gap metabolic acidosis.²⁷ A newer class of abused substances, synthetic cathinones (“bath salts”), are associated with metabolic acidosis, compartment syndrome, and renal failure.²⁸

Lactic acidosis

Lactic acidosis and metabolic acidosis can result from hypoperfusion (type A) or other causes (type B). Not all lactic acidosis is contingent on l-lactate, which humans can metabolize. Metabolic acidosis may be a consequence of d-lactate (mammals have no d-lactate dehydrogenase). d-Lactic acidosis as a result of short bowel syndrome has been known for more than a generation.²⁹ However, d-lactic acidosis occurs in another new setting. The new “P” in MUD PILES, propylene glycol, can generate substantial amounts of d-lactate.²⁹

d-lactic metabolic acidosis is always accompanied by neurologic manifestations (slurred speech, confusion, somnolence, ataxia, abusive behavior, and others).³⁰ With short bowel syndrome, the neurologic manifestations occur after eating and clear later.³⁰

Although our patient’s anion gap is more than 20 mmol/L, her blood level of lactate is not elevated, and she had no history to suggest short-bowel syndrome.

Salicylates

Salicylate overdose can cause a mixed acid-base disorder: metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap and respiratory alkalosis.

Although our patient does not have respiratory alkalosis, an aspirin overdose must be considered. A salicylate level was ordered; it was negative.

Despite the typical association of salicylates with an elevated anion gap, they may also cause a negative anion gap.³¹ Chloride-sensing ion-specific electrodes contain a membrane permeable to chloride. Salicylates can increase the chloride permeability of these membranes, generating pseudohyperchloremia, and consequently, a negative anion gap.

WHAT ELSE MUST BE CONSIDERED?

3. In view of her anion gap metabolic acidosis, elevated osmol gap, and absence of diabetes, renal failure, or lactate excess, what are the remaining diagnoses to consider in this patient? (Choose all that are potential sources of metabolic acidosis and an increased anion gap.)

• Methanol, ethylene, or diethylene glycol
• Excessive, chronic acetaminophen ingestion
• Salicylate toxicity
• Alcoholic ketoacidosis

All of the above can potentially contribute to metabolic acidosis.

A search of the patient’s home did not reveal a source of methanol or either ethylene or diethylene glycol. Similarly, no aspirin was found, and the patient’s salicylate levels were not elevated. The patient’s laboratory work did not reveal increased ketones.

Since none of the common causes of metabolic acidosis were discovered, and since the patient had been taking acetaminophen, the diagnosis of excessive chronic acetaminophen ingestion was suspected pending laboratory verification. Identification of 5-oxoproline in the urine may take a week or more since the sample is usually sent to special laboratories. Acetaminophen levels in this patient were significantly elevated, as were urinary oxyproline levels, which returned later.

The patient was diagnosed with pyroglutamic acid metabolic acidosis. She was treated supportively and with n-acetylcysteine intravenously, although there have been no controlled studies of the efficacy of this drug. Seventy-two hours after admission, she had improved. Her acid-base status returned to normal.

GOLD MARK: ANOTHER WAY TO REMEMBER

Another mnemonic device for remembering the causes of metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap is “GOLD MARK”: glycols (ethylene and propylene), oxoproline (instead of pyroglutamic acid from acetaminophen), l-lactate, d-lactate, methanol, aspirin, renal failure, and ketoacidosis).³²

ACID-BASE DISORDERS IN DIFFERENT DISEASES

Diverse diseases cause distinctive acid-base abnormalities. Matching the appropriate acid-base abnormality with its associated disease may lead to more timely diagnosis and treatment:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus, for example, can lead to lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, or type 4 renal tubular acidosis.³³

Heart failure, although not typically framed in the context of acid-base physiology, can lead to elevated lactate, which is associated with a worse prognosis.³⁴

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. Abacavir can cause normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.^35,36

Cancer^37,38 can be associated with proximal tubular renal tubular acidosis and lactic acidosis.

An expanding array of toxic ingestions

Metabolic acidosis may be the most prominent and potentially lethal clinical acid-base disturbance. When metabolic acidosis occurs in certain disease states—lactic acidosis with hypoperfusion or methanol ingestion with metabolic acidosis, for example—there is increased morbidity and mortality.

As reflected in the revisions to MUD PILES and in the newer GOLD MARK acronym, the osmol gap has become more valuable in differential diagnosis of metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap consequent to an expanding array of toxic ingestions (methanol, propylene glycol, pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline, ethylene glycol, and diethylene glycol), which may accompany pyroglutamic acid-oxoproline.

A 62-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia presented to the emergency department with substernal chest pain that started about 15 hours earlier while he was at rest watching television.

On examination, his pulse was 92 beats per minute and regular, his blood pressure was 160/88 mm Hg, and he had no evidence of jugular venous distention or pedal edema. Lung examination was positive for bibasilar crackles.

Electrocardiography revealed Q waves with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V₄, V₅, and V₆ with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

His troponin T level on presentation was markedly elevated.

Image

He underwent heart catheterization and was found to have 100% occlusion of the proximal left anterior descending artery. He underwent successful percutaneous coronary intervention with placement of a drug-eluting stent, and afterward had grade 3 flow on the Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) scale.

Echocardiography the next day revealed a mobile echo-dense mass in the left ventricular apex (Figure 1) and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%.

THE INCIDENCE OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS IN ACUTE MI

1. What is the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis after acute myocardial infarction (MI), now that primary percutaneous coronary intervention is common?

• 0.1%
• 2%
• 20%
• 40%

Left ventricular thrombosis is a serious complication of acute MI that can cause systemic thromboembolism, including stroke.¹ Before thrombolytic therapy was available, this complication occurred in 20% to 60% of patients with acute MI.^2,3 But early reperfusion strategies, anticoagulation for the first 48 hours, and dual antiplatelet therapy have reduced the incidence of this complication significantly.

In the thrombolytic era, the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis was 5.1% in the Gruppo Italiano per lo Studio della Sopravvivenza nell’Infarto Miocardico (GISSI) 3 study, which had 8,326 patients. A subset of patients who had an anterior MI had almost double the incidence (11.5%).³

Image

The incidence has further declined with the advent of primary percutaneous coronary intervention, likely thanks to enhanced myocardial salvage, and now ranges from 2.5% to 15% (Table 1).^4–11 The largest observational study, with 2,911 patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention, reported an incidence of 2.5% within 3 to 5 days of the MI.⁷ At our center, the incidence was found to be even lower, 1.8% in 1,700 patients presenting with ST-elevation MI undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. Hence, of the answers to the question above, 2% would be closest.

Large infarct size with a low left ventricular ejection fraction (< 40%), anterior wall MI, hypertension, and delay in time from symptom onset to intervention were independent predictors of left ventricular thrombus formation in most studies.^7,12 The risk is highest during the first 2 weeks after MI, and thrombosis almost never occurs more than 3 months after the index event.^5,13–16

WHAT IS THE PATHOGENESIS OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

A large transmural infarct results in loss of contractile function, which causes stagnation and pooling of blood adjacent to the infarcted ventricular segment. In addition, endocardial injury exposes tissue factor, which then initiates the coagulation cascade. To make matters worse, MI results in a hypercoagulable state through unclear mechanisms, which completes the Virchow triad for thrombus formation. Elevations of D-dimer, fibrinogen, anticardiolipin antibodies (IgM and IgG), and tissue factor have also been reported after acute MI.¹⁷

Thrombus formation begins with platelet aggregation at the site of endocardial damage, forming a platelet plug, followed by activation of clotting factors. These thrombi are referred to as “mural,” as they adhere to the chamber wall (endocardium). They are composed of fibrin and entrapped red and white blood cells (Figure 2).

The natural course of thrombus evolution is established but variable. A left ventricular thrombus may dislodge and embolize, resulting in stroke or other thromboembolic complications. Alternately, it can dissolve over time, aided by intrinsic fibrinolytic mechanisms. On other occasions, the thrombus may organize, a process characterized by ingrowth of smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts, and endothelium.

HOW IS LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS DIAGNOSED?

2. What is the best imaging test for detecting a thrombus?

• Transesophageal echocardiography
• Transthoracic echocardiography
• Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) without gadolinium contrast
• Cardiac MRI with gadolinium contrast

Evaluation of left ventricular function after acute MI carries a class I indication (ie, it should be performed).¹⁸ 

Echocardiography is commonly used, and it has a 60% sensitivity to detect a thrombus.¹⁹ In patients with poorer transthoracic echocardiographic windows, contrast can be used to better delineate the left ventricular cavity and show the thrombus. Transesophageal echocardiography is seldom useful, as the left ventricular apex is foreshortened and in the far field.

A left ventricular thrombus is confirmed if an echo-dense mass with well-demarcated margins distinct from the endocardium is seen throughout the cardiac cycle. It should be evident in at least two different views (apical and short-axis) and should be adjacent to a hypokinetic or akinetic left ventricular wall. False-positive findings can occur due to misidentified false tendons, papillary muscles, and trabeculae.

Cardiac MRI with late gadolinium enhancement is now the gold standard for diagnostic imaging, as it accurately characterizes the shape, size, and location of the thrombus (Figure 3). Gadolinium contrast increases the enhancement of the ventricular cavity, thus allowing easy detection of thrombus, which appears dark. Cardiac MRI with delayed enhancement has 88% to 91% sensitivity and 99% specificity to detect left ventricular thrombosis.^20,21 However, compared with echocardiography, routine cardiac MRI is time-intensive, costly, and not routinely available. As a result, it should be performed only in patients with poor acoustic windows and a high clinical suspicion of left ventricular thrombosis.

Delayed-contrast cardiac computed tomography can be used to identify left ventricular thrombosis, using absence of contrast uptake. The need to use contrast is a disadvantage, but computed tomography can be an alternative in patients with contraindications to cardiac MRI.

WHAT COMPLICATIONS ARISE FROM LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

The most feared complication of left ventricular thrombosis is thromboembolism. Cardioembolic stroke is generally severe, prone to early and long-term recurrence, and associated with a higher death rate than noncardioembolic ischemic stroke.^22,23 Thrombi associated with thromboembolism are often acute and mobile rather than organized and immobile.²⁴ They may embolize to the brain,  spleen, kidneys, and bowel.²⁵ In a meta-analysis of 11 studies, the pooled odds ratio for risk of embolization was 5.45 (95% confidence interval [CI] 3.02–9.83) with left ventricular thrombi vs without.²⁶ Before systemic thrombolysis and antiplatelet therapy became available, stroke rates ranged from 1.5% to 10%.^27–29

In a meta-analysis of 22 studies from 1978 to 2004, the incidence of ischemic stroke after MI during hospitalization was around 11.1 per 1,000 MIs.³⁰ This study found that anterior MI was associated with a higher risk of stroke, but reported no difference in the incidence of stroke with percutaneous coronary intervention, systemic thrombolysis, or no reperfusion.

In a large prospective cohort study of 2,160 patients,³¹ 259 (12%) had a stroke after MI. In multivariable analysis, age, diabetes, and previous stroke were predictors of stroke after MI. This study reported significantly fewer strokes in patients who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention than with other or no reperfusion therapies.³¹

ANTICOAGULATION TREATMENT

3. How would you treat a patient who has a drug-eluting stent in the left anterior descending artery and a new diagnosis of left ventricular thrombosis?

• Warfarin
• Aspirin and clopidogrel
• Aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin
• Aspirin and warfarin

The management of left ventricular thrombosis has been summarized in guidelines from the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) in 2012,³² and from the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association in 2013,¹⁸ which recommend anticoagulation for at least 3 months, or indefinitely if bleeding risk is low, for all patients developing a left ventricular thrombus.

For patients with acute MI and left ventricular thrombosis, the ACCP guidelines recommend warfarin with a target international normalized ratio of 2.0 to 3.0 plus dual antiplatelet therapy (eg, aspirin plus clopidogrel)  for 3 months, after which warfarin is discontinued but dual antiplatelet therapy is continued for up to 12 months.³²

The European Society of Cardiology guidelines³³ recommend 6 months of anticoagulation. However, if the patient is receiving dual antiplatelet therapy, they recommend repeated imaging of the left ventricle after 3 months of anticoagulation, which may allow for earlier discontinuation of anticoagulation if the thrombus has resolved and apical wall motion has recovered. Therefore, most experts recommend 3 months of anticoagulation when used in combination with dual antiplatelet therapy and repeating echocardiography at 3 months to safely discontinue anticoagulation. The best answer to the question posed here is aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin.

Decisions about antithrombotic therapy may also depend on stent type and the patient’s bleeding risk. With bare-metal stents, dual antiplatelet therapy along with anticoagulation should be used for 1 month, after which anticoagulation should be used with a single antiplatelet agent for another 2 months; after this, the anticoagulant can be discontinued and dual antiplatelet therapy can be resumed for a total of 12 months. Newer anticoagulants such as rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and apixaban may also have a role, but they have not yet been studied for this indication.

Surgical thrombectomy is rarely considered now, given the known efficacy of anticoagulants in dissolving the thrombus. It was done in the past for large, mobile, or protruding left ventricular thrombi, which have a higher potential for embolization.³⁴ Currently, it can be done under very special circumstances, such as before placement of a left ventricular assist device or if the thrombus is large, to prevent embolism.^35,36

BLEEDING COMPLICATIONS WITH TRIPLE ANTITHROMBOTIC THERAPY

After stent placement, almost all patients need to be on dual antiplatelet therapy for a specified duration depending on the type and generation of stent used. Such patients end up on “triple” antithrombotic therapy (two antiplatelet drugs plus an anticoagulant), which poses a high risk of bleeding.³⁷ Consideration needs to be given to the risks of stroke, stent thrombosis, and major bleeding when selecting the antithrombotic regimen.³⁸ Triple antithrombotic therapy has been associated with a risk of fatal and nonfatal bleeding of 4% to 16% when used for indications such as atrial fibrillation.^39–41

Risks of triple antithrombotic therapy (aspirin 80–100 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, and warfarin) were compared with those of clopidogrel plus warfarin in the What Is the Optimal Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant therapy in Patients With Oral Anticoagulation and Coronary Stenting Trial,³⁷ which reported a significantly lower risk of  major and minor bleeding with clopidogrel-plus-warfarin therapy than with triple antithrombotic therapy, 14.3% vs 31.7% (hazard ratio 0.40, 95% CI 0.28–0.58, P < .0001).

Additionally, the increased risk of major and minor bleeding associated with triple antithrombotic therapy has been confirmed in many observational studies; other studies found a trend toward lower risk with triple therapy, but this was not statistically significant (Table 2).^{38,40,42–55} A large multicenter European trial is being conducted to compare dual antiplatelet therapy vs triple antithrombotic therapy in patients with left ventricular thrombosis.

