Emergency Medicine

In contrast to stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),¹ acute exacerbations of COPD pose special management challenges and can significantly increase the risk of morbidity and death and the cost of care.

This review addresses the definition and diagnosis of COPD exacerbations, disease burden and costs, etiology and pathogenesis, and management and prevention strategies.

DEFINITIONS ARE PROBLEMATIC

The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) defines a COPD exacer­bation as “an acute event characterized by a worsening of the patient’s respiratory symptoms that is beyond normal day-to-day variations and leads to a change in medication.”² It further categorizes acute exacerbations by severity:

• Mild—treated with increased frequency of doses of existing medications
• Moderate—treated with corticosteroids or antibiotics, or both
• Severe—requires hospital utilization (either emergency room treatment or admission).

Although descriptive and useful for retrospective analyses, this current definition poses ambiguities for clinicians. Day-to-day variation in symptoms is not routinely assessed, so deviations from baseline may be difficult to detect. Although clinical tools are available for assessing symptoms in stable and exacerbated states (eg, the COPD assessment test³ and the Exacerbations of Chronic Pulmonary Disease Tool [EXACT]⁴), they have not been widely adopted in daily practice. Also, according to the current definition, the severity of an exacerbation can be classified only after the course of action is determined, so the severity is not helpful for forming a management strategy at bedside. In addition, physicians may have different thresholds for prescribing antibiotics and corticosteroids.

An earlier definition categorized a COPD exacerbation by the presence of its three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence):

• Type I—all three symptoms present
• Type II—two symptoms present
• Type III—one symptom present, accompanied by at least one of the following: upper respiratory tract infection within the past 5 days, unexplained fever, increased wheezing or cough, or 20% increased respiratory rate or heart rate from baseline.

This older definition was successfully used in a prospective clinical trial to identify patients who benefited most from antibiotics for COPD exacerbations.⁵

COPD exacerbation: an acute worsening of respiratory symptoms

Despite these caveats regarding a definition, most clinicians agree on the clinical presentation of a patient with COPD exacerbation: ie, having some combination of shortness of breath, increased sputum volume, and purulence. By the same token, patients with COPD who present with symptoms not typical of an exacerbation should be evaluated for another diagnosis. For instance, Tillie-Leblond et al⁶ reported that 49 (25%) of 197 patients hospitalized with an “unexplained” exacerbation of COPD were eventually diagnosed with pulmonary embolism.

EXACERBATIONS ARE COSTLY

The care of patients with COPD places a great burden on the healthcare system. Using multiple national databases, Ford et al⁷ estimated that medical costs in the United States in 2010 attributable to COPD and its complications were $32.1 billion.

The largest component of direct healthcare costs of COPD is exacerbations and subsequent hospitalizations.⁸ Data from a predominantly Medicare population indicate that the annualized mean COPD-related cost for a patient with no exacerbations was $1,425, compared with $12,765 for a patient with severe exacerbations.⁹ The investigators estimated that reducing exacerbations from two or more to none could save $5,125 per patient per year.

EXACERBATIONS AFFECT HEALTH BEYOND THE EVENT

COPD exacerbations are associated with a faster decline in lung function,¹⁰ reduced quality of life,¹¹ and lost workdays.⁷ A single exacerbation may cause a decline in lung function and health status that may not return to baseline for several months, particularly if another exacerbation occurs within 6 months.^12,13 COPD exacerbations have also been linked to poor clinical outcomes, including death.

In a prospective study in 304 men with COPD followed for 5 years, those who had three or more COPD exacerbations annually were four times as likely to die than patients who did not have an exacerbation.¹⁴ Nevertheless, the relationship with mortality may not be causal: Brusselle pointed out in an editorial¹⁵ that established mortality predictors for COPD do not include exacerbations, and symptomatic patients with COPD without any history of exacerbations are at greater risk of death than those who are asymptomatic but at high risk for exacerbations.

INFECTION + INFLAMMATION = EXACERBATION

An acute COPD exacerbation can be viewed as an acute inflammatory event superimposed on chronic inflammation associated with COPD. Inflammation in the airways increases resistance to air flow with consequent air trapping. Increased resistance and elastic load due to air trapping place respiratory muscles at a mechanical disadvantage and increase the work of breathing.

Infection starts the process

Infections are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation

Infections, particularly bacterial and viral, are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation, although environmental factors such as air pollution may also play a role.¹⁶

Airway inflammation is markedly reduced when bacterial infection is eradicated. But if bacterial colonization continues, inflammatory markers remain elevated despite clinical resolution of the exacerbation.¹⁷ Desai et al¹⁸ found that patients with COPD and chronic bronchitis with bacterial colonization had a larger symptom burden than patients without colonization, even without an exacerbation.

Allergic profile increases risk

Although most studies indicate that infection is the main cause of exacerbations, clinicians should consider other mechanisms of inflammation on an individual basis. COPD exacerbations may be phenotyped by measuring inflammatory markers, perhaps as a starting point for tailored therapies.

Bafadhel et al¹⁹ studied 145 patients with COPD over the course of a year and recorded various biomarkers at baseline and during exacerbations. Exacerbations had an inflammatory profile that was predominantly bacterial in 37%, viral in 10%, and eosinophilic in 17%, and had limited changes in the inflammatory profile in 14%. The remaining episodes were combinations of categories. In another study,²⁰ multivariate analysis conducted in two cohorts with COPD found that patients who had an allergic phenotype had more respiratory symptoms and a higher likelihood of COPD exacerbations.

Frequent COPD exacerbations are increasingly recognized as being associated with an asthma-COPD overlap syndrome, consisting of symptoms of increased airflow variability and incompletely reversible airflow obstruction.²¹

Inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations

Evidence is accumulating that supports systemic inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations. The Copenhagen Heart Study tested for baseline plasma C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, and white blood cell count in 6,574 stable patients with COPD.²² After multivariable adjustment, they found a significantly higher likelihood of having a subsequent exacerbation in patients who had all three biomarkers elevated (odds ratio [OR] 3.7, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.9–7.4), even in patients with milder COPD and those without previous exacerbations.

Past exacerbations predict risk

A history of exacerbation is the best predictor of future exacerbation

The Evaluation of COPD Longitudinally to Identify Predictive Surrogate Endpoints study²³ found that a history of acute COPD exacerbation was the single best predictor of future exacerbations. This risk factor remained stable over 3 years and was present across the severity of COPD, ie, patients at lower GOLD stages who had a history of frequent exacerbations were likely to have exacerbations during follow-up.

EXACERBATION INCREASES CARDIOVASCULAR RISK

COPD exacerbations increase the risk of cardiovascular events, particularly myocardial infarction.²⁴ During hospitalization for acute exacerbation of COPD, markers of myocardial injury and heart failure may be elevated and are a predictor of death.²⁵

Patel et al²⁶ measured arterial stiffness (aortic pulse wave velocity, a validated measure of cardiovascular risk) and cardiac biomarkers (troponin and N-terminal B-type natriuretic peptide) at baseline in 98 patients and longitudinally during and after a COPD exacerbation. In addition to increased levels of cardiac biomarkers, they found a significant rise in arterial stiffness during the exacerbation event without return to baseline levels over 35 days of follow-up. The arterial stiffness increase was related to airway inflammation as measured by sputum interleukin 6, particularly in patients with documented lower respiratory tract infection.

Retrospective analysis suggests a reduced all-cause mortality rate in COPD patients who are treated with beta-blockers.²⁷

Recommendation. We recommend that patients already taking a selective beta-blocker continue to do so during a COPD exacerbation.

OUTPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Treatment with a combination of a corticosteroid, antibiotic, and bronchodilator addresses the underlying pathophysiologic processes of an acute exacerbation: inflammation, infection, and airway trapping.

Short course of a corticosteroid improves outcomes

A single exacerbation may worsen health status for several months

A 10-day systemic course of a corticosteroid prescribed for COPD exacerbation before discharge from the emergency department was found to offer a small advantage over placebo for reducing treatment failure (unscheduled physician visits, return to emergency room for recurrent symptoms) and improving dyspnea scores and lung function.²⁸ Even just a 3-day course improved measures of respiration (forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration [FEV₁] and arterial oxygenation) at days 3 and 10, and reduced treatment failures compared with placebo.²⁹

Corticosteroid prescription should not be taken lightly, because adverse effects are common. In a systematic review, one adverse effect (hyperglycemia, weight gain, or insomnia) occurred for every five people treated.³⁰

Identifying subgroups of patients most likely to benefit from corticosteroid treatment may be helpful. Corticosteroids may delay improvement in patients without eosinophilic inflammation and hasten recovery in those with more than 2% peripheral eosinophils.³¹ Siva et al³² found that limiting corticosteroids to patients with sputum eosinophilia reduced corticosteroid use and reduced severe exacerbations compared with standard care.³²

Recommendation. For an acute exacerbation, we prescribe a short course of corticosteroids (eg, prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 to 7 days). Tapering dosing is probably unnecessary because adrenal insufficiency is uncommon before 2 weeks of corticosteroid exposure. Clinicians should weigh the merits of tapering (reduced corticosteroid exposure) against patient inconvenience and difficulty following complicated instructions.

Antibiotics help, but exact strategy uncertain

Although antibiotic therapy is one of the three pillars of COPD exacerbation management, the optimal antimicrobial agent, duration of therapy, and which patients will benefit remain areas of controversy and research. Thus far, large trials have been unable to definitely show the superiority of one antibiotic over another.^33,34

A 1987 randomized controlled trial⁵ of antibiotic therapy in acute exacerbation of COPD found the greatest benefit to patients who had all three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence), with less marked but still significant improvement in patients with two symptoms. In a 2012 multicenter trial³⁵ patients with mild to moderate COPD experiencing an exacerbation were treated with either combined amoxicillin and clavulanate or placebo if they had one of the three cardinal symptoms. The antibiotic group had a significantly higher clinical cure rate at days 9 to 11 (74.1% vs 59.9%) as well as a longer time until the next exacerbation (233 vs 160 days).

Recommendation. Optimal antibiotic management of COPD exacerbations may also depend on risk factors. For patients with at least two cardinal symptoms, we favor a scheme akin to one proposed for treating community-acquired pneumonia (Table 1).^16,36

INPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Corticosteroids improve outcomes

A Department of Veterans Affairs cooperative trial³⁷ randomized 271 patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation to receive either corticosteroids (intravenous followed by oral) or placebo for either 2 weeks or 8 weeks. Corticosteroid recipients had lower rates of treatment failure at 30 and 90 days, defined as death from any cause, need for mechanical ventilation, readmission, or intensification of pharmacologic therapy. Corticosteroid therapy also reduced hospital length of stay and improved the rate of recovery. The longer corticosteroid course was associated with a higher rate of adverse effects.

Oral corticosteroids not inferior to intravenous

Using the same end point of treatment failure as the Veterans Affairs cooperative trial, deJong et al³⁸ demonstrated that prednisone 60 mg by mouth was not inferior to intravenous prednisone. Neither trial demonstrated a difference in mortality between corticosteroid use and placebo.

Short course of a corticosteroid not inferior to a long course

In 2013, the Reduction in the Use of Corticosteroids in Exacerbated COPD (REDUCE) trial³⁹ randomized 314 patients presenting with an acute COPD exacerbation (92% requiring hospital admission) to oral prednisone 40 mg daily for either 5 days or 14 days. They found that the short course was noninferior in preventing exacerbations over the ensuing 6 months in terms of death and the need for mechanical ventilation.

Recommendation. Our threshold for initiating systemic corticosteroid therapy is lower in hospitalized patients than in outpatients. We recommend the regimen of the REDUCE trial: prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days.

Corticosteroids for patients on ventilatory support

Severe COPD exacerbations requiring admission to intensive care are a significant source of morbidity and mortality, and the strategy of corticosteroid treatment is still under investigation.