CASE FOLLOW-UP

Our patient was started on warfarin, clopidogrel 75 mg, and aspirin 75 mg at the time of discharge. He was continued on warfarin for 3 months, at which time a follow-up echocardiogram showed no thrombus in the left ventricle. Warfarin was discontinued, and he had no thromboembolic complications.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

Left ventricular thrombosis after an acute MI is very important to detect, as it can lead to serious complications through arterial embolism.

The incidence of left ventricular thrombosis has declined significantly with the use of percutaneous coronary intervention. However, it may still occur in a small number of patients with larger infarcts owing to delay in revascularization or proximal (left main or left anterior descending) occlusions with larger infarct size.

Echocardiography, which is routinely performed after acute MI to assess myocardial function, uncovers most left ventricular thrombi. In high-risk cases, MRI with late gadolinium enhancement can increase the diagnostic yield.

Anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for at least 3 months. Post-MI patients undergoing stent implantation may need triple antithrombotic therapy, which, however, increases the bleeding risk significantly. Large randomized trials are needed to guide physicians in risk stratification of such patients.

A 62-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia presented to the emergency department with substernal chest pain that started about 15 hours earlier while he was at rest watching television.

On examination, his pulse was 92 beats per minute and regular, his blood pressure was 160/88 mm Hg, and he had no evidence of jugular venous distention or pedal edema. Lung examination was positive for bibasilar crackles.

Electrocardiography revealed Q waves with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V₄, V₅, and V₆ with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

His troponin T level on presentation was markedly elevated.

Image

He underwent heart catheterization and was found to have 100% occlusion of the proximal left anterior descending artery. He underwent successful percutaneous coronary intervention with placement of a drug-eluting stent, and afterward had grade 3 flow on the Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) scale.

Echocardiography the next day revealed a mobile echo-dense mass in the left ventricular apex (Figure 1) and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%.

THE INCIDENCE OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS IN ACUTE MI

1. What is the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis after acute myocardial infarction (MI), now that primary percutaneous coronary intervention is common?

• 0.1%
• 2%
• 20%
• 40%

Left ventricular thrombosis is a serious complication of acute MI that can cause systemic thromboembolism, including stroke.¹ Before thrombolytic therapy was available, this complication occurred in 20% to 60% of patients with acute MI.^2,3 But early reperfusion strategies, anticoagulation for the first 48 hours, and dual antiplatelet therapy have reduced the incidence of this complication significantly.

In the thrombolytic era, the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis was 5.1% in the Gruppo Italiano per lo Studio della Sopravvivenza nell’Infarto Miocardico (GISSI) 3 study, which had 8,326 patients. A subset of patients who had an anterior MI had almost double the incidence (11.5%).³

Image

The incidence has further declined with the advent of primary percutaneous coronary intervention, likely thanks to enhanced myocardial salvage, and now ranges from 2.5% to 15% (Table 1).^4–11 The largest observational study, with 2,911 patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention, reported an incidence of 2.5% within 3 to 5 days of the MI.⁷ At our center, the incidence was found to be even lower, 1.8% in 1,700 patients presenting with ST-elevation MI undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. Hence, of the answers to the question above, 2% would be closest.

Large infarct size with a low left ventricular ejection fraction (< 40%), anterior wall MI, hypertension, and delay in time from symptom onset to intervention were independent predictors of left ventricular thrombus formation in most studies.^7,12 The risk is highest during the first 2 weeks after MI, and thrombosis almost never occurs more than 3 months after the index event.^5,13–16

WHAT IS THE PATHOGENESIS OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

A large transmural infarct results in loss of contractile function, which causes stagnation and pooling of blood adjacent to the infarcted ventricular segment. In addition, endocardial injury exposes tissue factor, which then initiates the coagulation cascade. To make matters worse, MI results in a hypercoagulable state through unclear mechanisms, which completes the Virchow triad for thrombus formation. Elevations of D-dimer, fibrinogen, anticardiolipin antibodies (IgM and IgG), and tissue factor have also been reported after acute MI.¹⁷

Thrombus formation begins with platelet aggregation at the site of endocardial damage, forming a platelet plug, followed by activation of clotting factors. These thrombi are referred to as “mural,” as they adhere to the chamber wall (endocardium). They are composed of fibrin and entrapped red and white blood cells (Figure 2).

The natural course of thrombus evolution is established but variable. A left ventricular thrombus may dislodge and embolize, resulting in stroke or other thromboembolic complications. Alternately, it can dissolve over time, aided by intrinsic fibrinolytic mechanisms. On other occasions, the thrombus may organize, a process characterized by ingrowth of smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts, and endothelium.

HOW IS LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS DIAGNOSED?

2. What is the best imaging test for detecting a thrombus?

• Transesophageal echocardiography
• Transthoracic echocardiography
• Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) without gadolinium contrast
• Cardiac MRI with gadolinium contrast

Evaluation of left ventricular function after acute MI carries a class I indication (ie, it should be performed).¹⁸ 

Echocardiography is commonly used, and it has a 60% sensitivity to detect a thrombus.¹⁹ In patients with poorer transthoracic echocardiographic windows, contrast can be used to better delineate the left ventricular cavity and show the thrombus. Transesophageal echocardiography is seldom useful, as the left ventricular apex is foreshortened and in the far field.

A left ventricular thrombus is confirmed if an echo-dense mass with well-demarcated margins distinct from the endocardium is seen throughout the cardiac cycle. It should be evident in at least two different views (apical and short-axis) and should be adjacent to a hypokinetic or akinetic left ventricular wall. False-positive findings can occur due to misidentified false tendons, papillary muscles, and trabeculae.

Cardiac MRI with late gadolinium enhancement is now the gold standard for diagnostic imaging, as it accurately characterizes the shape, size, and location of the thrombus (Figure 3). Gadolinium contrast increases the enhancement of the ventricular cavity, thus allowing easy detection of thrombus, which appears dark. Cardiac MRI with delayed enhancement has 88% to 91% sensitivity and 99% specificity to detect left ventricular thrombosis.^20,21 However, compared with echocardiography, routine cardiac MRI is time-intensive, costly, and not routinely available. As a result, it should be performed only in patients with poor acoustic windows and a high clinical suspicion of left ventricular thrombosis.

Delayed-contrast cardiac computed tomography can be used to identify left ventricular thrombosis, using absence of contrast uptake. The need to use contrast is a disadvantage, but computed tomography can be an alternative in patients with contraindications to cardiac MRI.

WHAT COMPLICATIONS ARISE FROM LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

The most feared complication of left ventricular thrombosis is thromboembolism. Cardioembolic stroke is generally severe, prone to early and long-term recurrence, and associated with a higher death rate than noncardioembolic ischemic stroke.^22,23 Thrombi associated with thromboembolism are often acute and mobile rather than organized and immobile.²⁴ They may embolize to the brain,  spleen, kidneys, and bowel.²⁵ In a meta-analysis of 11 studies, the pooled odds ratio for risk of embolization was 5.45 (95% confidence interval [CI] 3.02–9.83) with left ventricular thrombi vs without.²⁶ Before systemic thrombolysis and antiplatelet therapy became available, stroke rates ranged from 1.5% to 10%.^27–29

In a meta-analysis of 22 studies from 1978 to 2004, the incidence of ischemic stroke after MI during hospitalization was around 11.1 per 1,000 MIs.³⁰ This study found that anterior MI was associated with a higher risk of stroke, but reported no difference in the incidence of stroke with percutaneous coronary intervention, systemic thrombolysis, or no reperfusion.

In a large prospective cohort study of 2,160 patients,³¹ 259 (12%) had a stroke after MI. In multivariable analysis, age, diabetes, and previous stroke were predictors of stroke after MI. This study reported significantly fewer strokes in patients who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention than with other or no reperfusion therapies.³¹

ANTICOAGULATION TREATMENT

3. How would you treat a patient who has a drug-eluting stent in the left anterior descending artery and a new diagnosis of left ventricular thrombosis?

• Warfarin
• Aspirin and clopidogrel
• Aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin
• Aspirin and warfarin

The management of left ventricular thrombosis has been summarized in guidelines from the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) in 2012,³² and from the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association in 2013,¹⁸ which recommend anticoagulation for at least 3 months, or indefinitely if bleeding risk is low, for all patients developing a left ventricular thrombus.

For patients with acute MI and left ventricular thrombosis, the ACCP guidelines recommend warfarin with a target international normalized ratio of 2.0 to 3.0 plus dual antiplatelet therapy (eg, aspirin plus clopidogrel)  for 3 months, after which warfarin is discontinued but dual antiplatelet therapy is continued for up to 12 months.³²

The European Society of Cardiology guidelines³³ recommend 6 months of anticoagulation. However, if the patient is receiving dual antiplatelet therapy, they recommend repeated imaging of the left ventricle after 3 months of anticoagulation, which may allow for earlier discontinuation of anticoagulation if the thrombus has resolved and apical wall motion has recovered. Therefore, most experts recommend 3 months of anticoagulation when used in combination with dual antiplatelet therapy and repeating echocardiography at 3 months to safely discontinue anticoagulation. The best answer to the question posed here is aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin.

Decisions about antithrombotic therapy may also depend on stent type and the patient’s bleeding risk. With bare-metal stents, dual antiplatelet therapy along with anticoagulation should be used for 1 month, after which anticoagulation should be used with a single antiplatelet agent for another 2 months; after this, the anticoagulant can be discontinued and dual antiplatelet therapy can be resumed for a total of 12 months. Newer anticoagulants such as rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and apixaban may also have a role, but they have not yet been studied for this indication.

Surgical thrombectomy is rarely considered now, given the known efficacy of anticoagulants in dissolving the thrombus. It was done in the past for large, mobile, or protruding left ventricular thrombi, which have a higher potential for embolization.³⁴ Currently, it can be done under very special circumstances, such as before placement of a left ventricular assist device or if the thrombus is large, to prevent embolism.^35,36

BLEEDING COMPLICATIONS WITH TRIPLE ANTITHROMBOTIC THERAPY

After stent placement, almost all patients need to be on dual antiplatelet therapy for a specified duration depending on the type and generation of stent used. Such patients end up on “triple” antithrombotic therapy (two antiplatelet drugs plus an anticoagulant), which poses a high risk of bleeding.³⁷ Consideration needs to be given to the risks of stroke, stent thrombosis, and major bleeding when selecting the antithrombotic regimen.³⁸ Triple antithrombotic therapy has been associated with a risk of fatal and nonfatal bleeding of 4% to 16% when used for indications such as atrial fibrillation.^39–41

Risks of triple antithrombotic therapy (aspirin 80–100 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, and warfarin) were compared with those of clopidogrel plus warfarin in the What Is the Optimal Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant therapy in Patients With Oral Anticoagulation and Coronary Stenting Trial,³⁷ which reported a significantly lower risk of  major and minor bleeding with clopidogrel-plus-warfarin therapy than with triple antithrombotic therapy, 14.3% vs 31.7% (hazard ratio 0.40, 95% CI 0.28–0.58, P < .0001).

Additionally, the increased risk of major and minor bleeding associated with triple antithrombotic therapy has been confirmed in many observational studies; other studies found a trend toward lower risk with triple therapy, but this was not statistically significant (Table 2).^{38,40,42–55} A large multicenter European trial is being conducted to compare dual antiplatelet therapy vs triple antithrombotic therapy in patients with left ventricular thrombosis.

CASE FOLLOW-UP

Our patient was started on warfarin, clopidogrel 75 mg, and aspirin 75 mg at the time of discharge. He was continued on warfarin for 3 months, at which time a follow-up echocardiogram showed no thrombus in the left ventricle. Warfarin was discontinued, and he had no thromboembolic complications.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

Left ventricular thrombosis after an acute MI is very important to detect, as it can lead to serious complications through arterial embolism.

The incidence of left ventricular thrombosis has declined significantly with the use of percutaneous coronary intervention. However, it may still occur in a small number of patients with larger infarcts owing to delay in revascularization or proximal (left main or left anterior descending) occlusions with larger infarct size.

Echocardiography, which is routinely performed after acute MI to assess myocardial function, uncovers most left ventricular thrombi. In high-risk cases, MRI with late gadolinium enhancement can increase the diagnostic yield.

Anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for at least 3 months. Post-MI patients undergoing stent implantation may need triple antithrombotic therapy, which, however, increases the bleeding risk significantly. Large randomized trials are needed to guide physicians in risk stratification of such patients.

A 62-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia presented to the emergency department with substernal chest pain that started about 15 hours earlier while he was at rest watching television.

On examination, his pulse was 92 beats per minute and regular, his blood pressure was 160/88 mm Hg, and he had no evidence of jugular venous distention or pedal edema. Lung examination was positive for bibasilar crackles.

Electrocardiography revealed Q waves with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V₄, V₅, and V₆ with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF.

His troponin T level on presentation was markedly elevated.

Image

He underwent heart catheterization and was found to have 100% occlusion of the proximal left anterior descending artery. He underwent successful percutaneous coronary intervention with placement of a drug-eluting stent, and afterward had grade 3 flow on the Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) scale.

Echocardiography the next day revealed a mobile echo-dense mass in the left ventricular apex (Figure 1) and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%.

THE INCIDENCE OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS IN ACUTE MI

1. What is the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis after acute myocardial infarction (MI), now that primary percutaneous coronary intervention is common?

• 0.1%
• 2%
• 20%
• 40%

Left ventricular thrombosis is a serious complication of acute MI that can cause systemic thromboembolism, including stroke.¹ Before thrombolytic therapy was available, this complication occurred in 20% to 60% of patients with acute MI.^2,3 But early reperfusion strategies, anticoagulation for the first 48 hours, and dual antiplatelet therapy have reduced the incidence of this complication significantly.

In the thrombolytic era, the incidence of left ventricular thrombosis was 5.1% in the Gruppo Italiano per lo Studio della Sopravvivenza nell’Infarto Miocardico (GISSI) 3 study, which had 8,326 patients. A subset of patients who had an anterior MI had almost double the incidence (11.5%).³

Image

The incidence has further declined with the advent of primary percutaneous coronary intervention, likely thanks to enhanced myocardial salvage, and now ranges from 2.5% to 15% (Table 1).^4–11 The largest observational study, with 2,911 patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention, reported an incidence of 2.5% within 3 to 5 days of the MI.⁷ At our center, the incidence was found to be even lower, 1.8% in 1,700 patients presenting with ST-elevation MI undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. Hence, of the answers to the question above, 2% would be closest.

Large infarct size with a low left ventricular ejection fraction (< 40%), anterior wall MI, hypertension, and delay in time from symptom onset to intervention were independent predictors of left ventricular thrombus formation in most studies.^7,12 The risk is highest during the first 2 weeks after MI, and thrombosis almost never occurs more than 3 months after the index event.^5,13–16

WHAT IS THE PATHOGENESIS OF LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

A large transmural infarct results in loss of contractile function, which causes stagnation and pooling of blood adjacent to the infarcted ventricular segment. In addition, endocardial injury exposes tissue factor, which then initiates the coagulation cascade. To make matters worse, MI results in a hypercoagulable state through unclear mechanisms, which completes the Virchow triad for thrombus formation. Elevations of D-dimer, fibrinogen, anticardiolipin antibodies (IgM and IgG), and tissue factor have also been reported after acute MI.¹⁷

Thrombus formation begins with platelet aggregation at the site of endocardial damage, forming a platelet plug, followed by activation of clotting factors. These thrombi are referred to as “mural,” as they adhere to the chamber wall (endocardium). They are composed of fibrin and entrapped red and white blood cells (Figure 2).

The natural course of thrombus evolution is established but variable. A left ventricular thrombus may dislodge and embolize, resulting in stroke or other thromboembolic complications. Alternately, it can dissolve over time, aided by intrinsic fibrinolytic mechanisms. On other occasions, the thrombus may organize, a process characterized by ingrowth of smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts, and endothelium.

HOW IS LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS DIAGNOSED?

2. What is the best imaging test for detecting a thrombus?

• Transesophageal echocardiography
• Transthoracic echocardiography
• Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) without gadolinium contrast
• Cardiac MRI with gadolinium contrast

Evaluation of left ventricular function after acute MI carries a class I indication (ie, it should be performed).¹⁸ 

Echocardiography is commonly used, and it has a 60% sensitivity to detect a thrombus.¹⁹ In patients with poorer transthoracic echocardiographic windows, contrast can be used to better delineate the left ventricular cavity and show the thrombus. Transesophageal echocardiography is seldom useful, as the left ventricular apex is foreshortened and in the far field.

A left ventricular thrombus is confirmed if an echo-dense mass with well-demarcated margins distinct from the endocardium is seen throughout the cardiac cycle. It should be evident in at least two different views (apical and short-axis) and should be adjacent to a hypokinetic or akinetic left ventricular wall. False-positive findings can occur due to misidentified false tendons, papillary muscles, and trabeculae.

Cardiac MRI with late gadolinium enhancement is now the gold standard for diagnostic imaging, as it accurately characterizes the shape, size, and location of the thrombus (Figure 3). Gadolinium contrast increases the enhancement of the ventricular cavity, thus allowing easy detection of thrombus, which appears dark. Cardiac MRI with delayed enhancement has 88% to 91% sensitivity and 99% specificity to detect left ventricular thrombosis.^20,21 However, compared with echocardiography, routine cardiac MRI is time-intensive, costly, and not routinely available. As a result, it should be performed only in patients with poor acoustic windows and a high clinical suspicion of left ventricular thrombosis.

Delayed-contrast cardiac computed tomography can be used to identify left ventricular thrombosis, using absence of contrast uptake. The need to use contrast is a disadvantage, but computed tomography can be an alternative in patients with contraindications to cardiac MRI.

WHAT COMPLICATIONS ARISE FROM LEFT VENTRICULAR THROMBOSIS?

The most feared complication of left ventricular thrombosis is thromboembolism. Cardioembolic stroke is generally severe, prone to early and long-term recurrence, and associated with a higher death rate than noncardioembolic ischemic stroke.^22,23 Thrombi associated with thromboembolism are often acute and mobile rather than organized and immobile.²⁴ They may embolize to the brain,  spleen, kidneys, and bowel.²⁵ In a meta-analysis of 11 studies, the pooled odds ratio for risk of embolization was 5.45 (95% confidence interval [CI] 3.02–9.83) with left ventricular thrombi vs without.²⁶ Before systemic thrombolysis and antiplatelet therapy became available, stroke rates ranged from 1.5% to 10%.^27–29

In a meta-analysis of 22 studies from 1978 to 2004, the incidence of ischemic stroke after MI during hospitalization was around 11.1 per 1,000 MIs.³⁰ This study found that anterior MI was associated with a higher risk of stroke, but reported no difference in the incidence of stroke with percutaneous coronary intervention, systemic thrombolysis, or no reperfusion.

In a large prospective cohort study of 2,160 patients,³¹ 259 (12%) had a stroke after MI. In multivariable analysis, age, diabetes, and previous stroke were predictors of stroke after MI. This study reported significantly fewer strokes in patients who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention than with other or no reperfusion therapies.³¹

ANTICOAGULATION TREATMENT

3. How would you treat a patient who has a drug-eluting stent in the left anterior descending artery and a new diagnosis of left ventricular thrombosis?

• Warfarin
• Aspirin and clopidogrel
• Aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin
• Aspirin and warfarin

The management of left ventricular thrombosis has been summarized in guidelines from the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) in 2012,³² and from the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association in 2013,¹⁸ which recommend anticoagulation for at least 3 months, or indefinitely if bleeding risk is low, for all patients developing a left ventricular thrombus.

For patients with acute MI and left ventricular thrombosis, the ACCP guidelines recommend warfarin with a target international normalized ratio of 2.0 to 3.0 plus dual antiplatelet therapy (eg, aspirin plus clopidogrel)  for 3 months, after which warfarin is discontinued but dual antiplatelet therapy is continued for up to 12 months.³²

The European Society of Cardiology guidelines³³ recommend 6 months of anticoagulation. However, if the patient is receiving dual antiplatelet therapy, they recommend repeated imaging of the left ventricle after 3 months of anticoagulation, which may allow for earlier discontinuation of anticoagulation if the thrombus has resolved and apical wall motion has recovered. Therefore, most experts recommend 3 months of anticoagulation when used in combination with dual antiplatelet therapy and repeating echocardiography at 3 months to safely discontinue anticoagulation. The best answer to the question posed here is aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin.

Decisions about antithrombotic therapy may also depend on stent type and the patient’s bleeding risk. With bare-metal stents, dual antiplatelet therapy along with anticoagulation should be used for 1 month, after which anticoagulation should be used with a single antiplatelet agent for another 2 months; after this, the anticoagulant can be discontinued and dual antiplatelet therapy can be resumed for a total of 12 months. Newer anticoagulants such as rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and apixaban may also have a role, but they have not yet been studied for this indication.

Surgical thrombectomy is rarely considered now, given the known efficacy of anticoagulants in dissolving the thrombus. It was done in the past for large, mobile, or protruding left ventricular thrombi, which have a higher potential for embolization.³⁴ Currently, it can be done under very special circumstances, such as before placement of a left ventricular assist device or if the thrombus is large, to prevent embolism.^35,36

BLEEDING COMPLICATIONS WITH TRIPLE ANTITHROMBOTIC THERAPY

After stent placement, almost all patients need to be on dual antiplatelet therapy for a specified duration depending on the type and generation of stent used. Such patients end up on “triple” antithrombotic therapy (two antiplatelet drugs plus an anticoagulant), which poses a high risk of bleeding.³⁷ Consideration needs to be given to the risks of stroke, stent thrombosis, and major bleeding when selecting the antithrombotic regimen.³⁸ Triple antithrombotic therapy has been associated with a risk of fatal and nonfatal bleeding of 4% to 16% when used for indications such as atrial fibrillation.^39–41

Risks of triple antithrombotic therapy (aspirin 80–100 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, and warfarin) were compared with those of clopidogrel plus warfarin in the What Is the Optimal Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant therapy in Patients With Oral Anticoagulation and Coronary Stenting Trial,³⁷ which reported a significantly lower risk of  major and minor bleeding with clopidogrel-plus-warfarin therapy than with triple antithrombotic therapy, 14.3% vs 31.7% (hazard ratio 0.40, 95% CI 0.28–0.58, P < .0001).

Additionally, the increased risk of major and minor bleeding associated with triple antithrombotic therapy has been confirmed in many observational studies; other studies found a trend toward lower risk with triple therapy, but this was not statistically significant (Table 2).^{38,40,42–55} A large multicenter European trial is being conducted to compare dual antiplatelet therapy vs triple antithrombotic therapy in patients with left ventricular thrombosis.

CASE FOLLOW-UP

Our patient was started on warfarin, clopidogrel 75 mg, and aspirin 75 mg at the time of discharge. He was continued on warfarin for 3 months, at which time a follow-up echocardiogram showed no thrombus in the left ventricle. Warfarin was discontinued, and he had no thromboembolic complications.

TAKE-HOME POINTS

Left ventricular thrombosis after an acute MI is very important to detect, as it can lead to serious complications through arterial embolism.

The incidence of left ventricular thrombosis has declined significantly with the use of percutaneous coronary intervention. However, it may still occur in a small number of patients with larger infarcts owing to delay in revascularization or proximal (left main or left anterior descending) occlusions with larger infarct size.

Echocardiography, which is routinely performed after acute MI to assess myocardial function, uncovers most left ventricular thrombi. In high-risk cases, MRI with late gadolinium enhancement can increase the diagnostic yield.

Anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for at least 3 months. Post-MI patients undergoing stent implantation may need triple antithrombotic therapy, which, however, increases the bleeding risk significantly. Large randomized trials are needed to guide physicians in risk stratification of such patients.

A 40-year-old woman with hypertrophic   obstructive cardiomyopathy presents to the hematology clinic for a second opinion regarding a history of headaches and fatigue for the past 10 years. She has been diagnosed with idiopathic erythrocytosis, presumed to be due to polycythemia vera. She periodically undergoes phlebotomy to keep her hematocrit below 41%, and this markedly improves her headaches. She denies shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, joint pain, and visual or other neurologic symptoms. She has never reported pruritus related to bathing or exposure to water.

She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She works as a pharmacy technician. She says her father died of cancer (no further details available) and describes a family history of gastrointestinal malignancy in her grandfather and paternal aunt. She takes aspirin, metoprolol, and spironolactone for her cardiomyopathy.

Physical examination reveals generalized plethora, more marked on her cheeks and face, and mild bilateral pitting pedal edema. No lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly can be palpated. Other systems, including the cardiac, respiratory, and nervous systems, are normal.

ERYTHROCYTOSIS AND POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

1. In patients with erythrocytosis, which of the following is not characteristic of polycythemia vera?

• Erythromelalgia and postbathing pruritus
• Splenomegaly
• History of thrombosis
• Gout
• Hematuria

Erythrocytosis—an abnormally high concentration of red blood cells in the peripheral blood—is a laboratory finding. It often reflects an increase in the total quantity or mass of red blood cells in the body (polycythemia) but can sometimes be due to decreased plasma volume (spurious polycythemia).¹ Erythrocytosis can be caused by a number of diseases, hereditary and acquired, and can be classified as primary or secondary (Table 1).

Symptoms arise from an increase in the total blood volume and red blood cell mass, often leading to dilated capillaries and other blood vessels. Symptoms can occur regardless of the cause and classically include headache (often described as diffuse heaviness), dizziness, and a tendency for bleeding or thrombosis.² Symptoms are relieved when the hematocrit is lowered.

Several features in the history and physical examination of a patient being evaluated for erythrocytosis can suggest an underlying cause. Smoking, chronic respiratory insufficiency, and congenital cyanotic heart disease point to secondary erythrocytosis and can usually be identified at the outset. A history of occupational exposure to carbon monoxide (such as engine exhaust) should be elicited carefully. A family history of erythrocytosis should raise suspicion of a heritable condition such as a hemoglobinopathy associated with increased oxygen affinity or rare forms of primary erythrocytosis associated with endogenous overproduction of erythropoietin or activating mutations of the erythropoietin receptor.³ Iatrogenic causes such as androgen supplementation, erythropoietin abuse, and postrenal-transplant erythrocytosis should also be considered.

Secretion of erythropoietin or erythropoietinlike proteins by a malignant neoplasm is a rare but important cause of erythrocytosis. For example, renal cell carcinoma may present with erythrocytosis secondary to excessive erythropoietin production, and hematuria can be an early symptom.

Polycythemia vera

Polycythemia vera, a myeloproliferative neoplasm, is characterized by increased red blood cell production independent of the mechanisms that normally regulate erythropoiesis. The bone marrow shows a panmyelosis that is often accompanied by leukocytosis or thrombocytosis, or both, in the peripheral blood.

Symptoms such as severe itching after exposure to hot water (aquagenic pruritus) and periodic attacks of redness, swelling, and pain in the hands or feet, or both (erythromelalgia), have been described in patients with polycythemia vera. Splenomegaly is relatively common, seen in approximately two-thirds of patients.⁴ Hyperuricemia (from increased cell turnover) and gout are also associated with polycythemia vera, as is a history of arterial and venous thrombosis.⁵

Hematuria is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera, although bleeding from the bladder, vagina, or uterus has been described.

CASE RESUMED: INITIAL LABORATORY TESTS

Results of our patient’s initial laboratory tests are:

• Hemoglobin 16.9 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5)
• Hematocrit 48.8% (36.0–46.0)
• Mean corpuscular volume 85.2 fL (80–100)
• Platelet count 328 × 10⁹/L (150–400)
• White blood cell count 9.14 × 10⁹/L (3.7–11.0)
• Absolute neutrophil count 5.95 × 10⁹/L (1.45–7.5)
• Blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL (8–25)
• Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (0.7–1.4)
• Lactate dehydrogenase 180 U/L (100–220)
• Uric acid 3.0 mg/dL (2.0–7.0)
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone 2.2 µU/mL (0.4–5.5).

The patient undergoes additional tests, including a serum erythropoietin level and hemoglobinopathy screen. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are performed, with cytogenetic analysis, chromosomal microarray analysis, and molecular testing for mutation of the Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) gene.

CONFIRMING SUSPECTED POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

2. In patients with suspected polycythemia vera, which of the following laboratory tests is most useful in making the diagnosis?

• Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell mass
• Serum erythropoietin level
• Arterial blood gases with co-oximetry
• Testing for the JAK2 mutation
• Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

The aim of the initial workup of erythrocytosis is to differentiate polycythemia vera from secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, red cell mass

Erythrocytosis is defined by an abnormal elevation in the hematocrit (> 48% in women or > 49% in men), hemoglobin concentration (> 16.0 g/dL in women or > 16.5 g/dL in men), or red blood cell mass. The red blood cell count should not be used as a surrogate for red blood cell mass, since some anemias (especially thalassemia minor) can be associated with an increase in the number of red blood cells but a low hemoglobin concentration.