Intravenous corticosteroids are effective. A multicenter trial⁴⁰ in 354 patients requiring either invasive or noninvasive mechanical ventilation randomized them to treatment with either intravenous methylprednisolone (tapered) or placebo. Treatment was associated with fewer mechanical ventilation days and a lower rate of noninvasive ventilation failure.

Low-dose oral corticosteroids ineffective. In contrast, an open-label trial⁴¹ of patients requiring ventilatory support and randomized to either oral prednisone (1 mg/kg for up to 10 days) or usual care found no difference in intensive care length of stay or noninvasive ventilation failure. This study used the oral route and smaller doses, and its open-label design might have introduced bias.

Lower-dose steroids better than high-dose. A 2014 cohort study of 17,239 patients admitted to the ICU with acute exacerbations of COPD evaluated outcomes of treatment with high methylprednisolone dosages (> 240 mg per day) vs lower dosages, using propensity score matching.⁴² No mortality difference was found between the groups. The lower dosage group (median methylprednisolone dose 100 mg per day) had shorter hospital and intensive care unit stays, shorter duration of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, less need for insulin therapy, and fewer fungal infections.

Antibiotics for hospitalized patients

Only scarce data are available on the use of antibiotics for patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation. In a study of patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbations, adding doxycycline to corticosteroids led to better clinical success and cure rates at 10 days compared with placebo, but the primary end point of clinical success at 30 days was not different between the two groups.⁴³

BRONCHODILATORS: A MAINSTAY OF COPD TREATMENT

Bronchodilators are an important part of treatment of COPD exacerbations in inpatient and outpatient settings.

Nebulized beta-2 agonists are given every 1 to 4 hours. Albuterol at a 2.5-mg dose in each nebulization was found to be as effective as 5 mg for length of hospital stay and recovery of lung function in patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD.⁴⁴

Adding an anticholinergic may help. Nebulized anticholinergics can be given alone or combined with beta-2 agonists. Whether long-acting bronchodilators should be used to manage COPD patients hospitalized with an exacerbation requires further inquiry. In an observational study with historical controls, Drescher and colleagues⁴⁵ found cost savings and shorter hospital stays if tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) was added to the respiratory care protocol, which also included formoterol (a long-acting beta-2 agonist).

OXYGEN: TITRATED APPROACH SAFER

Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia in patients on oxygen

Oxygen should be supplied during a COPD exacerbation to ensure adequate oxyhemoglobin saturation. Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia, particularly in patients with severe COPD and propensity to ventilatory failure. The routine administration of oxygen at high concentrations during a COPD exacerbation has been associated with a higher mortality rate than with a titrated oxygen approach.⁴⁶ Long-term oxygen treatment started at discharge or as outpatient therapy is associated with reduced hospital admissions and shorter hospital stays for acute exacerbations of COPD.⁴⁷

VENTILATION SUPPORT

Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is a useful adjunct to treatment of COPD exacerbations with evidence of ventilatory failure (ie, acute respiratory acidosis), helping to offset the work of breathing until respiratory system mechanics improve. Keenan et al⁴⁸ reviewed 15 randomized controlled trials, involving 636 patients, of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation in the setting of COPD exacerbation. They concluded that noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation reduced the in-hospital mortality rate and length of stay compared with standard therapy. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is most useful in patients with severe COPD exacerbations and acute respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35).⁴⁹

Intubation and mechanical ventilation. Although no standards exist for determining which COPD exacerbations may be too severe for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation, intubation is clearly indicated for impending respiratory failure or hemodynamic instability. Other factors to consider include the greater likelihood of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation failure in patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25 is associated with a > 50% failure rate) and in those with no improvement in acidosis or respiratory rate during the first hour after initiation of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.⁵⁰

PREVENTING EXACERBATIONS

Recent data indicate that COPD exacerbations can often be prevented (Table 2).

Inhaled pharmacotherapy

Inhaled pharmacotherapeutic agents, singly or in combination, reduce the frequency of COPD exacerbations.

Combined long-acting beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid is better than single-agent therapy. In 2007, the Towards a Revolution in COPD Health (TORCH) trial⁵¹ evaluated outpatient therapy in more than 6,000 patients worldwide with either an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (salmeterol), an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone), both drugs in combination, or placebo. Patients had baseline prebronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 60% and were followed for 3 years. No difference was found between the groups in the primary end point of deaths, but the annualized rate of moderate to severe exacerbations was reduced by 25% in the group that received combination therapy vs placebo. Combination therapy showed superior efficacy over individual drug therapy in preventing exacerbations. Treatment with the inhaled corticosteroid, whether alone or in combination with salmeterol, increased the risk of pneumonia.

A long-acting antimuscarinic agent is better than placebo. In 2008, the Understanding Potential Long-Term Impacts on Function With Tiotropium (UPLIFT) trial⁵² randomized nearly 6,000 patients with COPD and a postbronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 70% to placebo or tiotropium, a long-acting antimuscarinic agent. Tiotropium reduced the exacerbation rate by 14% compared with placebo and improved quality of life.

Antimuscarinics may be better than beta-2 agonists. Head-to-head comparisons suggest that long-acting antimuscarinic agents are preferable to long-acting beta-2 agonists for preventing COPD exacerbations.^53,54

Triple therapy: evidence is mixed. For patients with severe symptomatic COPD and frequent exacerbations, triple therapy with a combination of an inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent, an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and an inhaled corticosteroid has been suggested.

Data to support this practice are limited. In the Canadian Optimal Trial,⁵⁵ the rate of exacerbations was not different between tiotropium alone, tiotropium plus salmeterol, and triple therapy. However, the rate of hospitalization for severe exacerbation was lower with triple therapy than tiotropium alone. A large, retrospective cohort study also supported triple therapy by finding reduced mortality, hospitalizations, and need for oral corticosteroid bursts compared to combination therapy with an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid.⁵⁶

The drawback of triple therapy is an increased incidence of pneumonia associated with combined beta-2 agonist and corticosteroids, most likely due to the corticosteroid component.⁵¹ The risk appears to be higher for higher potency corticosteroids, eg, fluticasone.⁵⁷

In 2014, the Withdrawal of Inhaled Steroids During Optimised Bronchodilator Management (WISDOM) trial⁵⁸ randomized nearly 2,500 patients with a history of COPD exacerbation receiving triple therapy consisting of tiotropium, salmeterol, and inhaled fluticasone to either continue treatment or withdraw the corticosteroid for 3 months. The investigators defined an annualized exacerbation rate of 1.2 (ie, a 20% increase) as the upper limit of the confidence interval for an acceptable therapeutic margin of noninferiority. The study showed that the risk of moderate to severe exacerbations with combined tiotropium and salmeterol was noninferior to triple therapy.

Nevertheless, caution is advised when removing the corticosteroid component from triple therapy. The trial demonstrated a worsening in overall health status, some reduction in lung function, and a transient increase in severe exacerbations in the withdrawal group. Patients with increased symptom burden at baseline and a history of severe exacerbations may not be optimal candidates for this strategy.

Roflumilast is effective but has side effects

Roflumilast, an oral phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor, is an anti-inflammatory drug without bronchodilator properties. In randomized controlled trials, the drug was associated with a 17% reduction in acute exacerbations compared with placebo.⁵⁹

Adding roflumilast to either a long-acting beta-2 agonist or a long-acting antimuscarinic agent resulted in a 6% to 8% further reduction in the proportion of patients with exacerbation.^60,61 Martinez et al⁶¹ found that roflumilast added to a regimen of a long-acting beta-2 agonist plus an inhaled corticosteroid reduced moderate to severe exacerbations by 14.2%, even in the presence of tiotropium. Compared with placebo, roflumilast treatment reduced exacerbations necessitating hospitalizations by 23.9%.

The FDA has approved oral roflumilast 500 µg once daily to prevent COPD exacerbations.

Roflumilast is frequently associated with side effects, including gastrointestinal symptoms (chiefly diarrhea), weight loss, and psychiatric effects. A benefit-to-harm study in 2014 concluded that using the drug is only favorable for patients who have a high risk of severe exacerbations, ie, those who have a greater than 22% baseline risk of having at least one exacerbation annually.⁶²

Recommendation. Roflumilast should be reserved for patients who have severe COPD with a chronic bronchitis phenotype (ie, with cough and sputum production) and repeated exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, long-acting beta-2 agonist, and long-acting antimuscarinic agent.

Macrolide antibiotics: Role unclear

Macrolide antibiotics have anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities.

Azithromycin: fewer exacerbations but some side effects. A multicenter trial⁶³ in 1,142 COPD patients randomized to either oral azithromycin 250 mg daily or placebo found a 27% reduction in the risk of COPD exacerbation in the intervention arm. No differences were found between the groups in mortality, hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or respiratory failure. Hearing loss and increased macrolide resistance were noted in the intervention arm. In a secondary subgroup analysis,⁶⁴ no difference in efficacy was found by sex, history of chronic bronchitis, oxygen use, or concomitant COPD treatment.

The COPD: Influence of Macrolides on Exacerbation Frequency in Patients trial⁶⁵ helped refine patient selection for macrolide therapy. In this single-center study, 92 patients with COPD and at least three exacerbations during the year prior to enrollment were randomized to receive either azithromycin 500 mg three times weekly or placebo. Exacerbations in the intervention group were markedly reduced (42%) with no difference in hospitalization rate.

The place of macrolide antibiotics in the treatment strategy of COPD is unclear, and they are not currently part of the GOLD guidelines. Still unknown is the incremental benefit of adding them to existing preventive regimens, cardiovascular safety, side effects, and potential effects on the resident microbial flora. 

Other antibiotics have also been investigated for efficacy in preventing exacerbations.

Moxifloxacin: fewer exacerbations. The Pulsed Moxifloxacin Usage and Its Long-term Impact on the Reduction of Subsequent Exacerbations study⁶⁶ randomized more than 1,000 patients with stable COPD to receive either moxifloxacin 400 mg or placebo daily for 5 days repeated every 8 weeks for six courses. Frequent assessment during the treatment period and for 6 months afterward revealed a reduced exacerbation rate in the intervention group but without benefit in hospitalization rate, mortality, lung function, or health status.

Recommendation. Azithromycin (either 250 mg daily or 500 mg three times weekly) can be considered for patients who have repeated COPD exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent. The need to continue azithromycin should be reassessed yearly.

Mucolytics

Greatest benefit to patients not taking inhaled corticosteroids. Mucolytic agents help clear airway secretions by reducing viscosity. N-acetylcysteine and carbocysteine (not available in the United States) also have antioxidant properties that may counteract oxidant stress associated with acute COPD exacerbations.

The Bronchitis Randomized on NAC Cost-Utility Study (BRONCUS)⁶⁷ randomized 523 COPD patients to N-acetylcysteine 600 mg daily or placebo. After 3 years of follow-up, no differences were found in the rate of exacerbations, lung function decline, and quality of life. Subgroup analysis suggested a reduction in exacerbations for patients who were not taking inhaled corticosteroids.

The Effect of Carbocisteine on Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PEACE) study randomized more than 700 patients from multiple centers in China who had COPD and a recent history of exacerbations; they found a 25% lower exacerbation rate over 1 year with carbocysteine vs placebo.⁶⁸ Most of the patients (83%) were not on inhaled corticosteroids, which complemented findings of the BRONCUS trial.

The Effect of High Dose N-acetylcysteine on Air Trapping and Airway Resistance of COPD (HIACE) study randomized 120 patients with stable COPD in a hospital in Hong Kong to either oral N-acetylcysteine (600 mg twice daily) or placebo and found a reduced exacerbation rate of exacerbations. Patients were matched at baseline for inhaled corticosteroid use.⁶⁹

In 2014, the Twice Daily N-acetylcysteine 600 mg for Exacerbations of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PANTHEON) study⁷⁰ randomized 1,006 patients from multiple hospitals in China with a history of moderate to severe COPD and exacerbations to receive either N-acetylcysteine 600 mg twice daily or placebo for 1 year. They found a 22% reduction in exacerbations in the treatment group vs placebo.  

GOLD guidelines² recommend mucolytics for patients with severe COPD and exacerbations when inhaled corticosteroids are not available or affordable.