Isotope dilution techniques to determine the red cell mass and plasma volume can differentiate true erythrocytosis from a spurious elevation due to a decrease in plasma volume.^6,7 However, this is an expensive, time-consuming test that is not widely available and so is rarely performed.⁸

JAK2 mutation testing

The initial evaluation of a patient with erythrocytosis has changed significantly in the past 10 years with the discovery of the JAK2 gene and its role in the pathogenesis of polycythemia vera and other myeloproliferative neoplasms.

JAK2, located at 9p24, codes for a tyrosine kinase important for signal transduction in hematopoietic cells. Mutations in this gene have been shown to promote hypersensitivity to cytokines, including erythropoietin.⁹ The most common somatic mutation occurs within exon 14 at base pair 1849 and results in a phenylalanine-for-valine amino acid substitution in the JAK2 protein, designated V617F. Less commonly, mutations occur elsewhere in exons 12 to 15, with more than 50 different mutations described; nonpolymorphic mutations are assumed to have biologic effects similar to those of V617F.

Taken together, the JAK2 V617F and non-V617F mutations have a diagnostic sensitivity of 98% to 100% for polycythemia vera. For practical purposes, this means that the presence of a JAK2 mutation can be used as a clonal marker to distinguish polycythemia vera from reactive secondary causes of erythrocytosis. A JAK2 mutation is one of three major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera in the 2016 revision to the 2008 World Health Organization criteria (Table 2).¹⁰ Of note, this mutation is not specific for polycythemia vera and can also be found in other myeloproliferative neoplasms, including primary myelofibrosis and essential thrombocythemia.

Absence of a JAK2 mutation makes polycythemia vera unlikely, so this test is most useful in making the diagnosis.

Serum erythropoietin

Serum erythropoietin testing can be very useful to distinguish polycythemia vera from secondary erythrocytosis. Low levels suggest polycythemia vera, while high levels are seen in secondary processes.¹¹

This test is best used along with JAK2 V617F mutation analysis as an initial step in evaluating patients with erythrocytosis. When JAK2 V617F mutation analysis is negative, a low serum erythropoietin level should prompt further testing for non-V617F JAK2 mutations, whereas a normal or elevated erythropoietin level should be evaluated further with tests to distinguish hereditary from acquired secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Arterial blood gas analysis and co-oximetry

Arterial blood gas analysis can reveal hypoxemia, pointing to a cardiorespiratory process driving the erythrocytosis, whereas co-oximetry can be used to identify the presence and amount of carboxyhemoglobin in the blood.

Bone marrow biopsy

An increase in pleomorphic megakaryocytes in the bone marrow without stainable iron is often described as characteristic in polycythemia vera patients, but it is not diagnostic. Panmyelosis with increased cellularity is the norm but can be seen in other myeloproliferative neoplasms. The morphologic features of bone marrow are now included as one of the major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera (Table 2).

OUR PATIENT’S FURTHER WORKUP

Our patient’s erythropoietin level is 34.2 mIU/mL (reference range 4.7–28.6). Her oxygen saturation is 96%, and her carboxyhemoglobin level is 1.1% (0–5).

She undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Analysis finds that the marrow is normocellular (60%) with trilineage hematopoiesis and decreased stainable iron.

Cytogenetic analysis shows a 46,XX[20] karyotype. Chromosomal microarray analysis shows no pathogenic copy-number changes. There is no detectable JAK2 V617F or exon 12-to-15 mutation.

The patient’s erythrocytosis and abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis study raise suspicion for a variant type of hemoglobin that has a higher affinity for oxygen than normal.

3. What is the next best step to evaluate this patient?

• Red-cell oxygen equilibrium curve to calculate the P50 (the partial pressure of oxygen that is required to saturate 50% of the hemoglobin.)
• High-performance liquid chromatography
• Globin gene DNA sequencing
• Testing 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate mutase (BPGM) activity

Nearly 200 mutational variants in alpha and beta globin chains that lead to an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen have been reported.¹² While not all mutations are clinically significant, increased oxygen affinity variants can lead to impaired oxygen delivery to tissues, especially the kidneys, resulting in a physiologic increase in erythropoietin and erythrocytosis.

In patients being evaluated for a high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy, a two-step approach has been outlined.¹³ The first involves measuring the oxygen-binding properties of a freshly collected sample of blood by directly measuring the oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin and pO₂ using a co-oximeter. This information is used to create a red cell oxygen equilibrium curve and to calculate the P50. A low P50 correlates with an abnormally high affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

The second step is to identify the abnormal hemoglobin. High-performance liquid chromatography is now widely available as a screening test but does not detect all variants. For many years, sequencing of globin chain DNA has been a gold standard for identifying specific mutations. Subsequent to analyzing a catalog of known hemoglobin variants, mass spectrometry can serve as a screening and identification technique. Mass spectroscopy can also detect known rare variants with posttranslational modifications¹⁴ that are not recognized by DNA analysis. Mass spectroscopy and DNA sequencing are complementary techniques available only in specialized reference laboratories.

Erythrocytosis due to BPGM deficiency is very rare. Clinical and laboratory features mimic those of high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but patients do not have a demonstrable mutation in alpha or beta globin genes. The level of BPGM is low, and the diagnosis is established by measuring BPGM levels and sequencing the BPGM gene.¹⁵

RESULTS OF THE ADDITIONAL WORKUP

In our patient, hemoglobin electrophoresis reveals an abnormal hemoglobin variant. High-performance liquid chromatography reveals an abnormal peak that comprises approximately 23.7% of the total hemoglobin, consistent with an alpha globin variant. Further characterization (using a sample of venous blood) shows an oxygen dissociation P50 of 22 mm Hg (normal 24–30 mm Hg) (Figure 1).

Mass spectrometry identifies the variant as hemoglobin Tarrant. This variant is characterized by a substitution of asparagine for aspartic acid at position 126 of the alpha globin chain, a known site of contact between the alpha 1 and beta 1 chains.¹⁶ It has been seen in patients of Hispanic heritage and clinically correlates with mild erythrocytosis. Indeed, this woman’s mother was from Mexico.

EDUCATING PATIENTS

4. What should patients know about their high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy?

• High altitudes and air travel can be risky
• Pregnancy may have adverse outcomes
• Systemic anticoagulation may lower the risk of venous thromboembolism
• Periodic phlebotomy may help control symptoms

Most patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin do not require specific clinical management but only counseling and education about their condition. Establishing an accurate diagnosis is important in order to avoid further inappropriate, invasive, and expensive testing.

Although exposure to high altitudes may be associated with decreased ambient oxygen levels, hypoxia is usually not a problem because of hemoglobin’s high affinity for oxygen.

Impaired delivery of oxygen across the placenta may be anticipated in a mother with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but this has not been observed clinically.¹⁷

Compared with patients with polycythemia vera, patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin have fewer complications from hyperviscosity and thrombosis, even with comparable degrees of erythrocytosis.

Although patients usually do not require treatment, phlebotomy may be helpful for symptoms that can be attributed to the higher hemoglobin concentration.

Our patient continues to be seen in clinic for periodic blood counts and phlebotomy for her headaches, as required.

HEMOGLOBIN: RELAXED OR TENSE

Normal adult hemoglobin is a tetramer composed of two pairs of globin polypeptide chains: alpha and beta (Figure 2). The intrinsic properties of the constituent globin chains and their allosteric conformation—as well as extrinsic factors including temperature, pH, and the binding of hydrogen ion and 2,3-BPG—play important roles in modifying the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. The major modulator of hemoglobin-oxygen affinity in human erythrocytes is 2,3-BPG.

The hemoglobin tetramer, consisting of two identical halves, alpha 1-beta 1 and alpha 2-beta 2, oscillates between two quaternary conformations, “relaxed” (fully oxygenated) and “tense” (fully deoxygenated).¹⁸ High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobins can result from factors that enhance the relaxed state, either by stabilizing the relaxed state or by destabilizing the tense state. Structural modifications in hemoglobin typically affect the main contacts involved in the transition from the deoxygenated to the oxygenated state, the 2,3-BPG binding sites, the heme pocket, or elongation of globin chains by various mutations. In hemoglobin Tarrant, the mutation prevents formation of noncovalent salt bridges in the alpha 1-beta 1 contact that normally stabilize the deoxygenated conformation of hemoglobin. As a result, the deoxygenated (tense) state is destabilized, shifting the allosteric equilibrium in favor of the oxygenated (relaxed) state with consequent high oxygen affinity.¹⁶

MORE ABOUT HIGH-OXYGEN-AFFINITY HEMOGLOBINS

The first case of erythrocytosis due to an abnormal hemoglobin was identified in 1966. This was an alpha chain variant with an arginine-to-leucine substitution at position 92, named hemoglobin Chesapeake.¹⁹

High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin variants are usually transmitted as autosomal dominant traits. Patients are most often identified because of unexplained erythrocytosis detected on a routine blood cell count, as in our patient.

Not all high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathies are associated with erythrocytosis. The degree of increased oxygen affinity may only be mild or the abnormal hemoglobin may be slightly unstable, thereby masking the usual clinical signs and symptoms.

Therapeutic phlebotomy should be used cautiously since it can decrease delivery of oxygen to tissues. A subset of patients whose symptoms are related to an elevated red cell mass may experience some relief, as did our patient.

A 40-year-old woman with hypertrophic   obstructive cardiomyopathy presents to the hematology clinic for a second opinion regarding a history of headaches and fatigue for the past 10 years. She has been diagnosed with idiopathic erythrocytosis, presumed to be due to polycythemia vera. She periodically undergoes phlebotomy to keep her hematocrit below 41%, and this markedly improves her headaches. She denies shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, joint pain, and visual or other neurologic symptoms. She has never reported pruritus related to bathing or exposure to water.

She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She works as a pharmacy technician. She says her father died of cancer (no further details available) and describes a family history of gastrointestinal malignancy in her grandfather and paternal aunt. She takes aspirin, metoprolol, and spironolactone for her cardiomyopathy.

Physical examination reveals generalized plethora, more marked on her cheeks and face, and mild bilateral pitting pedal edema. No lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly can be palpated. Other systems, including the cardiac, respiratory, and nervous systems, are normal.

ERYTHROCYTOSIS AND POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

1. In patients with erythrocytosis, which of the following is not characteristic of polycythemia vera?

• Erythromelalgia and postbathing pruritus
• Splenomegaly
• History of thrombosis
• Gout
• Hematuria

Erythrocytosis—an abnormally high concentration of red blood cells in the peripheral blood—is a laboratory finding. It often reflects an increase in the total quantity or mass of red blood cells in the body (polycythemia) but can sometimes be due to decreased plasma volume (spurious polycythemia).¹ Erythrocytosis can be caused by a number of diseases, hereditary and acquired, and can be classified as primary or secondary (Table 1).

Symptoms arise from an increase in the total blood volume and red blood cell mass, often leading to dilated capillaries and other blood vessels. Symptoms can occur regardless of the cause and classically include headache (often described as diffuse heaviness), dizziness, and a tendency for bleeding or thrombosis.² Symptoms are relieved when the hematocrit is lowered.

Several features in the history and physical examination of a patient being evaluated for erythrocytosis can suggest an underlying cause. Smoking, chronic respiratory insufficiency, and congenital cyanotic heart disease point to secondary erythrocytosis and can usually be identified at the outset. A history of occupational exposure to carbon monoxide (such as engine exhaust) should be elicited carefully. A family history of erythrocytosis should raise suspicion of a heritable condition such as a hemoglobinopathy associated with increased oxygen affinity or rare forms of primary erythrocytosis associated with endogenous overproduction of erythropoietin or activating mutations of the erythropoietin receptor.³ Iatrogenic causes such as androgen supplementation, erythropoietin abuse, and postrenal-transplant erythrocytosis should also be considered.

Secretion of erythropoietin or erythropoietinlike proteins by a malignant neoplasm is a rare but important cause of erythrocytosis. For example, renal cell carcinoma may present with erythrocytosis secondary to excessive erythropoietin production, and hematuria can be an early symptom.

Polycythemia vera

Polycythemia vera, a myeloproliferative neoplasm, is characterized by increased red blood cell production independent of the mechanisms that normally regulate erythropoiesis. The bone marrow shows a panmyelosis that is often accompanied by leukocytosis or thrombocytosis, or both, in the peripheral blood.

Symptoms such as severe itching after exposure to hot water (aquagenic pruritus) and periodic attacks of redness, swelling, and pain in the hands or feet, or both (erythromelalgia), have been described in patients with polycythemia vera. Splenomegaly is relatively common, seen in approximately two-thirds of patients.⁴ Hyperuricemia (from increased cell turnover) and gout are also associated with polycythemia vera, as is a history of arterial and venous thrombosis.⁵

Hematuria is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera, although bleeding from the bladder, vagina, or uterus has been described.

CASE RESUMED: INITIAL LABORATORY TESTS

Results of our patient’s initial laboratory tests are:

• Hemoglobin 16.9 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5)
• Hematocrit 48.8% (36.0–46.0)
• Mean corpuscular volume 85.2 fL (80–100)
• Platelet count 328 × 10⁹/L (150–400)
• White blood cell count 9.14 × 10⁹/L (3.7–11.0)
• Absolute neutrophil count 5.95 × 10⁹/L (1.45–7.5)
• Blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL (8–25)
• Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (0.7–1.4)
• Lactate dehydrogenase 180 U/L (100–220)
• Uric acid 3.0 mg/dL (2.0–7.0)
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone 2.2 µU/mL (0.4–5.5).

The patient undergoes additional tests, including a serum erythropoietin level and hemoglobinopathy screen. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are performed, with cytogenetic analysis, chromosomal microarray analysis, and molecular testing for mutation of the Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) gene.

CONFIRMING SUSPECTED POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

2. In patients with suspected polycythemia vera, which of the following laboratory tests is most useful in making the diagnosis?

• Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell mass
• Serum erythropoietin level
• Arterial blood gases with co-oximetry
• Testing for the JAK2 mutation
• Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

The aim of the initial workup of erythrocytosis is to differentiate polycythemia vera from secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, red cell mass

Erythrocytosis is defined by an abnormal elevation in the hematocrit (> 48% in women or > 49% in men), hemoglobin concentration (> 16.0 g/dL in women or > 16.5 g/dL in men), or red blood cell mass. The red blood cell count should not be used as a surrogate for red blood cell mass, since some anemias (especially thalassemia minor) can be associated with an increase in the number of red blood cells but a low hemoglobin concentration.

Isotope dilution techniques to determine the red cell mass and plasma volume can differentiate true erythrocytosis from a spurious elevation due to a decrease in plasma volume.^6,7 However, this is an expensive, time-consuming test that is not widely available and so is rarely performed.⁸

JAK2 mutation testing

The initial evaluation of a patient with erythrocytosis has changed significantly in the past 10 years with the discovery of the JAK2 gene and its role in the pathogenesis of polycythemia vera and other myeloproliferative neoplasms.

JAK2, located at 9p24, codes for a tyrosine kinase important for signal transduction in hematopoietic cells. Mutations in this gene have been shown to promote hypersensitivity to cytokines, including erythropoietin.⁹ The most common somatic mutation occurs within exon 14 at base pair 1849 and results in a phenylalanine-for-valine amino acid substitution in the JAK2 protein, designated V617F. Less commonly, mutations occur elsewhere in exons 12 to 15, with more than 50 different mutations described; nonpolymorphic mutations are assumed to have biologic effects similar to those of V617F.

Taken together, the JAK2 V617F and non-V617F mutations have a diagnostic sensitivity of 98% to 100% for polycythemia vera. For practical purposes, this means that the presence of a JAK2 mutation can be used as a clonal marker to distinguish polycythemia vera from reactive secondary causes of erythrocytosis. A JAK2 mutation is one of three major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera in the 2016 revision to the 2008 World Health Organization criteria (Table 2).¹⁰ Of note, this mutation is not specific for polycythemia vera and can also be found in other myeloproliferative neoplasms, including primary myelofibrosis and essential thrombocythemia.

Absence of a JAK2 mutation makes polycythemia vera unlikely, so this test is most useful in making the diagnosis.

Serum erythropoietin

Serum erythropoietin testing can be very useful to distinguish polycythemia vera from secondary erythrocytosis. Low levels suggest polycythemia vera, while high levels are seen in secondary processes.¹¹

This test is best used along with JAK2 V617F mutation analysis as an initial step in evaluating patients with erythrocytosis. When JAK2 V617F mutation analysis is negative, a low serum erythropoietin level should prompt further testing for non-V617F JAK2 mutations, whereas a normal or elevated erythropoietin level should be evaluated further with tests to distinguish hereditary from acquired secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Arterial blood gas analysis and co-oximetry

Arterial blood gas analysis can reveal hypoxemia, pointing to a cardiorespiratory process driving the erythrocytosis, whereas co-oximetry can be used to identify the presence and amount of carboxyhemoglobin in the blood.

Bone marrow biopsy

An increase in pleomorphic megakaryocytes in the bone marrow without stainable iron is often described as characteristic in polycythemia vera patients, but it is not diagnostic. Panmyelosis with increased cellularity is the norm but can be seen in other myeloproliferative neoplasms. The morphologic features of bone marrow are now included as one of the major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera (Table 2).

OUR PATIENT’S FURTHER WORKUP

Our patient’s erythropoietin level is 34.2 mIU/mL (reference range 4.7–28.6). Her oxygen saturation is 96%, and her carboxyhemoglobin level is 1.1% (0–5).

She undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Analysis finds that the marrow is normocellular (60%) with trilineage hematopoiesis and decreased stainable iron.

Cytogenetic analysis shows a 46,XX[20] karyotype. Chromosomal microarray analysis shows no pathogenic copy-number changes. There is no detectable JAK2 V617F or exon 12-to-15 mutation.

The patient’s erythrocytosis and abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis study raise suspicion for a variant type of hemoglobin that has a higher affinity for oxygen than normal.

3. What is the next best step to evaluate this patient?

• Red-cell oxygen equilibrium curve to calculate the P50 (the partial pressure of oxygen that is required to saturate 50% of the hemoglobin.)
• High-performance liquid chromatography
• Globin gene DNA sequencing
• Testing 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate mutase (BPGM) activity

Nearly 200 mutational variants in alpha and beta globin chains that lead to an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen have been reported.¹² While not all mutations are clinically significant, increased oxygen affinity variants can lead to impaired oxygen delivery to tissues, especially the kidneys, resulting in a physiologic increase in erythropoietin and erythrocytosis.

In patients being evaluated for a high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy, a two-step approach has been outlined.¹³ The first involves measuring the oxygen-binding properties of a freshly collected sample of blood by directly measuring the oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin and pO₂ using a co-oximeter. This information is used to create a red cell oxygen equilibrium curve and to calculate the P50. A low P50 correlates with an abnormally high affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

The second step is to identify the abnormal hemoglobin. High-performance liquid chromatography is now widely available as a screening test but does not detect all variants. For many years, sequencing of globin chain DNA has been a gold standard for identifying specific mutations. Subsequent to analyzing a catalog of known hemoglobin variants, mass spectrometry can serve as a screening and identification technique. Mass spectroscopy can also detect known rare variants with posttranslational modifications¹⁴ that are not recognized by DNA analysis. Mass spectroscopy and DNA sequencing are complementary techniques available only in specialized reference laboratories.

Erythrocytosis due to BPGM deficiency is very rare. Clinical and laboratory features mimic those of high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but patients do not have a demonstrable mutation in alpha or beta globin genes. The level of BPGM is low, and the diagnosis is established by measuring BPGM levels and sequencing the BPGM gene.¹⁵

RESULTS OF THE ADDITIONAL WORKUP

In our patient, hemoglobin electrophoresis reveals an abnormal hemoglobin variant. High-performance liquid chromatography reveals an abnormal peak that comprises approximately 23.7% of the total hemoglobin, consistent with an alpha globin variant. Further characterization (using a sample of venous blood) shows an oxygen dissociation P50 of 22 mm Hg (normal 24–30 mm Hg) (Figure 1).

Mass spectrometry identifies the variant as hemoglobin Tarrant. This variant is characterized by a substitution of asparagine for aspartic acid at position 126 of the alpha globin chain, a known site of contact between the alpha 1 and beta 1 chains.¹⁶ It has been seen in patients of Hispanic heritage and clinically correlates with mild erythrocytosis. Indeed, this woman’s mother was from Mexico.

EDUCATING PATIENTS

4. What should patients know about their high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy?

• High altitudes and air travel can be risky
• Pregnancy may have adverse outcomes
• Systemic anticoagulation may lower the risk of venous thromboembolism
• Periodic phlebotomy may help control symptoms

Most patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin do not require specific clinical management but only counseling and education about their condition. Establishing an accurate diagnosis is important in order to avoid further inappropriate, invasive, and expensive testing.

Although exposure to high altitudes may be associated with decreased ambient oxygen levels, hypoxia is usually not a problem because of hemoglobin’s high affinity for oxygen.

Impaired delivery of oxygen across the placenta may be anticipated in a mother with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but this has not been observed clinically.¹⁷

Compared with patients with polycythemia vera, patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin have fewer complications from hyperviscosity and thrombosis, even with comparable degrees of erythrocytosis.

Although patients usually do not require treatment, phlebotomy may be helpful for symptoms that can be attributed to the higher hemoglobin concentration.

Our patient continues to be seen in clinic for periodic blood counts and phlebotomy for her headaches, as required.

HEMOGLOBIN: RELAXED OR TENSE

Normal adult hemoglobin is a tetramer composed of two pairs of globin polypeptide chains: alpha and beta (Figure 2). The intrinsic properties of the constituent globin chains and their allosteric conformation—as well as extrinsic factors including temperature, pH, and the binding of hydrogen ion and 2,3-BPG—play important roles in modifying the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. The major modulator of hemoglobin-oxygen affinity in human erythrocytes is 2,3-BPG.

The hemoglobin tetramer, consisting of two identical halves, alpha 1-beta 1 and alpha 2-beta 2, oscillates between two quaternary conformations, “relaxed” (fully oxygenated) and “tense” (fully deoxygenated).¹⁸ High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobins can result from factors that enhance the relaxed state, either by stabilizing the relaxed state or by destabilizing the tense state. Structural modifications in hemoglobin typically affect the main contacts involved in the transition from the deoxygenated to the oxygenated state, the 2,3-BPG binding sites, the heme pocket, or elongation of globin chains by various mutations. In hemoglobin Tarrant, the mutation prevents formation of noncovalent salt bridges in the alpha 1-beta 1 contact that normally stabilize the deoxygenated conformation of hemoglobin. As a result, the deoxygenated (tense) state is destabilized, shifting the allosteric equilibrium in favor of the oxygenated (relaxed) state with consequent high oxygen affinity.¹⁶

MORE ABOUT HIGH-OXYGEN-AFFINITY HEMOGLOBINS

The first case of erythrocytosis due to an abnormal hemoglobin was identified in 1966. This was an alpha chain variant with an arginine-to-leucine substitution at position 92, named hemoglobin Chesapeake.¹⁹

High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin variants are usually transmitted as autosomal dominant traits. Patients are most often identified because of unexplained erythrocytosis detected on a routine blood cell count, as in our patient.

Not all high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathies are associated with erythrocytosis. The degree of increased oxygen affinity may only be mild or the abnormal hemoglobin may be slightly unstable, thereby masking the usual clinical signs and symptoms.

Therapeutic phlebotomy should be used cautiously since it can decrease delivery of oxygen to tissues. A subset of patients whose symptoms are related to an elevated red cell mass may experience some relief, as did our patient.

A 40-year-old woman with hypertrophic   obstructive cardiomyopathy presents to the hematology clinic for a second opinion regarding a history of headaches and fatigue for the past 10 years. She has been diagnosed with idiopathic erythrocytosis, presumed to be due to polycythemia vera. She periodically undergoes phlebotomy to keep her hematocrit below 41%, and this markedly improves her headaches. She denies shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, joint pain, and visual or other neurologic symptoms. She has never reported pruritus related to bathing or exposure to water.

She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. She works as a pharmacy technician. She says her father died of cancer (no further details available) and describes a family history of gastrointestinal malignancy in her grandfather and paternal aunt. She takes aspirin, metoprolol, and spironolactone for her cardiomyopathy.

Physical examination reveals generalized plethora, more marked on her cheeks and face, and mild bilateral pitting pedal edema. No lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly can be palpated. Other systems, including the cardiac, respiratory, and nervous systems, are normal.

ERYTHROCYTOSIS AND POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

1. In patients with erythrocytosis, which of the following is not characteristic of polycythemia vera?

• Erythromelalgia and postbathing pruritus
• Splenomegaly
• History of thrombosis
• Gout
• Hematuria

Erythrocytosis—an abnormally high concentration of red blood cells in the peripheral blood—is a laboratory finding. It often reflects an increase in the total quantity or mass of red blood cells in the body (polycythemia) but can sometimes be due to decreased plasma volume (spurious polycythemia).¹ Erythrocytosis can be caused by a number of diseases, hereditary and acquired, and can be classified as primary or secondary (Table 1).

Symptoms arise from an increase in the total blood volume and red blood cell mass, often leading to dilated capillaries and other blood vessels. Symptoms can occur regardless of the cause and classically include headache (often described as diffuse heaviness), dizziness, and a tendency for bleeding or thrombosis.² Symptoms are relieved when the hematocrit is lowered.

Several features in the history and physical examination of a patient being evaluated for erythrocytosis can suggest an underlying cause. Smoking, chronic respiratory insufficiency, and congenital cyanotic heart disease point to secondary erythrocytosis and can usually be identified at the outset. A history of occupational exposure to carbon monoxide (such as engine exhaust) should be elicited carefully. A family history of erythrocytosis should raise suspicion of a heritable condition such as a hemoglobinopathy associated with increased oxygen affinity or rare forms of primary erythrocytosis associated with endogenous overproduction of erythropoietin or activating mutations of the erythropoietin receptor.³ Iatrogenic causes such as androgen supplementation, erythropoietin abuse, and postrenal-transplant erythrocytosis should also be considered.

Secretion of erythropoietin or erythropoietinlike proteins by a malignant neoplasm is a rare but important cause of erythrocytosis. For example, renal cell carcinoma may present with erythrocytosis secondary to excessive erythropoietin production, and hematuria can be an early symptom.

Polycythemia vera

Polycythemia vera, a myeloproliferative neoplasm, is characterized by increased red blood cell production independent of the mechanisms that normally regulate erythropoiesis. The bone marrow shows a panmyelosis that is often accompanied by leukocytosis or thrombocytosis, or both, in the peripheral blood.

Symptoms such as severe itching after exposure to hot water (aquagenic pruritus) and periodic attacks of redness, swelling, and pain in the hands or feet, or both (erythromelalgia), have been described in patients with polycythemia vera. Splenomegaly is relatively common, seen in approximately two-thirds of patients.⁴ Hyperuricemia (from increased cell turnover) and gout are also associated with polycythemia vera, as is a history of arterial and venous thrombosis.⁵

Hematuria is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera, although bleeding from the bladder, vagina, or uterus has been described.

CASE RESUMED: INITIAL LABORATORY TESTS

Results of our patient’s initial laboratory tests are:

• Hemoglobin 16.9 g/dL (reference range 11.5–15.5)
• Hematocrit 48.8% (36.0–46.0)
• Mean corpuscular volume 85.2 fL (80–100)
• Platelet count 328 × 10⁹/L (150–400)
• White blood cell count 9.14 × 10⁹/L (3.7–11.0)
• Absolute neutrophil count 5.95 × 10⁹/L (1.45–7.5)
• Blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL (8–25)
• Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (0.7–1.4)
• Lactate dehydrogenase 180 U/L (100–220)
• Uric acid 3.0 mg/dL (2.0–7.0)
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone 2.2 µU/mL (0.4–5.5).

The patient undergoes additional tests, including a serum erythropoietin level and hemoglobinopathy screen. Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy are performed, with cytogenetic analysis, chromosomal microarray analysis, and molecular testing for mutation of the Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) gene.

CONFIRMING SUSPECTED POLYCYTHEMIA VERA

2. In patients with suspected polycythemia vera, which of the following laboratory tests is most useful in making the diagnosis?

• Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell mass
• Serum erythropoietin level
• Arterial blood gases with co-oximetry
• Testing for the JAK2 mutation
• Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

The aim of the initial workup of erythrocytosis is to differentiate polycythemia vera from secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, red cell mass

Erythrocytosis is defined by an abnormal elevation in the hematocrit (> 48% in women or > 49% in men), hemoglobin concentration (> 16.0 g/dL in women or > 16.5 g/dL in men), or red blood cell mass. The red blood cell count should not be used as a surrogate for red blood cell mass, since some anemias (especially thalassemia minor) can be associated with an increase in the number of red blood cells but a low hemoglobin concentration.

Isotope dilution techniques to determine the red cell mass and plasma volume can differentiate true erythrocytosis from a spurious elevation due to a decrease in plasma volume.^6,7 However, this is an expensive, time-consuming test that is not widely available and so is rarely performed.⁸

JAK2 mutation testing

The initial evaluation of a patient with erythrocytosis has changed significantly in the past 10 years with the discovery of the JAK2 gene and its role in the pathogenesis of polycythemia vera and other myeloproliferative neoplasms.