Recommendation. Mucolytics may be useful for patients with difficulty expectorating and with a history of exacerbations despite appropriate inhaled therapy.

OTHER INTERVENTIONS CAN HELP

Pulmonary rehabilitation provides multiple benefits

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptoms

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptom burden in patients with stable COPD. It is also a multidisciplinary effort that may help reinforce adherence to medications, enhance COPD education, and provide closer medical surveillance to patients at high risk for recurrent exacerbations.

A small randomized controlled trial⁷¹ prescribed pulmonary rehabilitation on discharge for a COPD exacerbation and found sustainable improvements in exercise capacity and health status after 3 months.

In a later study,⁷² the same group started pulmonary rehabilitation within a week of hospital discharge and found reduced hospital readmissions over a 3-month period.

Smoking cessation is always worth advocating

A large observational cohort study concluded that current smokers were at a higher risk for COPD exacerbations compared with former smokers.⁷³ Although there are no randomized controlled trials that assess the effects of smoking cessation at the time of COPD exacerbation, we recommend seizing the opportunity to implement this important intervention.

Vaccinations: Influenza and pneumococcal

Influenza vaccination is associated with reduced incidence of hospitalization among patients with cardiopulmonary disease.⁷⁴ A meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials of influenza vaccination for patients with COPD⁷⁵ reported significantly fewer exacerbations from vaccination, mostly owing to fewer episodes occurring after 3 to 4 weeks, coinciding with anticipated vaccine-induced immune protection. Furumoto and colleagues⁷⁶ reported an added benefit of combined vaccination with 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine and influenza vaccine in reducing hospital admissions over influenza vaccination alone. We also recommend providing the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine to patients with COPD, particularly for those older than 65, consistent with CDC recommendations.⁷⁷

In contrast to stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),¹ acute exacerbations of COPD pose special management challenges and can significantly increase the risk of morbidity and death and the cost of care.

This review addresses the definition and diagnosis of COPD exacerbations, disease burden and costs, etiology and pathogenesis, and management and prevention strategies.

DEFINITIONS ARE PROBLEMATIC

The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) defines a COPD exacer­bation as “an acute event characterized by a worsening of the patient’s respiratory symptoms that is beyond normal day-to-day variations and leads to a change in medication.”² It further categorizes acute exacerbations by severity:

• Mild—treated with increased frequency of doses of existing medications
• Moderate—treated with corticosteroids or antibiotics, or both
• Severe—requires hospital utilization (either emergency room treatment or admission).

Although descriptive and useful for retrospective analyses, this current definition poses ambiguities for clinicians. Day-to-day variation in symptoms is not routinely assessed, so deviations from baseline may be difficult to detect. Although clinical tools are available for assessing symptoms in stable and exacerbated states (eg, the COPD assessment test³ and the Exacerbations of Chronic Pulmonary Disease Tool [EXACT]⁴), they have not been widely adopted in daily practice. Also, according to the current definition, the severity of an exacerbation can be classified only after the course of action is determined, so the severity is not helpful for forming a management strategy at bedside. In addition, physicians may have different thresholds for prescribing antibiotics and corticosteroids.

An earlier definition categorized a COPD exacerbation by the presence of its three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence):

• Type I—all three symptoms present
• Type II—two symptoms present
• Type III—one symptom present, accompanied by at least one of the following: upper respiratory tract infection within the past 5 days, unexplained fever, increased wheezing or cough, or 20% increased respiratory rate or heart rate from baseline.

This older definition was successfully used in a prospective clinical trial to identify patients who benefited most from antibiotics for COPD exacerbations.⁵

COPD exacerbation: an acute worsening of respiratory symptoms

Despite these caveats regarding a definition, most clinicians agree on the clinical presentation of a patient with COPD exacerbation: ie, having some combination of shortness of breath, increased sputum volume, and purulence. By the same token, patients with COPD who present with symptoms not typical of an exacerbation should be evaluated for another diagnosis. For instance, Tillie-Leblond et al⁶ reported that 49 (25%) of 197 patients hospitalized with an “unexplained” exacerbation of COPD were eventually diagnosed with pulmonary embolism.

EXACERBATIONS ARE COSTLY

The care of patients with COPD places a great burden on the healthcare system. Using multiple national databases, Ford et al⁷ estimated that medical costs in the United States in 2010 attributable to COPD and its complications were $32.1 billion.

The largest component of direct healthcare costs of COPD is exacerbations and subsequent hospitalizations.⁸ Data from a predominantly Medicare population indicate that the annualized mean COPD-related cost for a patient with no exacerbations was $1,425, compared with $12,765 for a patient with severe exacerbations.⁹ The investigators estimated that reducing exacerbations from two or more to none could save $5,125 per patient per year.

EXACERBATIONS AFFECT HEALTH BEYOND THE EVENT

COPD exacerbations are associated with a faster decline in lung function,¹⁰ reduced quality of life,¹¹ and lost workdays.⁷ A single exacerbation may cause a decline in lung function and health status that may not return to baseline for several months, particularly if another exacerbation occurs within 6 months.^12,13 COPD exacerbations have also been linked to poor clinical outcomes, including death.

In a prospective study in 304 men with COPD followed for 5 years, those who had three or more COPD exacerbations annually were four times as likely to die than patients who did not have an exacerbation.¹⁴ Nevertheless, the relationship with mortality may not be causal: Brusselle pointed out in an editorial¹⁵ that established mortality predictors for COPD do not include exacerbations, and symptomatic patients with COPD without any history of exacerbations are at greater risk of death than those who are asymptomatic but at high risk for exacerbations.

INFECTION + INFLAMMATION = EXACERBATION

An acute COPD exacerbation can be viewed as an acute inflammatory event superimposed on chronic inflammation associated with COPD. Inflammation in the airways increases resistance to air flow with consequent air trapping. Increased resistance and elastic load due to air trapping place respiratory muscles at a mechanical disadvantage and increase the work of breathing.

Infection starts the process

Infections are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation

Infections, particularly bacterial and viral, are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation, although environmental factors such as air pollution may also play a role.¹⁶

Airway inflammation is markedly reduced when bacterial infection is eradicated. But if bacterial colonization continues, inflammatory markers remain elevated despite clinical resolution of the exacerbation.¹⁷ Desai et al¹⁸ found that patients with COPD and chronic bronchitis with bacterial colonization had a larger symptom burden than patients without colonization, even without an exacerbation.

Allergic profile increases risk

Although most studies indicate that infection is the main cause of exacerbations, clinicians should consider other mechanisms of inflammation on an individual basis. COPD exacerbations may be phenotyped by measuring inflammatory markers, perhaps as a starting point for tailored therapies.

Bafadhel et al¹⁹ studied 145 patients with COPD over the course of a year and recorded various biomarkers at baseline and during exacerbations. Exacerbations had an inflammatory profile that was predominantly bacterial in 37%, viral in 10%, and eosinophilic in 17%, and had limited changes in the inflammatory profile in 14%. The remaining episodes were combinations of categories. In another study,²⁰ multivariate analysis conducted in two cohorts with COPD found that patients who had an allergic phenotype had more respiratory symptoms and a higher likelihood of COPD exacerbations.

Frequent COPD exacerbations are increasingly recognized as being associated with an asthma-COPD overlap syndrome, consisting of symptoms of increased airflow variability and incompletely reversible airflow obstruction.²¹

Inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations

Evidence is accumulating that supports systemic inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations. The Copenhagen Heart Study tested for baseline plasma C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, and white blood cell count in 6,574 stable patients with COPD.²² After multivariable adjustment, they found a significantly higher likelihood of having a subsequent exacerbation in patients who had all three biomarkers elevated (odds ratio [OR] 3.7, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.9–7.4), even in patients with milder COPD and those without previous exacerbations.

Past exacerbations predict risk

A history of exacerbation is the best predictor of future exacerbation

The Evaluation of COPD Longitudinally to Identify Predictive Surrogate Endpoints study²³ found that a history of acute COPD exacerbation was the single best predictor of future exacerbations. This risk factor remained stable over 3 years and was present across the severity of COPD, ie, patients at lower GOLD stages who had a history of frequent exacerbations were likely to have exacerbations during follow-up.

EXACERBATION INCREASES CARDIOVASCULAR RISK

COPD exacerbations increase the risk of cardiovascular events, particularly myocardial infarction.²⁴ During hospitalization for acute exacerbation of COPD, markers of myocardial injury and heart failure may be elevated and are a predictor of death.²⁵

Patel et al²⁶ measured arterial stiffness (aortic pulse wave velocity, a validated measure of cardiovascular risk) and cardiac biomarkers (troponin and N-terminal B-type natriuretic peptide) at baseline in 98 patients and longitudinally during and after a COPD exacerbation. In addition to increased levels of cardiac biomarkers, they found a significant rise in arterial stiffness during the exacerbation event without return to baseline levels over 35 days of follow-up. The arterial stiffness increase was related to airway inflammation as measured by sputum interleukin 6, particularly in patients with documented lower respiratory tract infection.

Retrospective analysis suggests a reduced all-cause mortality rate in COPD patients who are treated with beta-blockers.²⁷

Recommendation. We recommend that patients already taking a selective beta-blocker continue to do so during a COPD exacerbation.

OUTPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Treatment with a combination of a corticosteroid, antibiotic, and bronchodilator addresses the underlying pathophysiologic processes of an acute exacerbation: inflammation, infection, and airway trapping.

Short course of a corticosteroid improves outcomes

A single exacerbation may worsen health status for several months

A 10-day systemic course of a corticosteroid prescribed for COPD exacerbation before discharge from the emergency department was found to offer a small advantage over placebo for reducing treatment failure (unscheduled physician visits, return to emergency room for recurrent symptoms) and improving dyspnea scores and lung function.²⁸ Even just a 3-day course improved measures of respiration (forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration [FEV₁] and arterial oxygenation) at days 3 and 10, and reduced treatment failures compared with placebo.²⁹

Corticosteroid prescription should not be taken lightly, because adverse effects are common. In a systematic review, one adverse effect (hyperglycemia, weight gain, or insomnia) occurred for every five people treated.³⁰

Identifying subgroups of patients most likely to benefit from corticosteroid treatment may be helpful. Corticosteroids may delay improvement in patients without eosinophilic inflammation and hasten recovery in those with more than 2% peripheral eosinophils.³¹ Siva et al³² found that limiting corticosteroids to patients with sputum eosinophilia reduced corticosteroid use and reduced severe exacerbations compared with standard care.³²

Recommendation. For an acute exacerbation, we prescribe a short course of corticosteroids (eg, prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 to 7 days). Tapering dosing is probably unnecessary because adrenal insufficiency is uncommon before 2 weeks of corticosteroid exposure. Clinicians should weigh the merits of tapering (reduced corticosteroid exposure) against patient inconvenience and difficulty following complicated instructions.

Antibiotics help, but exact strategy uncertain

Although antibiotic therapy is one of the three pillars of COPD exacerbation management, the optimal antimicrobial agent, duration of therapy, and which patients will benefit remain areas of controversy and research. Thus far, large trials have been unable to definitely show the superiority of one antibiotic over another.^33,34

A 1987 randomized controlled trial⁵ of antibiotic therapy in acute exacerbation of COPD found the greatest benefit to patients who had all three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence), with less marked but still significant improvement in patients with two symptoms. In a 2012 multicenter trial³⁵ patients with mild to moderate COPD experiencing an exacerbation were treated with either combined amoxicillin and clavulanate or placebo if they had one of the three cardinal symptoms. The antibiotic group had a significantly higher clinical cure rate at days 9 to 11 (74.1% vs 59.9%) as well as a longer time until the next exacerbation (233 vs 160 days).

Recommendation. Optimal antibiotic management of COPD exacerbations may also depend on risk factors. For patients with at least two cardinal symptoms, we favor a scheme akin to one proposed for treating community-acquired pneumonia (Table 1).^16,36

INPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Corticosteroids improve outcomes

A Department of Veterans Affairs cooperative trial³⁷ randomized 271 patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation to receive either corticosteroids (intravenous followed by oral) or placebo for either 2 weeks or 8 weeks. Corticosteroid recipients had lower rates of treatment failure at 30 and 90 days, defined as death from any cause, need for mechanical ventilation, readmission, or intensification of pharmacologic therapy. Corticosteroid therapy also reduced hospital length of stay and improved the rate of recovery. The longer corticosteroid course was associated with a higher rate of adverse effects.

Oral corticosteroids not inferior to intravenous

Using the same end point of treatment failure as the Veterans Affairs cooperative trial, deJong et al³⁸ demonstrated that prednisone 60 mg by mouth was not inferior to intravenous prednisone. Neither trial demonstrated a difference in mortality between corticosteroid use and placebo.

Short course of a corticosteroid not inferior to a long course

In 2013, the Reduction in the Use of Corticosteroids in Exacerbated COPD (REDUCE) trial³⁹ randomized 314 patients presenting with an acute COPD exacerbation (92% requiring hospital admission) to oral prednisone 40 mg daily for either 5 days or 14 days. They found that the short course was noninferior in preventing exacerbations over the ensuing 6 months in terms of death and the need for mechanical ventilation.

Recommendation. Our threshold for initiating systemic corticosteroid therapy is lower in hospitalized patients than in outpatients. We recommend the regimen of the REDUCE trial: prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days.

Corticosteroids for patients on ventilatory support

Severe COPD exacerbations requiring admission to intensive care are a significant source of morbidity and mortality, and the strategy of corticosteroid treatment is still under investigation.

Intravenous corticosteroids are effective. A multicenter trial⁴⁰ in 354 patients requiring either invasive or noninvasive mechanical ventilation randomized them to treatment with either intravenous methylprednisolone (tapered) or placebo. Treatment was associated with fewer mechanical ventilation days and a lower rate of noninvasive ventilation failure.

Low-dose oral corticosteroids ineffective. In contrast, an open-label trial⁴¹ of patients requiring ventilatory support and randomized to either oral prednisone (1 mg/kg for up to 10 days) or usual care found no difference in intensive care length of stay or noninvasive ventilation failure. This study used the oral route and smaller doses, and its open-label design might have introduced bias.

Lower-dose steroids better than high-dose. A 2014 cohort study of 17,239 patients admitted to the ICU with acute exacerbations of COPD evaluated outcomes of treatment with high methylprednisolone dosages (> 240 mg per day) vs lower dosages, using propensity score matching.⁴² No mortality difference was found between the groups. The lower dosage group (median methylprednisolone dose 100 mg per day) had shorter hospital and intensive care unit stays, shorter duration of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, less need for insulin therapy, and fewer fungal infections.

Antibiotics for hospitalized patients

Only scarce data are available on the use of antibiotics for patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation. In a study of patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbations, adding doxycycline to corticosteroids led to better clinical success and cure rates at 10 days compared with placebo, but the primary end point of clinical success at 30 days was not different between the two groups.⁴³

BRONCHODILATORS: A MAINSTAY OF COPD TREATMENT

Bronchodilators are an important part of treatment of COPD exacerbations in inpatient and outpatient settings.

Nebulized beta-2 agonists are given every 1 to 4 hours. Albuterol at a 2.5-mg dose in each nebulization was found to be as effective as 5 mg for length of hospital stay and recovery of lung function in patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD.⁴⁴

Adding an anticholinergic may help. Nebulized anticholinergics can be given alone or combined with beta-2 agonists. Whether long-acting bronchodilators should be used to manage COPD patients hospitalized with an exacerbation requires further inquiry. In an observational study with historical controls, Drescher and colleagues⁴⁵ found cost savings and shorter hospital stays if tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) was added to the respiratory care protocol, which also included formoterol (a long-acting beta-2 agonist).

OXYGEN: TITRATED APPROACH SAFER

Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia in patients on oxygen

Oxygen should be supplied during a COPD exacerbation to ensure adequate oxyhemoglobin saturation. Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia, particularly in patients with severe COPD and propensity to ventilatory failure. The routine administration of oxygen at high concentrations during a COPD exacerbation has been associated with a higher mortality rate than with a titrated oxygen approach.⁴⁶ Long-term oxygen treatment started at discharge or as outpatient therapy is associated with reduced hospital admissions and shorter hospital stays for acute exacerbations of COPD.⁴⁷

VENTILATION SUPPORT

Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is a useful adjunct to treatment of COPD exacerbations with evidence of ventilatory failure (ie, acute respiratory acidosis), helping to offset the work of breathing until respiratory system mechanics improve. Keenan et al⁴⁸ reviewed 15 randomized controlled trials, involving 636 patients, of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation in the setting of COPD exacerbation. They concluded that noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation reduced the in-hospital mortality rate and length of stay compared with standard therapy. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is most useful in patients with severe COPD exacerbations and acute respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35).⁴⁹

Intubation and mechanical ventilation. Although no standards exist for determining which COPD exacerbations may be too severe for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation, intubation is clearly indicated for impending respiratory failure or hemodynamic instability. Other factors to consider include the greater likelihood of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation failure in patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25 is associated with a > 50% failure rate) and in those with no improvement in acidosis or respiratory rate during the first hour after initiation of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.⁵⁰

PREVENTING EXACERBATIONS

Recent data indicate that COPD exacerbations can often be prevented (Table 2).

Inhaled pharmacotherapy

Inhaled pharmacotherapeutic agents, singly or in combination, reduce the frequency of COPD exacerbations.

Combined long-acting beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid is better than single-agent therapy. In 2007, the Towards a Revolution in COPD Health (TORCH) trial⁵¹ evaluated outpatient therapy in more than 6,000 patients worldwide with either an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (salmeterol), an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone), both drugs in combination, or placebo. Patients had baseline prebronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 60% and were followed for 3 years. No difference was found between the groups in the primary end point of deaths, but the annualized rate of moderate to severe exacerbations was reduced by 25% in the group that received combination therapy vs placebo. Combination therapy showed superior efficacy over individual drug therapy in preventing exacerbations. Treatment with the inhaled corticosteroid, whether alone or in combination with salmeterol, increased the risk of pneumonia.

A long-acting antimuscarinic agent is better than placebo. In 2008, the Understanding Potential Long-Term Impacts on Function With Tiotropium (UPLIFT) trial⁵² randomized nearly 6,000 patients with COPD and a postbronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 70% to placebo or tiotropium, a long-acting antimuscarinic agent. Tiotropium reduced the exacerbation rate by 14% compared with placebo and improved quality of life.

Antimuscarinics may be better than beta-2 agonists. Head-to-head comparisons suggest that long-acting antimuscarinic agents are preferable to long-acting beta-2 agonists for preventing COPD exacerbations.^53,54

Triple therapy: evidence is mixed. For patients with severe symptomatic COPD and frequent exacerbations, triple therapy with a combination of an inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent, an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and an inhaled corticosteroid has been suggested.

Data to support this practice are limited. In the Canadian Optimal Trial,⁵⁵ the rate of exacerbations was not different between tiotropium alone, tiotropium plus salmeterol, and triple therapy. However, the rate of hospitalization for severe exacerbation was lower with triple therapy than tiotropium alone. A large, retrospective cohort study also supported triple therapy by finding reduced mortality, hospitalizations, and need for oral corticosteroid bursts compared to combination therapy with an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid.⁵⁶

The drawback of triple therapy is an increased incidence of pneumonia associated with combined beta-2 agonist and corticosteroids, most likely due to the corticosteroid component.⁵¹ The risk appears to be higher for higher potency corticosteroids, eg, fluticasone.⁵⁷

In 2014, the Withdrawal of Inhaled Steroids During Optimised Bronchodilator Management (WISDOM) trial⁵⁸ randomized nearly 2,500 patients with a history of COPD exacerbation receiving triple therapy consisting of tiotropium, salmeterol, and inhaled fluticasone to either continue treatment or withdraw the corticosteroid for 3 months. The investigators defined an annualized exacerbation rate of 1.2 (ie, a 20% increase) as the upper limit of the confidence interval for an acceptable therapeutic margin of noninferiority. The study showed that the risk of moderate to severe exacerbations with combined tiotropium and salmeterol was noninferior to triple therapy.

Nevertheless, caution is advised when removing the corticosteroid component from triple therapy. The trial demonstrated a worsening in overall health status, some reduction in lung function, and a transient increase in severe exacerbations in the withdrawal group. Patients with increased symptom burden at baseline and a history of severe exacerbations may not be optimal candidates for this strategy.

Roflumilast is effective but has side effects

Roflumilast, an oral phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor, is an anti-inflammatory drug without bronchodilator properties. In randomized controlled trials, the drug was associated with a 17% reduction in acute exacerbations compared with placebo.⁵⁹

Adding roflumilast to either a long-acting beta-2 agonist or a long-acting antimuscarinic agent resulted in a 6% to 8% further reduction in the proportion of patients with exacerbation.^60,61 Martinez et al⁶¹ found that roflumilast added to a regimen of a long-acting beta-2 agonist plus an inhaled corticosteroid reduced moderate to severe exacerbations by 14.2%, even in the presence of tiotropium. Compared with placebo, roflumilast treatment reduced exacerbations necessitating hospitalizations by 23.9%.

The FDA has approved oral roflumilast 500 µg once daily to prevent COPD exacerbations.

Roflumilast is frequently associated with side effects, including gastrointestinal symptoms (chiefly diarrhea), weight loss, and psychiatric effects. A benefit-to-harm study in 2014 concluded that using the drug is only favorable for patients who have a high risk of severe exacerbations, ie, those who have a greater than 22% baseline risk of having at least one exacerbation annually.⁶²

Recommendation. Roflumilast should be reserved for patients who have severe COPD with a chronic bronchitis phenotype (ie, with cough and sputum production) and repeated exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, long-acting beta-2 agonist, and long-acting antimuscarinic agent.

Macrolide antibiotics: Role unclear

Macrolide antibiotics have anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities.

Azithromycin: fewer exacerbations but some side effects. A multicenter trial⁶³ in 1,142 COPD patients randomized to either oral azithromycin 250 mg daily or placebo found a 27% reduction in the risk of COPD exacerbation in the intervention arm. No differences were found between the groups in mortality, hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or respiratory failure. Hearing loss and increased macrolide resistance were noted in the intervention arm. In a secondary subgroup analysis,⁶⁴ no difference in efficacy was found by sex, history of chronic bronchitis, oxygen use, or concomitant COPD treatment.

The COPD: Influence of Macrolides on Exacerbation Frequency in Patients trial⁶⁵ helped refine patient selection for macrolide therapy. In this single-center study, 92 patients with COPD and at least three exacerbations during the year prior to enrollment were randomized to receive either azithromycin 500 mg three times weekly or placebo. Exacerbations in the intervention group were markedly reduced (42%) with no difference in hospitalization rate.

The place of macrolide antibiotics in the treatment strategy of COPD is unclear, and they are not currently part of the GOLD guidelines. Still unknown is the incremental benefit of adding them to existing preventive regimens, cardiovascular safety, side effects, and potential effects on the resident microbial flora. 

Other antibiotics have also been investigated for efficacy in preventing exacerbations.

Moxifloxacin: fewer exacerbations. The Pulsed Moxifloxacin Usage and Its Long-term Impact on the Reduction of Subsequent Exacerbations study⁶⁶ randomized more than 1,000 patients with stable COPD to receive either moxifloxacin 400 mg or placebo daily for 5 days repeated every 8 weeks for six courses. Frequent assessment during the treatment period and for 6 months afterward revealed a reduced exacerbation rate in the intervention group but without benefit in hospitalization rate, mortality, lung function, or health status.

Recommendation. Azithromycin (either 250 mg daily or 500 mg three times weekly) can be considered for patients who have repeated COPD exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent. The need to continue azithromycin should be reassessed yearly.