JAK2, located at 9p24, codes for a tyrosine kinase important for signal transduction in hematopoietic cells. Mutations in this gene have been shown to promote hypersensitivity to cytokines, including erythropoietin.⁹ The most common somatic mutation occurs within exon 14 at base pair 1849 and results in a phenylalanine-for-valine amino acid substitution in the JAK2 protein, designated V617F. Less commonly, mutations occur elsewhere in exons 12 to 15, with more than 50 different mutations described; nonpolymorphic mutations are assumed to have biologic effects similar to those of V617F.

Taken together, the JAK2 V617F and non-V617F mutations have a diagnostic sensitivity of 98% to 100% for polycythemia vera. For practical purposes, this means that the presence of a JAK2 mutation can be used as a clonal marker to distinguish polycythemia vera from reactive secondary causes of erythrocytosis. A JAK2 mutation is one of three major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera in the 2016 revision to the 2008 World Health Organization criteria (Table 2).¹⁰ Of note, this mutation is not specific for polycythemia vera and can also be found in other myeloproliferative neoplasms, including primary myelofibrosis and essential thrombocythemia.

Absence of a JAK2 mutation makes polycythemia vera unlikely, so this test is most useful in making the diagnosis.

Serum erythropoietin

Serum erythropoietin testing can be very useful to distinguish polycythemia vera from secondary erythrocytosis. Low levels suggest polycythemia vera, while high levels are seen in secondary processes.¹¹

This test is best used along with JAK2 V617F mutation analysis as an initial step in evaluating patients with erythrocytosis. When JAK2 V617F mutation analysis is negative, a low serum erythropoietin level should prompt further testing for non-V617F JAK2 mutations, whereas a normal or elevated erythropoietin level should be evaluated further with tests to distinguish hereditary from acquired secondary causes of erythrocytosis.

Arterial blood gas analysis and co-oximetry

Arterial blood gas analysis can reveal hypoxemia, pointing to a cardiorespiratory process driving the erythrocytosis, whereas co-oximetry can be used to identify the presence and amount of carboxyhemoglobin in the blood.

Bone marrow biopsy

An increase in pleomorphic megakaryocytes in the bone marrow without stainable iron is often described as characteristic in polycythemia vera patients, but it is not diagnostic. Panmyelosis with increased cellularity is the norm but can be seen in other myeloproliferative neoplasms. The morphologic features of bone marrow are now included as one of the major diagnostic criteria for polycythemia vera (Table 2).

OUR PATIENT’S FURTHER WORKUP

Our patient’s erythropoietin level is 34.2 mIU/mL (reference range 4.7–28.6). Her oxygen saturation is 96%, and her carboxyhemoglobin level is 1.1% (0–5).

She undergoes bone marrow biopsy. Analysis finds that the marrow is normocellular (60%) with trilineage hematopoiesis and decreased stainable iron.

Cytogenetic analysis shows a 46,XX[20] karyotype. Chromosomal microarray analysis shows no pathogenic copy-number changes. There is no detectable JAK2 V617F or exon 12-to-15 mutation.

The patient’s erythrocytosis and abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis study raise suspicion for a variant type of hemoglobin that has a higher affinity for oxygen than normal.

3. What is the next best step to evaluate this patient?

• Red-cell oxygen equilibrium curve to calculate the P50 (the partial pressure of oxygen that is required to saturate 50% of the hemoglobin.)
• High-performance liquid chromatography
• Globin gene DNA sequencing
• Testing 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate mutase (BPGM) activity

Nearly 200 mutational variants in alpha and beta globin chains that lead to an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen have been reported.¹² While not all mutations are clinically significant, increased oxygen affinity variants can lead to impaired oxygen delivery to tissues, especially the kidneys, resulting in a physiologic increase in erythropoietin and erythrocytosis.

In patients being evaluated for a high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy, a two-step approach has been outlined.¹³ The first involves measuring the oxygen-binding properties of a freshly collected sample of blood by directly measuring the oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin and pO₂ using a co-oximeter. This information is used to create a red cell oxygen equilibrium curve and to calculate the P50. A low P50 correlates with an abnormally high affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

The second step is to identify the abnormal hemoglobin. High-performance liquid chromatography is now widely available as a screening test but does not detect all variants. For many years, sequencing of globin chain DNA has been a gold standard for identifying specific mutations. Subsequent to analyzing a catalog of known hemoglobin variants, mass spectrometry can serve as a screening and identification technique. Mass spectroscopy can also detect known rare variants with posttranslational modifications¹⁴ that are not recognized by DNA analysis. Mass spectroscopy and DNA sequencing are complementary techniques available only in specialized reference laboratories.

Erythrocytosis due to BPGM deficiency is very rare. Clinical and laboratory features mimic those of high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but patients do not have a demonstrable mutation in alpha or beta globin genes. The level of BPGM is low, and the diagnosis is established by measuring BPGM levels and sequencing the BPGM gene.¹⁵

RESULTS OF THE ADDITIONAL WORKUP

In our patient, hemoglobin electrophoresis reveals an abnormal hemoglobin variant. High-performance liquid chromatography reveals an abnormal peak that comprises approximately 23.7% of the total hemoglobin, consistent with an alpha globin variant. Further characterization (using a sample of venous blood) shows an oxygen dissociation P50 of 22 mm Hg (normal 24–30 mm Hg) (Figure 1).

Mass spectrometry identifies the variant as hemoglobin Tarrant. This variant is characterized by a substitution of asparagine for aspartic acid at position 126 of the alpha globin chain, a known site of contact between the alpha 1 and beta 1 chains.¹⁶ It has been seen in patients of Hispanic heritage and clinically correlates with mild erythrocytosis. Indeed, this woman’s mother was from Mexico.

EDUCATING PATIENTS

4. What should patients know about their high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathy?

• High altitudes and air travel can be risky
• Pregnancy may have adverse outcomes
• Systemic anticoagulation may lower the risk of venous thromboembolism
• Periodic phlebotomy may help control symptoms

Most patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin do not require specific clinical management but only counseling and education about their condition. Establishing an accurate diagnosis is important in order to avoid further inappropriate, invasive, and expensive testing.

Although exposure to high altitudes may be associated with decreased ambient oxygen levels, hypoxia is usually not a problem because of hemoglobin’s high affinity for oxygen.

Impaired delivery of oxygen across the placenta may be anticipated in a mother with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin, but this has not been observed clinically.¹⁷

Compared with patients with polycythemia vera, patients with high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin have fewer complications from hyperviscosity and thrombosis, even with comparable degrees of erythrocytosis.

Although patients usually do not require treatment, phlebotomy may be helpful for symptoms that can be attributed to the higher hemoglobin concentration.

Our patient continues to be seen in clinic for periodic blood counts and phlebotomy for her headaches, as required.

HEMOGLOBIN: RELAXED OR TENSE

Normal adult hemoglobin is a tetramer composed of two pairs of globin polypeptide chains: alpha and beta (Figure 2). The intrinsic properties of the constituent globin chains and their allosteric conformation—as well as extrinsic factors including temperature, pH, and the binding of hydrogen ion and 2,3-BPG—play important roles in modifying the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. The major modulator of hemoglobin-oxygen affinity in human erythrocytes is 2,3-BPG.

The hemoglobin tetramer, consisting of two identical halves, alpha 1-beta 1 and alpha 2-beta 2, oscillates between two quaternary conformations, “relaxed” (fully oxygenated) and “tense” (fully deoxygenated).¹⁸ High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobins can result from factors that enhance the relaxed state, either by stabilizing the relaxed state or by destabilizing the tense state. Structural modifications in hemoglobin typically affect the main contacts involved in the transition from the deoxygenated to the oxygenated state, the 2,3-BPG binding sites, the heme pocket, or elongation of globin chains by various mutations. In hemoglobin Tarrant, the mutation prevents formation of noncovalent salt bridges in the alpha 1-beta 1 contact that normally stabilize the deoxygenated conformation of hemoglobin. As a result, the deoxygenated (tense) state is destabilized, shifting the allosteric equilibrium in favor of the oxygenated (relaxed) state with consequent high oxygen affinity.¹⁶

MORE ABOUT HIGH-OXYGEN-AFFINITY HEMOGLOBINS

The first case of erythrocytosis due to an abnormal hemoglobin was identified in 1966. This was an alpha chain variant with an arginine-to-leucine substitution at position 92, named hemoglobin Chesapeake.¹⁹

High-oxygen-affinity hemoglobin variants are usually transmitted as autosomal dominant traits. Patients are most often identified because of unexplained erythrocytosis detected on a routine blood cell count, as in our patient.

Not all high-oxygen-affinity hemoglobinopathies are associated with erythrocytosis. The degree of increased oxygen affinity may only be mild or the abnormal hemoglobin may be slightly unstable, thereby masking the usual clinical signs and symptoms.

Therapeutic phlebotomy should be used cautiously since it can decrease delivery of oxygen to tissues. A subset of patients whose symptoms are related to an elevated red cell mass may experience some relief, as did our patient.

A 54-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection has had a progressive decline in kidney function. He was diagnosed with hepatitis C 15 years ago; he tried interferon treatment, but this failed. He received a transjugular intrahepatic shunt 10 years ago after an episode of esophageal variceal bleeding. He has since been taking furosemide and spironolactone as maintenance treatment for ascites, and he has no other medical concerns such as hypertension or diabetes.

Two weeks ago, routine laboratory tests in the clinic showed that his serum creatinine level had increased from baseline. He was asked to stop his diuretics and increase his fluid intake. Nevertheless, his kidney function continued to decline (Table 1), and he was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation.

On admission, he appeared comfortable. He denied recent use of any medications, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and diuretics, and he had no genitourinary symptoms. His temperature was normal, blood pressure 170/90 mm Hg, pulse rate 72 per minute, and respiratory rate 16. His skin and sclerae were not jaundiced; his abdomen was not tender, but it was grossly distended with ascites. He also had +3 pedal edema (on a scale of 4) extending to both knees. The rest of his physical examination was unremarkable. Results of further laboratory tests are shown in in Table 2.

Ultrasonography of the liver demonstrated cirrhosis with patent flow through the shunt, and ultrasonography of the kidneys showed that both were slightly enlarged with increased cortical echogenicity but no hydronephrosis or obstruction.

EXPLORING THE CAUSE OF RENAL FAILURE

1. Given this information, what is the likely cause of our patient’s renal failure?

• Volume depletion
• Acute tubular necrosis
• Hepatorenal syndrome 
• HCV glomerulopathy

Renal failure is a common complication in cirrhosis and portends a higher risk of death.¹ The differential diagnosis is broad, but a systematic approach incorporating data from the history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the cause and is essential in determining the prognosis and proper treatment.

Volume depletion

Volume depletion is a common cause of renal failure in cirrhotic patients. Common precipitants are excessive diuresis and gastrointestinal fluid loss from bleeding, vomiting, and diarrhea. Despite having ascites and edema, patients may have low fluid volume in the vascular space. Therefore, the first step in a patient with acute kidney injury is to withhold diuretics and give fluids. The renal failure usually rapidly reverses if the patient does not have renal parenchymal disease.²

Our patient did not present with any fluid losses, and his high blood pressure and normal heart rate did not suggest volume depletion. And most importantly, withholding his diuretics and giving fluids did not reverse his renal failure. Thus, volume depletion was an unlikely cause.

Acute tubular necrosis

The altered hemodynamics caused by cirrhosis predispose patients to acute tubular necrosis. Classically, this presents as muddy brown casts and renal tubular epithelial cells on urinalysis and as a fractional excretion of sodium greater than 2%.¹ However, these microscopic findings lack sensitivity, and patients with cirrhosis may have marked sodium avidity and low urine sodium excretion despite tubular injury.³

This diagnosis must still be considered in patients with renal failure, especially after an insult such as hemorrhagic or septic shock or intake of nephrotoxins. However, because our patient did not have a history of any of these and because his renal failure had been progressing over weeks, acute tubular necrosis was considered unlikely.

Hepatorenal syndrome

Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by progressive renal failure in the absence of renal parenchymal disease. It is a functional disorder, ie, the decreased glomerular filtration rate results from renal vasoconstriction, which in turn is due to decreased systemic vascular resistance and increased compensatory activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and of antiduretic hormone release (Figure 1).

Hepatorenal syndrome often occurs in patients with advanced liver disease. These patients typically have a hyperdynamic circulation (systemic vasodilation, low blood pressure, and increased blood volume) with a low mean arterial pressure and increased renin and norepinephrine levels. Other frequent findings include hyponatremia, low urinary sodium excretion (< 2 mmol/day), and low free water clearance,⁴ all of which mark the high systemic levels of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone.

Importantly, while hepatorenal syndrome is always considered in the differential diagnosis because of its unique prognosis and therapy, it remains a diagnosis of exclusion. The International Ascites Club⁵ has provided diagnostic criteria for hepatorenal syndrome:

• Cirrhosis and ascites
• Serum creatinine greater than 1.5 mg/dL
• Failure of serum creatinine to fall to less than 1.5 mg/dL after at least 48 hours of diuretic withdrawal and volume expansion with albumin (recommended dose 1 g/kg body weight per day up to a maximum of 100 g per day)
• Absence of shock
• No current or recent treatment with nephrotoxic drugs
• No signs of parenchymal kidney disease such as proteinuria (protein excretion > 500 mg/day), microhematuria (> 50 red blood cells per high-power field), or abnormalities on renal ultrasonography.

While these criteria are not perfect,⁶ they remind clinicians that there are other important causes of renal insufficiency in cirrhosis.

Clinically, our patient had no evidence of a hyperdynamic circulation and was instead hypertensive. He was eunatremic and did not have marked renal sodium avidity. His pyuria, proteinuria (his protein excretion was approximately 1.9 g/day as determined by urine spot protein-to-creatinine ratio), and results of ultrasonography also suggested underlying renal parenchymal disease. Therefore, hepatorenal syndrome was not the likely diagnosis.