Mucolytics

Greatest benefit to patients not taking inhaled corticosteroids. Mucolytic agents help clear airway secretions by reducing viscosity. N-acetylcysteine and carbocysteine (not available in the United States) also have antioxidant properties that may counteract oxidant stress associated with acute COPD exacerbations.

The Bronchitis Randomized on NAC Cost-Utility Study (BRONCUS)⁶⁷ randomized 523 COPD patients to N-acetylcysteine 600 mg daily or placebo. After 3 years of follow-up, no differences were found in the rate of exacerbations, lung function decline, and quality of life. Subgroup analysis suggested a reduction in exacerbations for patients who were not taking inhaled corticosteroids.

The Effect of Carbocisteine on Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PEACE) study randomized more than 700 patients from multiple centers in China who had COPD and a recent history of exacerbations; they found a 25% lower exacerbation rate over 1 year with carbocysteine vs placebo.⁶⁸ Most of the patients (83%) were not on inhaled corticosteroids, which complemented findings of the BRONCUS trial.

The Effect of High Dose N-acetylcysteine on Air Trapping and Airway Resistance of COPD (HIACE) study randomized 120 patients with stable COPD in a hospital in Hong Kong to either oral N-acetylcysteine (600 mg twice daily) or placebo and found a reduced exacerbation rate of exacerbations. Patients were matched at baseline for inhaled corticosteroid use.⁶⁹

In 2014, the Twice Daily N-acetylcysteine 600 mg for Exacerbations of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PANTHEON) study⁷⁰ randomized 1,006 patients from multiple hospitals in China with a history of moderate to severe COPD and exacerbations to receive either N-acetylcysteine 600 mg twice daily or placebo for 1 year. They found a 22% reduction in exacerbations in the treatment group vs placebo.  

GOLD guidelines² recommend mucolytics for patients with severe COPD and exacerbations when inhaled corticosteroids are not available or affordable.

Recommendation. Mucolytics may be useful for patients with difficulty expectorating and with a history of exacerbations despite appropriate inhaled therapy.

OTHER INTERVENTIONS CAN HELP

Pulmonary rehabilitation provides multiple benefits

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptoms

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptom burden in patients with stable COPD. It is also a multidisciplinary effort that may help reinforce adherence to medications, enhance COPD education, and provide closer medical surveillance to patients at high risk for recurrent exacerbations.

A small randomized controlled trial⁷¹ prescribed pulmonary rehabilitation on discharge for a COPD exacerbation and found sustainable improvements in exercise capacity and health status after 3 months.

In a later study,⁷² the same group started pulmonary rehabilitation within a week of hospital discharge and found reduced hospital readmissions over a 3-month period.

Smoking cessation is always worth advocating

A large observational cohort study concluded that current smokers were at a higher risk for COPD exacerbations compared with former smokers.⁷³ Although there are no randomized controlled trials that assess the effects of smoking cessation at the time of COPD exacerbation, we recommend seizing the opportunity to implement this important intervention.

Vaccinations: Influenza and pneumococcal

Influenza vaccination is associated with reduced incidence of hospitalization among patients with cardiopulmonary disease.⁷⁴ A meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials of influenza vaccination for patients with COPD⁷⁵ reported significantly fewer exacerbations from vaccination, mostly owing to fewer episodes occurring after 3 to 4 weeks, coinciding with anticipated vaccine-induced immune protection. Furumoto and colleagues⁷⁶ reported an added benefit of combined vaccination with 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine and influenza vaccine in reducing hospital admissions over influenza vaccination alone. We also recommend providing the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine to patients with COPD, particularly for those older than 65, consistent with CDC recommendations.⁷⁷

In contrast to stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),¹ acute exacerbations of COPD pose special management challenges and can significantly increase the risk of morbidity and death and the cost of care.

This review addresses the definition and diagnosis of COPD exacerbations, disease burden and costs, etiology and pathogenesis, and management and prevention strategies.

DEFINITIONS ARE PROBLEMATIC

The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) defines a COPD exacer­bation as “an acute event characterized by a worsening of the patient’s respiratory symptoms that is beyond normal day-to-day variations and leads to a change in medication.”² It further categorizes acute exacerbations by severity:

• Mild—treated with increased frequency of doses of existing medications
• Moderate—treated with corticosteroids or antibiotics, or both
• Severe—requires hospital utilization (either emergency room treatment or admission).

Although descriptive and useful for retrospective analyses, this current definition poses ambiguities for clinicians. Day-to-day variation in symptoms is not routinely assessed, so deviations from baseline may be difficult to detect. Although clinical tools are available for assessing symptoms in stable and exacerbated states (eg, the COPD assessment test³ and the Exacerbations of Chronic Pulmonary Disease Tool [EXACT]⁴), they have not been widely adopted in daily practice. Also, according to the current definition, the severity of an exacerbation can be classified only after the course of action is determined, so the severity is not helpful for forming a management strategy at bedside. In addition, physicians may have different thresholds for prescribing antibiotics and corticosteroids.

An earlier definition categorized a COPD exacerbation by the presence of its three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence):

• Type I—all three symptoms present
• Type II—two symptoms present
• Type III—one symptom present, accompanied by at least one of the following: upper respiratory tract infection within the past 5 days, unexplained fever, increased wheezing or cough, or 20% increased respiratory rate or heart rate from baseline.

This older definition was successfully used in a prospective clinical trial to identify patients who benefited most from antibiotics for COPD exacerbations.⁵

COPD exacerbation: an acute worsening of respiratory symptoms

Despite these caveats regarding a definition, most clinicians agree on the clinical presentation of a patient with COPD exacerbation: ie, having some combination of shortness of breath, increased sputum volume, and purulence. By the same token, patients with COPD who present with symptoms not typical of an exacerbation should be evaluated for another diagnosis. For instance, Tillie-Leblond et al⁶ reported that 49 (25%) of 197 patients hospitalized with an “unexplained” exacerbation of COPD were eventually diagnosed with pulmonary embolism.

EXACERBATIONS ARE COSTLY

The care of patients with COPD places a great burden on the healthcare system. Using multiple national databases, Ford et al⁷ estimated that medical costs in the United States in 2010 attributable to COPD and its complications were $32.1 billion.

The largest component of direct healthcare costs of COPD is exacerbations and subsequent hospitalizations.⁸ Data from a predominantly Medicare population indicate that the annualized mean COPD-related cost for a patient with no exacerbations was $1,425, compared with $12,765 for a patient with severe exacerbations.⁹ The investigators estimated that reducing exacerbations from two or more to none could save $5,125 per patient per year.

EXACERBATIONS AFFECT HEALTH BEYOND THE EVENT

COPD exacerbations are associated with a faster decline in lung function,¹⁰ reduced quality of life,¹¹ and lost workdays.⁷ A single exacerbation may cause a decline in lung function and health status that may not return to baseline for several months, particularly if another exacerbation occurs within 6 months.^12,13 COPD exacerbations have also been linked to poor clinical outcomes, including death.

In a prospective study in 304 men with COPD followed for 5 years, those who had three or more COPD exacerbations annually were four times as likely to die than patients who did not have an exacerbation.¹⁴ Nevertheless, the relationship with mortality may not be causal: Brusselle pointed out in an editorial¹⁵ that established mortality predictors for COPD do not include exacerbations, and symptomatic patients with COPD without any history of exacerbations are at greater risk of death than those who are asymptomatic but at high risk for exacerbations.

INFECTION + INFLAMMATION = EXACERBATION

An acute COPD exacerbation can be viewed as an acute inflammatory event superimposed on chronic inflammation associated with COPD. Inflammation in the airways increases resistance to air flow with consequent air trapping. Increased resistance and elastic load due to air trapping place respiratory muscles at a mechanical disadvantage and increase the work of breathing.

Infection starts the process

Infections are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation

Infections, particularly bacterial and viral, are thought to be the major instigators of COPD exacerbation, although environmental factors such as air pollution may also play a role.¹⁶

Airway inflammation is markedly reduced when bacterial infection is eradicated. But if bacterial colonization continues, inflammatory markers remain elevated despite clinical resolution of the exacerbation.¹⁷ Desai et al¹⁸ found that patients with COPD and chronic bronchitis with bacterial colonization had a larger symptom burden than patients without colonization, even without an exacerbation.

Allergic profile increases risk

Although most studies indicate that infection is the main cause of exacerbations, clinicians should consider other mechanisms of inflammation on an individual basis. COPD exacerbations may be phenotyped by measuring inflammatory markers, perhaps as a starting point for tailored therapies.

Bafadhel et al¹⁹ studied 145 patients with COPD over the course of a year and recorded various biomarkers at baseline and during exacerbations. Exacerbations had an inflammatory profile that was predominantly bacterial in 37%, viral in 10%, and eosinophilic in 17%, and had limited changes in the inflammatory profile in 14%. The remaining episodes were combinations of categories. In another study,²⁰ multivariate analysis conducted in two cohorts with COPD found that patients who had an allergic phenotype had more respiratory symptoms and a higher likelihood of COPD exacerbations.

Frequent COPD exacerbations are increasingly recognized as being associated with an asthma-COPD overlap syndrome, consisting of symptoms of increased airflow variability and incompletely reversible airflow obstruction.²¹

Inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations

Evidence is accumulating that supports systemic inflammation as a marker of frequent exacerbations. The Copenhagen Heart Study tested for baseline plasma C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, and white blood cell count in 6,574 stable patients with COPD.²² After multivariable adjustment, they found a significantly higher likelihood of having a subsequent exacerbation in patients who had all three biomarkers elevated (odds ratio [OR] 3.7, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.9–7.4), even in patients with milder COPD and those without previous exacerbations.

Past exacerbations predict risk

A history of exacerbation is the best predictor of future exacerbation

The Evaluation of COPD Longitudinally to Identify Predictive Surrogate Endpoints study²³ found that a history of acute COPD exacerbation was the single best predictor of future exacerbations. This risk factor remained stable over 3 years and was present across the severity of COPD, ie, patients at lower GOLD stages who had a history of frequent exacerbations were likely to have exacerbations during follow-up.

EXACERBATION INCREASES CARDIOVASCULAR RISK

COPD exacerbations increase the risk of cardiovascular events, particularly myocardial infarction.²⁴ During hospitalization for acute exacerbation of COPD, markers of myocardial injury and heart failure may be elevated and are a predictor of death.²⁵

Patel et al²⁶ measured arterial stiffness (aortic pulse wave velocity, a validated measure of cardiovascular risk) and cardiac biomarkers (troponin and N-terminal B-type natriuretic peptide) at baseline in 98 patients and longitudinally during and after a COPD exacerbation. In addition to increased levels of cardiac biomarkers, they found a significant rise in arterial stiffness during the exacerbation event without return to baseline levels over 35 days of follow-up. The arterial stiffness increase was related to airway inflammation as measured by sputum interleukin 6, particularly in patients with documented lower respiratory tract infection.

Retrospective analysis suggests a reduced all-cause mortality rate in COPD patients who are treated with beta-blockers.²⁷

Recommendation. We recommend that patients already taking a selective beta-blocker continue to do so during a COPD exacerbation.

OUTPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Treatment with a combination of a corticosteroid, antibiotic, and bronchodilator addresses the underlying pathophysiologic processes of an acute exacerbation: inflammation, infection, and airway trapping.

Short course of a corticosteroid improves outcomes

A single exacerbation may worsen health status for several months

A 10-day systemic course of a corticosteroid prescribed for COPD exacerbation before discharge from the emergency department was found to offer a small advantage over placebo for reducing treatment failure (unscheduled physician visits, return to emergency room for recurrent symptoms) and improving dyspnea scores and lung function.²⁸ Even just a 3-day course improved measures of respiration (forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration [FEV₁] and arterial oxygenation) at days 3 and 10, and reduced treatment failures compared with placebo.²⁹

Corticosteroid prescription should not be taken lightly, because adverse effects are common. In a systematic review, one adverse effect (hyperglycemia, weight gain, or insomnia) occurred for every five people treated.³⁰

Identifying subgroups of patients most likely to benefit from corticosteroid treatment may be helpful. Corticosteroids may delay improvement in patients without eosinophilic inflammation and hasten recovery in those with more than 2% peripheral eosinophils.³¹ Siva et al³² found that limiting corticosteroids to patients with sputum eosinophilia reduced corticosteroid use and reduced severe exacerbations compared with standard care.³²

Recommendation. For an acute exacerbation, we prescribe a short course of corticosteroids (eg, prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 to 7 days). Tapering dosing is probably unnecessary because adrenal insufficiency is uncommon before 2 weeks of corticosteroid exposure. Clinicians should weigh the merits of tapering (reduced corticosteroid exposure) against patient inconvenience and difficulty following complicated instructions.

Antibiotics help, but exact strategy uncertain

Although antibiotic therapy is one of the three pillars of COPD exacerbation management, the optimal antimicrobial agent, duration of therapy, and which patients will benefit remain areas of controversy and research. Thus far, large trials have been unable to definitely show the superiority of one antibiotic over another.^33,34

A 1987 randomized controlled trial⁵ of antibiotic therapy in acute exacerbation of COPD found the greatest benefit to patients who had all three cardinal symptoms (ie, increased shortness of breath, sputum volume, and purulence), with less marked but still significant improvement in patients with two symptoms. In a 2012 multicenter trial³⁵ patients with mild to moderate COPD experiencing an exacerbation were treated with either combined amoxicillin and clavulanate or placebo if they had one of the three cardinal symptoms. The antibiotic group had a significantly higher clinical cure rate at days 9 to 11 (74.1% vs 59.9%) as well as a longer time until the next exacerbation (233 vs 160 days).

Recommendation. Optimal antibiotic management of COPD exacerbations may also depend on risk factors. For patients with at least two cardinal symptoms, we favor a scheme akin to one proposed for treating community-acquired pneumonia (Table 1).^16,36

INPATIENT MANAGEMENT

Corticosteroids improve outcomes

A Department of Veterans Affairs cooperative trial³⁷ randomized 271 patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation to receive either corticosteroids (intravenous followed by oral) or placebo for either 2 weeks or 8 weeks. Corticosteroid recipients had lower rates of treatment failure at 30 and 90 days, defined as death from any cause, need for mechanical ventilation, readmission, or intensification of pharmacologic therapy. Corticosteroid therapy also reduced hospital length of stay and improved the rate of recovery. The longer corticosteroid course was associated with a higher rate of adverse effects.

Oral corticosteroids not inferior to intravenous

Using the same end point of treatment failure as the Veterans Affairs cooperative trial, deJong et al³⁸ demonstrated that prednisone 60 mg by mouth was not inferior to intravenous prednisone. Neither trial demonstrated a difference in mortality between corticosteroid use and placebo.

Short course of a corticosteroid not inferior to a long course

In 2013, the Reduction in the Use of Corticosteroids in Exacerbated COPD (REDUCE) trial³⁹ randomized 314 patients presenting with an acute COPD exacerbation (92% requiring hospital admission) to oral prednisone 40 mg daily for either 5 days or 14 days. They found that the short course was noninferior in preventing exacerbations over the ensuing 6 months in terms of death and the need for mechanical ventilation.

Recommendation. Our threshold for initiating systemic corticosteroid therapy is lower in hospitalized patients than in outpatients. We recommend the regimen of the REDUCE trial: prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days.

Corticosteroids for patients on ventilatory support

Severe COPD exacerbations requiring admission to intensive care are a significant source of morbidity and mortality, and the strategy of corticosteroid treatment is still under investigation.

Intravenous corticosteroids are effective. A multicenter trial⁴⁰ in 354 patients requiring either invasive or noninvasive mechanical ventilation randomized them to treatment with either intravenous methylprednisolone (tapered) or placebo. Treatment was associated with fewer mechanical ventilation days and a lower rate of noninvasive ventilation failure.

Low-dose oral corticosteroids ineffective. In contrast, an open-label trial⁴¹ of patients requiring ventilatory support and randomized to either oral prednisone (1 mg/kg for up to 10 days) or usual care found no difference in intensive care length of stay or noninvasive ventilation failure. This study used the oral route and smaller doses, and its open-label design might have introduced bias.

Lower-dose steroids better than high-dose. A 2014 cohort study of 17,239 patients admitted to the ICU with acute exacerbations of COPD evaluated outcomes of treatment with high methylprednisolone dosages (> 240 mg per day) vs lower dosages, using propensity score matching.⁴² No mortality difference was found between the groups. The lower dosage group (median methylprednisolone dose 100 mg per day) had shorter hospital and intensive care unit stays, shorter duration of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, less need for insulin therapy, and fewer fungal infections.

Antibiotics for hospitalized patients

Only scarce data are available on the use of antibiotics for patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbation. In a study of patients hospitalized with COPD exacerbations, adding doxycycline to corticosteroids led to better clinical success and cure rates at 10 days compared with placebo, but the primary end point of clinical success at 30 days was not different between the two groups.⁴³

BRONCHODILATORS: A MAINSTAY OF COPD TREATMENT

Bronchodilators are an important part of treatment of COPD exacerbations in inpatient and outpatient settings.

Nebulized beta-2 agonists are given every 1 to 4 hours. Albuterol at a 2.5-mg dose in each nebulization was found to be as effective as 5 mg for length of hospital stay and recovery of lung function in patients with an acute exacerbation of COPD.⁴⁴

Adding an anticholinergic may help. Nebulized anticholinergics can be given alone or combined with beta-2 agonists. Whether long-acting bronchodilators should be used to manage COPD patients hospitalized with an exacerbation requires further inquiry. In an observational study with historical controls, Drescher and colleagues⁴⁵ found cost savings and shorter hospital stays if tiotropium (a long-acting anticholinergic) was added to the respiratory care protocol, which also included formoterol (a long-acting beta-2 agonist).

OXYGEN: TITRATED APPROACH SAFER

Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia in patients on oxygen

Oxygen should be supplied during a COPD exacerbation to ensure adequate oxyhemoglobin saturation. Caution is needed to avoid hyperoxemic hypercapnia, particularly in patients with severe COPD and propensity to ventilatory failure. The routine administration of oxygen at high concentrations during a COPD exacerbation has been associated with a higher mortality rate than with a titrated oxygen approach.⁴⁶ Long-term oxygen treatment started at discharge or as outpatient therapy is associated with reduced hospital admissions and shorter hospital stays for acute exacerbations of COPD.⁴⁷

VENTILATION SUPPORT

Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is a useful adjunct to treatment of COPD exacerbations with evidence of ventilatory failure (ie, acute respiratory acidosis), helping to offset the work of breathing until respiratory system mechanics improve. Keenan et al⁴⁸ reviewed 15 randomized controlled trials, involving 636 patients, of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation in the setting of COPD exacerbation. They concluded that noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation reduced the in-hospital mortality rate and length of stay compared with standard therapy. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation is most useful in patients with severe COPD exacerbations and acute respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35).⁴⁹

Intubation and mechanical ventilation. Although no standards exist for determining which COPD exacerbations may be too severe for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation, intubation is clearly indicated for impending respiratory failure or hemodynamic instability. Other factors to consider include the greater likelihood of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation failure in patients with severe respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.25 is associated with a > 50% failure rate) and in those with no improvement in acidosis or respiratory rate during the first hour after initiation of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.⁵⁰

PREVENTING EXACERBATIONS

Recent data indicate that COPD exacerbations can often be prevented (Table 2).

Inhaled pharmacotherapy

Inhaled pharmacotherapeutic agents, singly or in combination, reduce the frequency of COPD exacerbations.

Combined long-acting beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid is better than single-agent therapy. In 2007, the Towards a Revolution in COPD Health (TORCH) trial⁵¹ evaluated outpatient therapy in more than 6,000 patients worldwide with either an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (salmeterol), an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone), both drugs in combination, or placebo. Patients had baseline prebronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 60% and were followed for 3 years. No difference was found between the groups in the primary end point of deaths, but the annualized rate of moderate to severe exacerbations was reduced by 25% in the group that received combination therapy vs placebo. Combination therapy showed superior efficacy over individual drug therapy in preventing exacerbations. Treatment with the inhaled corticosteroid, whether alone or in combination with salmeterol, increased the risk of pneumonia.

A long-acting antimuscarinic agent is better than placebo. In 2008, the Understanding Potential Long-Term Impacts on Function With Tiotropium (UPLIFT) trial⁵² randomized nearly 6,000 patients with COPD and a postbronchodilator FEV₁ of less than 70% to placebo or tiotropium, a long-acting antimuscarinic agent. Tiotropium reduced the exacerbation rate by 14% compared with placebo and improved quality of life.

Antimuscarinics may be better than beta-2 agonists. Head-to-head comparisons suggest that long-acting antimuscarinic agents are preferable to long-acting beta-2 agonists for preventing COPD exacerbations.^53,54

Triple therapy: evidence is mixed. For patients with severe symptomatic COPD and frequent exacerbations, triple therapy with a combination of an inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent, an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and an inhaled corticosteroid has been suggested.

Data to support this practice are limited. In the Canadian Optimal Trial,⁵⁵ the rate of exacerbations was not different between tiotropium alone, tiotropium plus salmeterol, and triple therapy. However, the rate of hospitalization for severe exacerbation was lower with triple therapy than tiotropium alone. A large, retrospective cohort study also supported triple therapy by finding reduced mortality, hospitalizations, and need for oral corticosteroid bursts compared to combination therapy with an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid.⁵⁶

The drawback of triple therapy is an increased incidence of pneumonia associated with combined beta-2 agonist and corticosteroids, most likely due to the corticosteroid component.⁵¹ The risk appears to be higher for higher potency corticosteroids, eg, fluticasone.⁵⁷

In 2014, the Withdrawal of Inhaled Steroids During Optimised Bronchodilator Management (WISDOM) trial⁵⁸ randomized nearly 2,500 patients with a history of COPD exacerbation receiving triple therapy consisting of tiotropium, salmeterol, and inhaled fluticasone to either continue treatment or withdraw the corticosteroid for 3 months. The investigators defined an annualized exacerbation rate of 1.2 (ie, a 20% increase) as the upper limit of the confidence interval for an acceptable therapeutic margin of noninferiority. The study showed that the risk of moderate to severe exacerbations with combined tiotropium and salmeterol was noninferior to triple therapy.

Nevertheless, caution is advised when removing the corticosteroid component from triple therapy. The trial demonstrated a worsening in overall health status, some reduction in lung function, and a transient increase in severe exacerbations in the withdrawal group. Patients with increased symptom burden at baseline and a history of severe exacerbations may not be optimal candidates for this strategy.

Roflumilast is effective but has side effects

Roflumilast, an oral phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor, is an anti-inflammatory drug without bronchodilator properties. In randomized controlled trials, the drug was associated with a 17% reduction in acute exacerbations compared with placebo.⁵⁹

Adding roflumilast to either a long-acting beta-2 agonist or a long-acting antimuscarinic agent resulted in a 6% to 8% further reduction in the proportion of patients with exacerbation.^60,61 Martinez et al⁶¹ found that roflumilast added to a regimen of a long-acting beta-2 agonist plus an inhaled corticosteroid reduced moderate to severe exacerbations by 14.2%, even in the presence of tiotropium. Compared with placebo, roflumilast treatment reduced exacerbations necessitating hospitalizations by 23.9%.

The FDA has approved oral roflumilast 500 µg once daily to prevent COPD exacerbations.

Roflumilast is frequently associated with side effects, including gastrointestinal symptoms (chiefly diarrhea), weight loss, and psychiatric effects. A benefit-to-harm study in 2014 concluded that using the drug is only favorable for patients who have a high risk of severe exacerbations, ie, those who have a greater than 22% baseline risk of having at least one exacerbation annually.⁶²

Recommendation. Roflumilast should be reserved for patients who have severe COPD with a chronic bronchitis phenotype (ie, with cough and sputum production) and repeated exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, long-acting beta-2 agonist, and long-acting antimuscarinic agent.