HCV glomerulopathy

Intrinsic renal disease is likely, given our patient’s proteinuria, active urine sediment (ie, containing red blood cells, white blood cells, and protein), and abnormal findings on ultrasonography. In patients with HCV infection and no other cause of intrinsic kidney disease, immune complex deposition leading to glomerulonephritis is the most common pattern.⁷ Despite the intrinsic renal disease, fractional excretion of sodium may be less than 1% in glomerulonephritis. Hypertension in a patient such as ours with cirrhosis and renal insufficiency raises suspicion for glomerular disease, as hypertension is unlikely in advanced cirrhosis.⁸

Glomerulonephritis in patients with cirrhosis is often clinically silent and may be highly prevalent; some studies have shown glomerular involvement in 55% to 83% of patients with cirrhosis.^9,10 This increases the risk of end-stage renal disease, and the Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes guideline recommends that HCV-infected patients be tested at least once a year for proteinuria, hematuria, and estimated glomerular filtration rate to detect possible HCV-associated kidney disease.¹¹ According to current guidelines of the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) and American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) , detection of glomerulonephritis in HCV patients puts them in the highest priority class for treatment of HCV.¹²

HISTOLOGIC FINDINGS

Because of the high likelihood of glomerulopathy, our patient underwent renal biopsy.

2. What is the classic pathologic finding in HCV kidney disease?

• Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
• Crescentic glomerulonephritis
• Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
• Membranous glomerulonephritis

A number of pathologic patterns have been described in HCV kidney disease, including membranous glomerulonephritis, immunoglobulin A nephropathy, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. However, by far the most common pattern is type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.¹³ (Types 2 and 3 are much less common, and we will not discuss them here.) In type 1, light microscopy shows increased mesangial cells and thickened capillary walls (lobular glomeruli), staining of the basement membrane reveals double contours (“tram tracking”) or splitting due to mesangial deposition, and immunofluorescence demonstrates immunoglobulin G and complement C3 deposition. All of these findings were seen in our patient (Figure 2, Figure 3).

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis in patients with HCV is most commonly associated with cryoglobulins, a mixture of monoclonal or polyclonal immunoglobulin (Ig) M that have antiglobulin (rheumatoid factor) activity and bind to polyclonal IgG. They reversibly precipitate at less than 37°C, (98.6°F), hence their name. Only 50% to 70% of patients with cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis have detectable serum cryoglobulins; however, kidney biopsy may show globular accumulations of eosinophilic material and prominent hypercellularity due to infiltration of glomerular capillaries with mononuclear and polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is also found in patients with HCV infection. Its histologic features are similar, but on biopsy, there is less prominent leukocytic infiltration and no eosinophilic material. Although the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis in HCV infection is poorly understood, it is thought to result from deposition of circulating immune complexes of HCV, anti-HCV, and rheumatoid factor in the glomeruli.

3. What laboratory finding is often seen in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

• Positive cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
• serum complement Low levels 
• Antiphospholipase A2 receptor antibodies

Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody is seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis, while antiphospholipid A2 receptor antibodies are seen in idiopathic membranous nephritis.

Low serum complement levels are frequently found in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. It is believed that immune complex deposition leads to glomerular damage through activation of the complement pathway and the subsequent influx of inflammatory cells, release of cytokines and proteases, and damage to capillary walls. When repair ensues, new mesangial matrix and basement membrane are deposited, leading to mesangial expansion and duplicated basement membrane.¹⁴

In cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, the complement C4 level is often much lower than C3, but in noncryoglobulinemic forms C3 is lower. A mnemonic to remember nephritic syndromes with low complement levels is “hy-PO-CO-MP-L-EM-ents”; PO for postinfectious, CO for cryoglobulins, MP for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, L for lupus, and EM for embolic.

BACK TO OUR PATIENT

In addition to kidney biopsy, we tested our patient for serum cryoglobulins, rheumatoid factor, and serum complements. Results from these tests (Table 3), in addition to the lack of cryoglobulins on his biopsy, led to the conclusion that he had noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

WHO SHOULD RECEIVE TREATMENT FOR HCV?

4. According to the current IDSA/AASLD guidelines, which of the following patients should not receive direct-acting antiviral therapy for HCV?

• Patients with HCV and only low-stage fibrosis
• Patients with decompensated cirrhosis
• Patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/minute
• None of the above—nearly all patients with HCV infection should receive treatment for it

While certain patients have compelling indications for HCV treatment, such as advanced fibrosis, severe extrahepatic manifestations of HCV (eg, glomerulonephritis, cryoglobulinemia), and posttransplant status, current guidelines recommend treatment for nearly all patients with HCV, including those with low-stage fibrosis.¹²

Patients with Child-Pugh grade B or C decompensated cirrhosis, even with hepatocellular carcinoma, may be considered for treatment. Multiple studies have demonstrated the efficacy and safety of direct-acting antiviral drugs in this patient population. In one randomized controlled trial,¹⁵ the combination of ledipasvir, sofosbuvir, and ribavirin resulted in high sustained virologic response rates at 12 weeks in patients infected with HCV genotype 1 or 4 with advanced liver disease, irrespective of transplant status (86% to 89% of patients were pretransplant). Sustained virologic response was associated with improvements in Model for End-Stage Liver Disease and Child-Pugh scores largely due to decreases in bilirubin and improvement in synthetic function (ie, albumin).

Similarly, even patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/min are candidates for treatment. Those with a glomerular filtration rate above 30 mL/min need no dosage adjustments for the most common regimens, while regimens are also available for those with a rate less than 30 mL/min. Although patients with low baseline renal function have a higher frequency of anemia (especially with ribavirin), worsening renal dysfunction, and more severe adverse events, treatment responses remain high and comparable to those without renal impairment.

The Hepatitis C Therapeutic Registry and Research Network (HCV-TARGET) is conducting an ongoing prospective study evaluating real-world use of direct-acting antiviral agents. The study has reported the safety and efficacy of sofosbuvir-containing regimens in patients with varying severities of kidney disease, including glomerular filtration rates less than 30 mL/min). The patients received different regimens that included sofosbuvir. The regimens were reportedly tolerated, and the rate of sustained viral response at 12 weeks remained high.¹⁶

The efficacy of direct-acting antiviral agents for HCV-associated glomerulonephritis remains to be studied but is promising. Earlier studies found that antiviral therapy based on interferon alfa with or without ribavirin can significantly decrease proteinuria and stabilize renal function.^17–20 HCV RNA clearance has been found to best predict renal improvement.

OUR PATIENT’S COURSE

Unfortunately, our patient’s kidney function declined further over the next 3 months, and he is currently on dialysis awaiting simultaneous liver and kidney transplant.

A 54-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection has had a progressive decline in kidney function. He was diagnosed with hepatitis C 15 years ago; he tried interferon treatment, but this failed. He received a transjugular intrahepatic shunt 10 years ago after an episode of esophageal variceal bleeding. He has since been taking furosemide and spironolactone as maintenance treatment for ascites, and he has no other medical concerns such as hypertension or diabetes.

Two weeks ago, routine laboratory tests in the clinic showed that his serum creatinine level had increased from baseline. He was asked to stop his diuretics and increase his fluid intake. Nevertheless, his kidney function continued to decline (Table 1), and he was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation.

On admission, he appeared comfortable. He denied recent use of any medications, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and diuretics, and he had no genitourinary symptoms. His temperature was normal, blood pressure 170/90 mm Hg, pulse rate 72 per minute, and respiratory rate 16. His skin and sclerae were not jaundiced; his abdomen was not tender, but it was grossly distended with ascites. He also had +3 pedal edema (on a scale of 4) extending to both knees. The rest of his physical examination was unremarkable. Results of further laboratory tests are shown in in Table 2.

Ultrasonography of the liver demonstrated cirrhosis with patent flow through the shunt, and ultrasonography of the kidneys showed that both were slightly enlarged with increased cortical echogenicity but no hydronephrosis or obstruction.

EXPLORING THE CAUSE OF RENAL FAILURE

1. Given this information, what is the likely cause of our patient’s renal failure?

• Volume depletion
• Acute tubular necrosis
• Hepatorenal syndrome 
• HCV glomerulopathy

Renal failure is a common complication in cirrhosis and portends a higher risk of death.¹ The differential diagnosis is broad, but a systematic approach incorporating data from the history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the cause and is essential in determining the prognosis and proper treatment.

Volume depletion

Volume depletion is a common cause of renal failure in cirrhotic patients. Common precipitants are excessive diuresis and gastrointestinal fluid loss from bleeding, vomiting, and diarrhea. Despite having ascites and edema, patients may have low fluid volume in the vascular space. Therefore, the first step in a patient with acute kidney injury is to withhold diuretics and give fluids. The renal failure usually rapidly reverses if the patient does not have renal parenchymal disease.²

Our patient did not present with any fluid losses, and his high blood pressure and normal heart rate did not suggest volume depletion. And most importantly, withholding his diuretics and giving fluids did not reverse his renal failure. Thus, volume depletion was an unlikely cause.

Acute tubular necrosis

The altered hemodynamics caused by cirrhosis predispose patients to acute tubular necrosis. Classically, this presents as muddy brown casts and renal tubular epithelial cells on urinalysis and as a fractional excretion of sodium greater than 2%.¹ However, these microscopic findings lack sensitivity, and patients with cirrhosis may have marked sodium avidity and low urine sodium excretion despite tubular injury.³

This diagnosis must still be considered in patients with renal failure, especially after an insult such as hemorrhagic or septic shock or intake of nephrotoxins. However, because our patient did not have a history of any of these and because his renal failure had been progressing over weeks, acute tubular necrosis was considered unlikely.

Hepatorenal syndrome

Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by progressive renal failure in the absence of renal parenchymal disease. It is a functional disorder, ie, the decreased glomerular filtration rate results from renal vasoconstriction, which in turn is due to decreased systemic vascular resistance and increased compensatory activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and of antiduretic hormone release (Figure 1).

Hepatorenal syndrome often occurs in patients with advanced liver disease. These patients typically have a hyperdynamic circulation (systemic vasodilation, low blood pressure, and increased blood volume) with a low mean arterial pressure and increased renin and norepinephrine levels. Other frequent findings include hyponatremia, low urinary sodium excretion (< 2 mmol/day), and low free water clearance,⁴ all of which mark the high systemic levels of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone.

Importantly, while hepatorenal syndrome is always considered in the differential diagnosis because of its unique prognosis and therapy, it remains a diagnosis of exclusion. The International Ascites Club⁵ has provided diagnostic criteria for hepatorenal syndrome:

• Cirrhosis and ascites
• Serum creatinine greater than 1.5 mg/dL
• Failure of serum creatinine to fall to less than 1.5 mg/dL after at least 48 hours of diuretic withdrawal and volume expansion with albumin (recommended dose 1 g/kg body weight per day up to a maximum of 100 g per day)
• Absence of shock
• No current or recent treatment with nephrotoxic drugs
• No signs of parenchymal kidney disease such as proteinuria (protein excretion > 500 mg/day), microhematuria (> 50 red blood cells per high-power field), or abnormalities on renal ultrasonography.

While these criteria are not perfect,⁶ they remind clinicians that there are other important causes of renal insufficiency in cirrhosis.

Clinically, our patient had no evidence of a hyperdynamic circulation and was instead hypertensive. He was eunatremic and did not have marked renal sodium avidity. His pyuria, proteinuria (his protein excretion was approximately 1.9 g/day as determined by urine spot protein-to-creatinine ratio), and results of ultrasonography also suggested underlying renal parenchymal disease. Therefore, hepatorenal syndrome was not the likely diagnosis.

HCV glomerulopathy

Intrinsic renal disease is likely, given our patient’s proteinuria, active urine sediment (ie, containing red blood cells, white blood cells, and protein), and abnormal findings on ultrasonography. In patients with HCV infection and no other cause of intrinsic kidney disease, immune complex deposition leading to glomerulonephritis is the most common pattern.⁷ Despite the intrinsic renal disease, fractional excretion of sodium may be less than 1% in glomerulonephritis. Hypertension in a patient such as ours with cirrhosis and renal insufficiency raises suspicion for glomerular disease, as hypertension is unlikely in advanced cirrhosis.⁸

Glomerulonephritis in patients with cirrhosis is often clinically silent and may be highly prevalent; some studies have shown glomerular involvement in 55% to 83% of patients with cirrhosis.^9,10 This increases the risk of end-stage renal disease, and the Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes guideline recommends that HCV-infected patients be tested at least once a year for proteinuria, hematuria, and estimated glomerular filtration rate to detect possible HCV-associated kidney disease.¹¹ According to current guidelines of the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) and American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) , detection of glomerulonephritis in HCV patients puts them in the highest priority class for treatment of HCV.¹²

HISTOLOGIC FINDINGS

Because of the high likelihood of glomerulopathy, our patient underwent renal biopsy.

2. What is the classic pathologic finding in HCV kidney disease?

• Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
• Crescentic glomerulonephritis
• Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
• Membranous glomerulonephritis

A number of pathologic patterns have been described in HCV kidney disease, including membranous glomerulonephritis, immunoglobulin A nephropathy, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. However, by far the most common pattern is type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.¹³ (Types 2 and 3 are much less common, and we will not discuss them here.) In type 1, light microscopy shows increased mesangial cells and thickened capillary walls (lobular glomeruli), staining of the basement membrane reveals double contours (“tram tracking”) or splitting due to mesangial deposition, and immunofluorescence demonstrates immunoglobulin G and complement C3 deposition. All of these findings were seen in our patient (Figure 2, Figure 3).

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis in patients with HCV is most commonly associated with cryoglobulins, a mixture of monoclonal or polyclonal immunoglobulin (Ig) M that have antiglobulin (rheumatoid factor) activity and bind to polyclonal IgG. They reversibly precipitate at less than 37°C, (98.6°F), hence their name. Only 50% to 70% of patients with cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis have detectable serum cryoglobulins; however, kidney biopsy may show globular accumulations of eosinophilic material and prominent hypercellularity due to infiltration of glomerular capillaries with mononuclear and polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is also found in patients with HCV infection. Its histologic features are similar, but on biopsy, there is less prominent leukocytic infiltration and no eosinophilic material. Although the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis in HCV infection is poorly understood, it is thought to result from deposition of circulating immune complexes of HCV, anti-HCV, and rheumatoid factor in the glomeruli.

3. What laboratory finding is often seen in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

• Positive cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
• serum complement Low levels 
• Antiphospholipase A2 receptor antibodies

Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody is seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis, while antiphospholipid A2 receptor antibodies are seen in idiopathic membranous nephritis.

Low serum complement levels are frequently found in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. It is believed that immune complex deposition leads to glomerular damage through activation of the complement pathway and the subsequent influx of inflammatory cells, release of cytokines and proteases, and damage to capillary walls. When repair ensues, new mesangial matrix and basement membrane are deposited, leading to mesangial expansion and duplicated basement membrane.¹⁴

In cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, the complement C4 level is often much lower than C3, but in noncryoglobulinemic forms C3 is lower. A mnemonic to remember nephritic syndromes with low complement levels is “hy-PO-CO-MP-L-EM-ents”; PO for postinfectious, CO for cryoglobulins, MP for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, L for lupus, and EM for embolic.