Macrolide antibiotics: Role unclear

Macrolide antibiotics have anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities.

Azithromycin: fewer exacerbations but some side effects. A multicenter trial⁶³ in 1,142 COPD patients randomized to either oral azithromycin 250 mg daily or placebo found a 27% reduction in the risk of COPD exacerbation in the intervention arm. No differences were found between the groups in mortality, hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or respiratory failure. Hearing loss and increased macrolide resistance were noted in the intervention arm. In a secondary subgroup analysis,⁶⁴ no difference in efficacy was found by sex, history of chronic bronchitis, oxygen use, or concomitant COPD treatment.

The COPD: Influence of Macrolides on Exacerbation Frequency in Patients trial⁶⁵ helped refine patient selection for macrolide therapy. In this single-center study, 92 patients with COPD and at least three exacerbations during the year prior to enrollment were randomized to receive either azithromycin 500 mg three times weekly or placebo. Exacerbations in the intervention group were markedly reduced (42%) with no difference in hospitalization rate.

The place of macrolide antibiotics in the treatment strategy of COPD is unclear, and they are not currently part of the GOLD guidelines. Still unknown is the incremental benefit of adding them to existing preventive regimens, cardiovascular safety, side effects, and potential effects on the resident microbial flora. 

Other antibiotics have also been investigated for efficacy in preventing exacerbations.

Moxifloxacin: fewer exacerbations. The Pulsed Moxifloxacin Usage and Its Long-term Impact on the Reduction of Subsequent Exacerbations study⁶⁶ randomized more than 1,000 patients with stable COPD to receive either moxifloxacin 400 mg or placebo daily for 5 days repeated every 8 weeks for six courses. Frequent assessment during the treatment period and for 6 months afterward revealed a reduced exacerbation rate in the intervention group but without benefit in hospitalization rate, mortality, lung function, or health status.

Recommendation. Azithromycin (either 250 mg daily or 500 mg three times weekly) can be considered for patients who have repeated COPD exacerbations despite an optimal regimen of an inhaled corticosteroid, inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist, and inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent. The need to continue azithromycin should be reassessed yearly.

Mucolytics

Greatest benefit to patients not taking inhaled corticosteroids. Mucolytic agents help clear airway secretions by reducing viscosity. N-acetylcysteine and carbocysteine (not available in the United States) also have antioxidant properties that may counteract oxidant stress associated with acute COPD exacerbations.

The Bronchitis Randomized on NAC Cost-Utility Study (BRONCUS)⁶⁷ randomized 523 COPD patients to N-acetylcysteine 600 mg daily or placebo. After 3 years of follow-up, no differences were found in the rate of exacerbations, lung function decline, and quality of life. Subgroup analysis suggested a reduction in exacerbations for patients who were not taking inhaled corticosteroids.

The Effect of Carbocisteine on Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PEACE) study randomized more than 700 patients from multiple centers in China who had COPD and a recent history of exacerbations; they found a 25% lower exacerbation rate over 1 year with carbocysteine vs placebo.⁶⁸ Most of the patients (83%) were not on inhaled corticosteroids, which complemented findings of the BRONCUS trial.

The Effect of High Dose N-acetylcysteine on Air Trapping and Airway Resistance of COPD (HIACE) study randomized 120 patients with stable COPD in a hospital in Hong Kong to either oral N-acetylcysteine (600 mg twice daily) or placebo and found a reduced exacerbation rate of exacerbations. Patients were matched at baseline for inhaled corticosteroid use.⁶⁹

In 2014, the Twice Daily N-acetylcysteine 600 mg for Exacerbations of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (PANTHEON) study⁷⁰ randomized 1,006 patients from multiple hospitals in China with a history of moderate to severe COPD and exacerbations to receive either N-acetylcysteine 600 mg twice daily or placebo for 1 year. They found a 22% reduction in exacerbations in the treatment group vs placebo.  

GOLD guidelines² recommend mucolytics for patients with severe COPD and exacerbations when inhaled corticosteroids are not available or affordable.

Recommendation. Mucolytics may be useful for patients with difficulty expectorating and with a history of exacerbations despite appropriate inhaled therapy.

OTHER INTERVENTIONS CAN HELP

Pulmonary rehabilitation provides multiple benefits

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptoms

Pulmonary rehabilitation increases exercise tolerance and reduces symptom burden in patients with stable COPD. It is also a multidisciplinary effort that may help reinforce adherence to medications, enhance COPD education, and provide closer medical surveillance to patients at high risk for recurrent exacerbations.

A small randomized controlled trial⁷¹ prescribed pulmonary rehabilitation on discharge for a COPD exacerbation and found sustainable improvements in exercise capacity and health status after 3 months.

In a later study,⁷² the same group started pulmonary rehabilitation within a week of hospital discharge and found reduced hospital readmissions over a 3-month period.

Smoking cessation is always worth advocating

A large observational cohort study concluded that current smokers were at a higher risk for COPD exacerbations compared with former smokers.⁷³ Although there are no randomized controlled trials that assess the effects of smoking cessation at the time of COPD exacerbation, we recommend seizing the opportunity to implement this important intervention.

Vaccinations: Influenza and pneumococcal

Influenza vaccination is associated with reduced incidence of hospitalization among patients with cardiopulmonary disease.⁷⁴ A meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials of influenza vaccination for patients with COPD⁷⁵ reported significantly fewer exacerbations from vaccination, mostly owing to fewer episodes occurring after 3 to 4 weeks, coinciding with anticipated vaccine-induced immune protection. Furumoto and colleagues⁷⁶ reported an added benefit of combined vaccination with 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine and influenza vaccine in reducing hospital admissions over influenza vaccination alone. We also recommend providing the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine to patients with COPD, particularly for those older than 65, consistent with CDC recommendations.⁷⁷

A 50-year-old man presented with a painful rash over his extremities for the past 2 days (Figure 1). He said he had been in his usual state of health until the day he woke up with the rash. The rash was initially limited to his upper and lower extremities, but the next day he noticed similar lesions over his cheek and hard palate. He was a smoker and was known to have hepatitis C virus infection. He denied recent trauma, fever, or chills. He said he had snorted cocaine about 24 hours before the rash first appeared.

On examination, his vital signs were normal. He had an extensive retiform rash involving the upper and lower extremities, earlobes, right cheek, and hard palate. Otherwise, the physical examination was normal.

Initial laboratory evaluation showed:

• Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL (reference range 14.0–17.5)
• White blood cell count 2.1 × 10⁹/L (4.5–11.0)
• Platelet count 168 × 10⁹/L (150–350)
• Absolute neutrophil count 0.9 × 10⁹/L (≥ 1.5)
• Urine toxicology screen positive for cocaine.

He was admitted to the hospital and was started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-sulbactam for a presumed infectious cause of the rash.

One day later, testing for myeloperoxidase-specific antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) was strongly positive. Skin biopsy revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis with small-vessel thrombosis. These findings, along with the timing of the appearance of the rash after his cocaine use,  led to a diagnosis of levamisole-adulterated cocaine-induced vasculitis.

LEVAMISOLE AND VASCULITIS

Levamisole used to be used as an antihelminthic and as an adjuvant chemotherapeutic agent, but it is also added to cocaine to increase its euphoric and psychotropic effects.¹ It has been withdrawn from the market for human use because of toxic side effects including agranulocytosis, vasculitis, and autoantibody positivity.

Levamisole-adulterated cocaine has been known to induce ANCA-associated vasculitis.² Symptoms of levamisole-induced vasculitis usually start a few hours to a few days after the last dose of cocaine. Almost all patients with this condition present with a characteristic retiform purpuric rash, which has a predilection for the ears, nose, cheeks, and extremities. It also causes neutropenia and agranulocytosis (as well as autoantibodies, including antinuclear antibodies and antiphospholipid antibodies).

The characteristic lesions tend to be in a stellate pattern with erythematous borders. They often but not always have a central necrotic area. The location of the rash and the fact that it resolves after discontinuation of the offending agent help distinguish this condition from other types of vasculitis. Usually, antibodies against myeloperoxidase are present.³

Leukopenia does not typically occur in patients with primary vasculitis syndromes. The literature is mixed on the presence or absence of specific ANCAs.

Inflammatory and noninflammatory vasculopathic disorders that can present similarly include disseminated intravascular coagulation, antiphospholipid syndrome, warfarin-induced skin necrosis, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, cryoglobulinemia, vasculitis, and calciphylaxis.

Treatment is mainly supportive, but emollients and steroids⁴ have been reported to alleviate the symptoms. Surgical debridement is rarely needed unless skin necrosis is extensive.

Levamisole-induced vasculitis is a diagnosis of exclusion but should be strongly considered when the rash is associated with recent cocaine use, retiform purpura, or bullae with skin involvement, leukopenia, and positive ANCA in high titers.³ If cocaine use is discontinued, the syndrome is expected to resolve.

A 50-year-old man presented with a painful rash over his extremities for the past 2 days (Figure 1). He said he had been in his usual state of health until the day he woke up with the rash. The rash was initially limited to his upper and lower extremities, but the next day he noticed similar lesions over his cheek and hard palate. He was a smoker and was known to have hepatitis C virus infection. He denied recent trauma, fever, or chills. He said he had snorted cocaine about 24 hours before the rash first appeared.

On examination, his vital signs were normal. He had an extensive retiform rash involving the upper and lower extremities, earlobes, right cheek, and hard palate. Otherwise, the physical examination was normal.

Initial laboratory evaluation showed:

• Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL (reference range 14.0–17.5)
• White blood cell count 2.1 × 10⁹/L (4.5–11.0)
• Platelet count 168 × 10⁹/L (150–350)
• Absolute neutrophil count 0.9 × 10⁹/L (≥ 1.5)
• Urine toxicology screen positive for cocaine.

He was admitted to the hospital and was started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-sulbactam for a presumed infectious cause of the rash.

One day later, testing for myeloperoxidase-specific antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) was strongly positive. Skin biopsy revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis with small-vessel thrombosis. These findings, along with the timing of the appearance of the rash after his cocaine use,  led to a diagnosis of levamisole-adulterated cocaine-induced vasculitis.

LEVAMISOLE AND VASCULITIS

Levamisole used to be used as an antihelminthic and as an adjuvant chemotherapeutic agent, but it is also added to cocaine to increase its euphoric and psychotropic effects.¹ It has been withdrawn from the market for human use because of toxic side effects including agranulocytosis, vasculitis, and autoantibody positivity.

Levamisole-adulterated cocaine has been known to induce ANCA-associated vasculitis.² Symptoms of levamisole-induced vasculitis usually start a few hours to a few days after the last dose of cocaine. Almost all patients with this condition present with a characteristic retiform purpuric rash, which has a predilection for the ears, nose, cheeks, and extremities. It also causes neutropenia and agranulocytosis (as well as autoantibodies, including antinuclear antibodies and antiphospholipid antibodies).

The characteristic lesions tend to be in a stellate pattern with erythematous borders. They often but not always have a central necrotic area. The location of the rash and the fact that it resolves after discontinuation of the offending agent help distinguish this condition from other types of vasculitis. Usually, antibodies against myeloperoxidase are present.³

Leukopenia does not typically occur in patients with primary vasculitis syndromes. The literature is mixed on the presence or absence of specific ANCAs.

Inflammatory and noninflammatory vasculopathic disorders that can present similarly include disseminated intravascular coagulation, antiphospholipid syndrome, warfarin-induced skin necrosis, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, cryoglobulinemia, vasculitis, and calciphylaxis.

Treatment is mainly supportive, but emollients and steroids⁴ have been reported to alleviate the symptoms. Surgical debridement is rarely needed unless skin necrosis is extensive.

Levamisole-induced vasculitis is a diagnosis of exclusion but should be strongly considered when the rash is associated with recent cocaine use, retiform purpura, or bullae with skin involvement, leukopenia, and positive ANCA in high titers.³ If cocaine use is discontinued, the syndrome is expected to resolve.