BACK TO OUR PATIENT

In addition to kidney biopsy, we tested our patient for serum cryoglobulins, rheumatoid factor, and serum complements. Results from these tests (Table 3), in addition to the lack of cryoglobulins on his biopsy, led to the conclusion that he had noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

WHO SHOULD RECEIVE TREATMENT FOR HCV?

4. According to the current IDSA/AASLD guidelines, which of the following patients should not receive direct-acting antiviral therapy for HCV?

• Patients with HCV and only low-stage fibrosis
• Patients with decompensated cirrhosis
• Patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/minute
• None of the above—nearly all patients with HCV infection should receive treatment for it

While certain patients have compelling indications for HCV treatment, such as advanced fibrosis, severe extrahepatic manifestations of HCV (eg, glomerulonephritis, cryoglobulinemia), and posttransplant status, current guidelines recommend treatment for nearly all patients with HCV, including those with low-stage fibrosis.¹²

Patients with Child-Pugh grade B or C decompensated cirrhosis, even with hepatocellular carcinoma, may be considered for treatment. Multiple studies have demonstrated the efficacy and safety of direct-acting antiviral drugs in this patient population. In one randomized controlled trial,¹⁵ the combination of ledipasvir, sofosbuvir, and ribavirin resulted in high sustained virologic response rates at 12 weeks in patients infected with HCV genotype 1 or 4 with advanced liver disease, irrespective of transplant status (86% to 89% of patients were pretransplant). Sustained virologic response was associated with improvements in Model for End-Stage Liver Disease and Child-Pugh scores largely due to decreases in bilirubin and improvement in synthetic function (ie, albumin).

Similarly, even patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/min are candidates for treatment. Those with a glomerular filtration rate above 30 mL/min need no dosage adjustments for the most common regimens, while regimens are also available for those with a rate less than 30 mL/min. Although patients with low baseline renal function have a higher frequency of anemia (especially with ribavirin), worsening renal dysfunction, and more severe adverse events, treatment responses remain high and comparable to those without renal impairment.

The Hepatitis C Therapeutic Registry and Research Network (HCV-TARGET) is conducting an ongoing prospective study evaluating real-world use of direct-acting antiviral agents. The study has reported the safety and efficacy of sofosbuvir-containing regimens in patients with varying severities of kidney disease, including glomerular filtration rates less than 30 mL/min). The patients received different regimens that included sofosbuvir. The regimens were reportedly tolerated, and the rate of sustained viral response at 12 weeks remained high.¹⁶

The efficacy of direct-acting antiviral agents for HCV-associated glomerulonephritis remains to be studied but is promising. Earlier studies found that antiviral therapy based on interferon alfa with or without ribavirin can significantly decrease proteinuria and stabilize renal function.^17–20 HCV RNA clearance has been found to best predict renal improvement.

OUR PATIENT’S COURSE

Unfortunately, our patient’s kidney function declined further over the next 3 months, and he is currently on dialysis awaiting simultaneous liver and kidney transplant.

A 54-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection has had a progressive decline in kidney function. He was diagnosed with hepatitis C 15 years ago; he tried interferon treatment, but this failed. He received a transjugular intrahepatic shunt 10 years ago after an episode of esophageal variceal bleeding. He has since been taking furosemide and spironolactone as maintenance treatment for ascites, and he has no other medical concerns such as hypertension or diabetes.

Two weeks ago, routine laboratory tests in the clinic showed that his serum creatinine level had increased from baseline. He was asked to stop his diuretics and increase his fluid intake. Nevertheless, his kidney function continued to decline (Table 1), and he was admitted to the hospital for further evaluation.

On admission, he appeared comfortable. He denied recent use of any medications, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and diuretics, and he had no genitourinary symptoms. His temperature was normal, blood pressure 170/90 mm Hg, pulse rate 72 per minute, and respiratory rate 16. His skin and sclerae were not jaundiced; his abdomen was not tender, but it was grossly distended with ascites. He also had +3 pedal edema (on a scale of 4) extending to both knees. The rest of his physical examination was unremarkable. Results of further laboratory tests are shown in in Table 2.

Ultrasonography of the liver demonstrated cirrhosis with patent flow through the shunt, and ultrasonography of the kidneys showed that both were slightly enlarged with increased cortical echogenicity but no hydronephrosis or obstruction.

EXPLORING THE CAUSE OF RENAL FAILURE

1. Given this information, what is the likely cause of our patient’s renal failure?

• Volume depletion
• Acute tubular necrosis
• Hepatorenal syndrome 
• HCV glomerulopathy

Renal failure is a common complication in cirrhosis and portends a higher risk of death.¹ The differential diagnosis is broad, but a systematic approach incorporating data from the history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the cause and is essential in determining the prognosis and proper treatment.

Volume depletion

Volume depletion is a common cause of renal failure in cirrhotic patients. Common precipitants are excessive diuresis and gastrointestinal fluid loss from bleeding, vomiting, and diarrhea. Despite having ascites and edema, patients may have low fluid volume in the vascular space. Therefore, the first step in a patient with acute kidney injury is to withhold diuretics and give fluids. The renal failure usually rapidly reverses if the patient does not have renal parenchymal disease.²

Our patient did not present with any fluid losses, and his high blood pressure and normal heart rate did not suggest volume depletion. And most importantly, withholding his diuretics and giving fluids did not reverse his renal failure. Thus, volume depletion was an unlikely cause.

Acute tubular necrosis

The altered hemodynamics caused by cirrhosis predispose patients to acute tubular necrosis. Classically, this presents as muddy brown casts and renal tubular epithelial cells on urinalysis and as a fractional excretion of sodium greater than 2%.¹ However, these microscopic findings lack sensitivity, and patients with cirrhosis may have marked sodium avidity and low urine sodium excretion despite tubular injury.³

This diagnosis must still be considered in patients with renal failure, especially after an insult such as hemorrhagic or septic shock or intake of nephrotoxins. However, because our patient did not have a history of any of these and because his renal failure had been progressing over weeks, acute tubular necrosis was considered unlikely.

Hepatorenal syndrome

Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by progressive renal failure in the absence of renal parenchymal disease. It is a functional disorder, ie, the decreased glomerular filtration rate results from renal vasoconstriction, which in turn is due to decreased systemic vascular resistance and increased compensatory activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and of antiduretic hormone release (Figure 1).

Hepatorenal syndrome often occurs in patients with advanced liver disease. These patients typically have a hyperdynamic circulation (systemic vasodilation, low blood pressure, and increased blood volume) with a low mean arterial pressure and increased renin and norepinephrine levels. Other frequent findings include hyponatremia, low urinary sodium excretion (< 2 mmol/day), and low free water clearance,⁴ all of which mark the high systemic levels of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone.

Importantly, while hepatorenal syndrome is always considered in the differential diagnosis because of its unique prognosis and therapy, it remains a diagnosis of exclusion. The International Ascites Club⁵ has provided diagnostic criteria for hepatorenal syndrome:

• Cirrhosis and ascites
• Serum creatinine greater than 1.5 mg/dL
• Failure of serum creatinine to fall to less than 1.5 mg/dL after at least 48 hours of diuretic withdrawal and volume expansion with albumin (recommended dose 1 g/kg body weight per day up to a maximum of 100 g per day)
• Absence of shock
• No current or recent treatment with nephrotoxic drugs
• No signs of parenchymal kidney disease such as proteinuria (protein excretion > 500 mg/day), microhematuria (> 50 red blood cells per high-power field), or abnormalities on renal ultrasonography.

While these criteria are not perfect,⁶ they remind clinicians that there are other important causes of renal insufficiency in cirrhosis.

Clinically, our patient had no evidence of a hyperdynamic circulation and was instead hypertensive. He was eunatremic and did not have marked renal sodium avidity. His pyuria, proteinuria (his protein excretion was approximately 1.9 g/day as determined by urine spot protein-to-creatinine ratio), and results of ultrasonography also suggested underlying renal parenchymal disease. Therefore, hepatorenal syndrome was not the likely diagnosis.

HCV glomerulopathy

Intrinsic renal disease is likely, given our patient’s proteinuria, active urine sediment (ie, containing red blood cells, white blood cells, and protein), and abnormal findings on ultrasonography. In patients with HCV infection and no other cause of intrinsic kidney disease, immune complex deposition leading to glomerulonephritis is the most common pattern.⁷ Despite the intrinsic renal disease, fractional excretion of sodium may be less than 1% in glomerulonephritis. Hypertension in a patient such as ours with cirrhosis and renal insufficiency raises suspicion for glomerular disease, as hypertension is unlikely in advanced cirrhosis.⁸

Glomerulonephritis in patients with cirrhosis is often clinically silent and may be highly prevalent; some studies have shown glomerular involvement in 55% to 83% of patients with cirrhosis.^9,10 This increases the risk of end-stage renal disease, and the Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes guideline recommends that HCV-infected patients be tested at least once a year for proteinuria, hematuria, and estimated glomerular filtration rate to detect possible HCV-associated kidney disease.¹¹ According to current guidelines of the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) and American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) , detection of glomerulonephritis in HCV patients puts them in the highest priority class for treatment of HCV.¹²

HISTOLOGIC FINDINGS

Because of the high likelihood of glomerulopathy, our patient underwent renal biopsy.

2. What is the classic pathologic finding in HCV kidney disease?

• Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
• Crescentic glomerulonephritis
• Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
• Membranous glomerulonephritis

A number of pathologic patterns have been described in HCV kidney disease, including membranous glomerulonephritis, immunoglobulin A nephropathy, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. However, by far the most common pattern is type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.¹³ (Types 2 and 3 are much less common, and we will not discuss them here.) In type 1, light microscopy shows increased mesangial cells and thickened capillary walls (lobular glomeruli), staining of the basement membrane reveals double contours (“tram tracking”) or splitting due to mesangial deposition, and immunofluorescence demonstrates immunoglobulin G and complement C3 deposition. All of these findings were seen in our patient (Figure 2, Figure 3).

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis in patients with HCV is most commonly associated with cryoglobulins, a mixture of monoclonal or polyclonal immunoglobulin (Ig) M that have antiglobulin (rheumatoid factor) activity and bind to polyclonal IgG. They reversibly precipitate at less than 37°C, (98.6°F), hence their name. Only 50% to 70% of patients with cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis have detectable serum cryoglobulins; however, kidney biopsy may show globular accumulations of eosinophilic material and prominent hypercellularity due to infiltration of glomerular capillaries with mononuclear and polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is also found in patients with HCV infection. Its histologic features are similar, but on biopsy, there is less prominent leukocytic infiltration and no eosinophilic material. Although the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis in HCV infection is poorly understood, it is thought to result from deposition of circulating immune complexes of HCV, anti-HCV, and rheumatoid factor in the glomeruli.

3. What laboratory finding is often seen in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

• Positive cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
• serum complement Low levels 
• Antiphospholipase A2 receptor antibodies

Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody is seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis, while antiphospholipid A2 receptor antibodies are seen in idiopathic membranous nephritis.

Low serum complement levels are frequently found in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. It is believed that immune complex deposition leads to glomerular damage through activation of the complement pathway and the subsequent influx of inflammatory cells, release of cytokines and proteases, and damage to capillary walls. When repair ensues, new mesangial matrix and basement membrane are deposited, leading to mesangial expansion and duplicated basement membrane.¹⁴

In cryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, the complement C4 level is often much lower than C3, but in noncryoglobulinemic forms C3 is lower. A mnemonic to remember nephritic syndromes with low complement levels is “hy-PO-CO-MP-L-EM-ents”; PO for postinfectious, CO for cryoglobulins, MP for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, L for lupus, and EM for embolic.

BACK TO OUR PATIENT

In addition to kidney biopsy, we tested our patient for serum cryoglobulins, rheumatoid factor, and serum complements. Results from these tests (Table 3), in addition to the lack of cryoglobulins on his biopsy, led to the conclusion that he had noncryoglobulinemic membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

WHO SHOULD RECEIVE TREATMENT FOR HCV?

4. According to the current IDSA/AASLD guidelines, which of the following patients should not receive direct-acting antiviral therapy for HCV?

• Patients with HCV and only low-stage fibrosis
• Patients with decompensated cirrhosis
• Patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/minute
• None of the above—nearly all patients with HCV infection should receive treatment for it

While certain patients have compelling indications for HCV treatment, such as advanced fibrosis, severe extrahepatic manifestations of HCV (eg, glomerulonephritis, cryoglobulinemia), and posttransplant status, current guidelines recommend treatment for nearly all patients with HCV, including those with low-stage fibrosis.¹²

Patients with Child-Pugh grade B or C decompensated cirrhosis, even with hepatocellular carcinoma, may be considered for treatment. Multiple studies have demonstrated the efficacy and safety of direct-acting antiviral drugs in this patient population. In one randomized controlled trial,¹⁵ the combination of ledipasvir, sofosbuvir, and ribavirin resulted in high sustained virologic response rates at 12 weeks in patients infected with HCV genotype 1 or 4 with advanced liver disease, irrespective of transplant status (86% to 89% of patients were pretransplant). Sustained virologic response was associated with improvements in Model for End-Stage Liver Disease and Child-Pugh scores largely due to decreases in bilirubin and improvement in synthetic function (ie, albumin).

Similarly, even patients with a glomerular filtration rate less than 30 mL/min are candidates for treatment. Those with a glomerular filtration rate above 30 mL/min need no dosage adjustments for the most common regimens, while regimens are also available for those with a rate less than 30 mL/min. Although patients with low baseline renal function have a higher frequency of anemia (especially with ribavirin), worsening renal dysfunction, and more severe adverse events, treatment responses remain high and comparable to those without renal impairment.

The Hepatitis C Therapeutic Registry and Research Network (HCV-TARGET) is conducting an ongoing prospective study evaluating real-world use of direct-acting antiviral agents. The study has reported the safety and efficacy of sofosbuvir-containing regimens in patients with varying severities of kidney disease, including glomerular filtration rates less than 30 mL/min). The patients received different regimens that included sofosbuvir. The regimens were reportedly tolerated, and the rate of sustained viral response at 12 weeks remained high.¹⁶

The efficacy of direct-acting antiviral agents for HCV-associated glomerulonephritis remains to be studied but is promising. Earlier studies found that antiviral therapy based on interferon alfa with or without ribavirin can significantly decrease proteinuria and stabilize renal function.^17–20 HCV RNA clearance has been found to best predict renal improvement.

OUR PATIENT’S COURSE

Unfortunately, our patient’s kidney function declined further over the next 3 months, and he is currently on dialysis awaiting simultaneous liver and kidney transplant.