A 50-year-old man presented with a painful rash over his extremities for the past 2 days (Figure 1). He said he had been in his usual state of health until the day he woke up with the rash. The rash was initially limited to his upper and lower extremities, but the next day he noticed similar lesions over his cheek and hard palate. He was a smoker and was known to have hepatitis C virus infection. He denied recent trauma, fever, or chills. He said he had snorted cocaine about 24 hours before the rash first appeared.

On examination, his vital signs were normal. He had an extensive retiform rash involving the upper and lower extremities, earlobes, right cheek, and hard palate. Otherwise, the physical examination was normal.

Initial laboratory evaluation showed:

• Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL (reference range 14.0–17.5)
• White blood cell count 2.1 × 10⁹/L (4.5–11.0)
• Platelet count 168 × 10⁹/L (150–350)
• Absolute neutrophil count 0.9 × 10⁹/L (≥ 1.5)
• Urine toxicology screen positive for cocaine.

He was admitted to the hospital and was started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-sulbactam for a presumed infectious cause of the rash.

One day later, testing for myeloperoxidase-specific antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA) was strongly positive. Skin biopsy revealed leukocytoclastic vasculitis with small-vessel thrombosis. These findings, along with the timing of the appearance of the rash after his cocaine use,  led to a diagnosis of levamisole-adulterated cocaine-induced vasculitis.

LEVAMISOLE AND VASCULITIS

Levamisole used to be used as an antihelminthic and as an adjuvant chemotherapeutic agent, but it is also added to cocaine to increase its euphoric and psychotropic effects.¹ It has been withdrawn from the market for human use because of toxic side effects including agranulocytosis, vasculitis, and autoantibody positivity.

Levamisole-adulterated cocaine has been known to induce ANCA-associated vasculitis.² Symptoms of levamisole-induced vasculitis usually start a few hours to a few days after the last dose of cocaine. Almost all patients with this condition present with a characteristic retiform purpuric rash, which has a predilection for the ears, nose, cheeks, and extremities. It also causes neutropenia and agranulocytosis (as well as autoantibodies, including antinuclear antibodies and antiphospholipid antibodies).

The characteristic lesions tend to be in a stellate pattern with erythematous borders. They often but not always have a central necrotic area. The location of the rash and the fact that it resolves after discontinuation of the offending agent help distinguish this condition from other types of vasculitis. Usually, antibodies against myeloperoxidase are present.³

Leukopenia does not typically occur in patients with primary vasculitis syndromes. The literature is mixed on the presence or absence of specific ANCAs.

Inflammatory and noninflammatory vasculopathic disorders that can present similarly include disseminated intravascular coagulation, antiphospholipid syndrome, warfarin-induced skin necrosis, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, cryoglobulinemia, vasculitis, and calciphylaxis.

Treatment is mainly supportive, but emollients and steroids⁴ have been reported to alleviate the symptoms. Surgical debridement is rarely needed unless skin necrosis is extensive.

Levamisole-induced vasculitis is a diagnosis of exclusion but should be strongly considered when the rash is associated with recent cocaine use, retiform purpura, or bullae with skin involvement, leukopenia, and positive ANCA in high titers.³ If cocaine use is discontinued, the syndrome is expected to resolve.

A 72-year-old man underwent elective ambulatory arthroscopic repair of the right shoulder rotator cuff. To manage postoperative pain, a supraclavicular catheter was placed for brachial plexus block, and he was sent home with a ropivacaine infusion pump.

The next day, he presented to the emergency department with right-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath. He had normal vital signs and adequate oxygen saturation on room air. On physical examination, breath sounds were decreased at the right lung base, and chest radiography (Figure 1) revealed an isolated elevated right hemidiaphragm, a clear indication of phrenic nerve paralysis from local infiltration of the infusion.

The ropivacaine infusion was stopped, and the supraclavicular catheter was removed under anesthesia. He was admitted to the hospital for observation, and over the course of 8 to 12 hours his shortness of breath resolved, and his findings on lung examination normalized. Repeat chest radiography 24 hours after his emergency room presentation showed regular positioning of his diaphragm (Figure 2).

RECOGNIZING AND MANAGING PHRENIC NERVE PARALYSIS

The scenario described here illustrates the importance of recognizing symptomatic phrenic nerve paralysis as a result of local infiltration of anesthetic from supraclavicular brachial plexus block. Regional anesthesia is commonly used for perioperative analgesia for minor shoulder surgeries. Because these blocks anesthetize the trunks formed by the C5–T1 nerve roots, infiltration of the anesthetic agent to the proximal nerve roots resulting in phrenic nerve paralysis is a common complication.

Although phrenic nerve paralysis has been reported to some degree in nearly all patients, reports of significant shortness of breath and radiographic evidence of hemidiaphragm are few.^1–4 When it occurs, the analgesic regimen must be changed from regional anesthesia to oral or parenteral pain medications. Resolution of symptoms and radiographic abnormalities usually occurs spontaneously.

When available, an ultrasonographically guided approach for supraclavicular brachial plexus blocks is preferred over a blind approach and is associated with a higher success rate and a lower rate of complications.^5,6

A potentially life-threatening complication of brachial plexus block is pneumothorax.

Contraindications to brachial plexus block include severe lung disease and previous surgery or interventions with the potential for phrenic nerve injury that could result in bilateral paralysis of the diaphragm. Ultimately, preprocedural chest radiography in selected patients at high risk should be considered to mitigate this risk.

A 72-year-old man underwent elective ambulatory arthroscopic repair of the right shoulder rotator cuff. To manage postoperative pain, a supraclavicular catheter was placed for brachial plexus block, and he was sent home with a ropivacaine infusion pump.

The next day, he presented to the emergency department with right-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath. He had normal vital signs and adequate oxygen saturation on room air. On physical examination, breath sounds were decreased at the right lung base, and chest radiography (Figure 1) revealed an isolated elevated right hemidiaphragm, a clear indication of phrenic nerve paralysis from local infiltration of the infusion.

The ropivacaine infusion was stopped, and the supraclavicular catheter was removed under anesthesia. He was admitted to the hospital for observation, and over the course of 8 to 12 hours his shortness of breath resolved, and his findings on lung examination normalized. Repeat chest radiography 24 hours after his emergency room presentation showed regular positioning of his diaphragm (Figure 2).

RECOGNIZING AND MANAGING PHRENIC NERVE PARALYSIS

The scenario described here illustrates the importance of recognizing symptomatic phrenic nerve paralysis as a result of local infiltration of anesthetic from supraclavicular brachial plexus block. Regional anesthesia is commonly used for perioperative analgesia for minor shoulder surgeries. Because these blocks anesthetize the trunks formed by the C5–T1 nerve roots, infiltration of the anesthetic agent to the proximal nerve roots resulting in phrenic nerve paralysis is a common complication.

Although phrenic nerve paralysis has been reported to some degree in nearly all patients, reports of significant shortness of breath and radiographic evidence of hemidiaphragm are few.^1–4 When it occurs, the analgesic regimen must be changed from regional anesthesia to oral or parenteral pain medications. Resolution of symptoms and radiographic abnormalities usually occurs spontaneously.

When available, an ultrasonographically guided approach for supraclavicular brachial plexus blocks is preferred over a blind approach and is associated with a higher success rate and a lower rate of complications.^5,6

A potentially life-threatening complication of brachial plexus block is pneumothorax.

Contraindications to brachial plexus block include severe lung disease and previous surgery or interventions with the potential for phrenic nerve injury that could result in bilateral paralysis of the diaphragm. Ultimately, preprocedural chest radiography in selected patients at high risk should be considered to mitigate this risk.

A 72-year-old man underwent elective ambulatory arthroscopic repair of the right shoulder rotator cuff. To manage postoperative pain, a supraclavicular catheter was placed for brachial plexus block, and he was sent home with a ropivacaine infusion pump.

The next day, he presented to the emergency department with right-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath. He had normal vital signs and adequate oxygen saturation on room air. On physical examination, breath sounds were decreased at the right lung base, and chest radiography (Figure 1) revealed an isolated elevated right hemidiaphragm, a clear indication of phrenic nerve paralysis from local infiltration of the infusion.

The ropivacaine infusion was stopped, and the supraclavicular catheter was removed under anesthesia. He was admitted to the hospital for observation, and over the course of 8 to 12 hours his shortness of breath resolved, and his findings on lung examination normalized. Repeat chest radiography 24 hours after his emergency room presentation showed regular positioning of his diaphragm (Figure 2).

RECOGNIZING AND MANAGING PHRENIC NERVE PARALYSIS

The scenario described here illustrates the importance of recognizing symptomatic phrenic nerve paralysis as a result of local infiltration of anesthetic from supraclavicular brachial plexus block. Regional anesthesia is commonly used for perioperative analgesia for minor shoulder surgeries. Because these blocks anesthetize the trunks formed by the C5–T1 nerve roots, infiltration of the anesthetic agent to the proximal nerve roots resulting in phrenic nerve paralysis is a common complication.

Although phrenic nerve paralysis has been reported to some degree in nearly all patients, reports of significant shortness of breath and radiographic evidence of hemidiaphragm are few.^1–4 When it occurs, the analgesic regimen must be changed from regional anesthesia to oral or parenteral pain medications. Resolution of symptoms and radiographic abnormalities usually occurs spontaneously.

When available, an ultrasonographically guided approach for supraclavicular brachial plexus blocks is preferred over a blind approach and is associated with a higher success rate and a lower rate of complications.^5,6

A potentially life-threatening complication of brachial plexus block is pneumothorax.

Contraindications to brachial plexus block include severe lung disease and previous surgery or interventions with the potential for phrenic nerve injury that could result in bilateral paralysis of the diaphragm. Ultimately, preprocedural chest radiography in selected patients at high risk should be considered to mitigate this risk.

Answer
The radiograph has several findings. First, there are multiple fractures along the left lateral ribs. Second, there is a small left apical pneumothorax. Most significant, though, is an elevated left hemidiaphragm. There appears to be stomach or possibly bowel protruding into it.

Although a large hiatal hernia could yield similar findings, in the setting of trauma, one must be concerned about a traumatic diaphragmatic hernia. Subsequent CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis confirmed a defect within the diaphragm, with a significant portion of the stomach herniating into the left chest.

Surgical consultation was obtained. The patient was admitted and ultimately underwent surgical intervention to repair the problem.

Answer
The radiograph has several findings. First, there are multiple fractures along the left lateral ribs. Second, there is a small left apical pneumothorax. Most significant, though, is an elevated left hemidiaphragm. There appears to be stomach or possibly bowel protruding into it.

Although a large hiatal hernia could yield similar findings, in the setting of trauma, one must be concerned about a traumatic diaphragmatic hernia. Subsequent CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis confirmed a defect within the diaphragm, with a significant portion of the stomach herniating into the left chest.

Surgical consultation was obtained. The patient was admitted and ultimately underwent surgical intervention to repair the problem.

Answer
The radiograph has several findings. First, there are multiple fractures along the left lateral ribs. Second, there is a small left apical pneumothorax. Most significant, though, is an elevated left hemidiaphragm. There appears to be stomach or possibly bowel protruding into it.

Although a large hiatal hernia could yield similar findings, in the setting of trauma, one must be concerned about a traumatic diaphragmatic hernia. Subsequent CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis confirmed a defect within the diaphragm, with a significant portion of the stomach herniating into the left chest.

Surgical consultation was obtained. The patient was admitted and ultimately underwent surgical intervention to repair the problem.

Answer
The radiograph shows several abnormalities: There is a moderate to large right pleural effusion, as well as a parenchymal density within the right lower lobe. In addition, several of the ribs have a mottled appearance.

All of these findings are highly suspicious for primary as well as metastatic carcinoma. The patient was admitted to the hospital for further workup.

Answer
The radiograph shows several abnormalities: There is a moderate to large right pleural effusion, as well as a parenchymal density within the right lower lobe. In addition, several of the ribs have a mottled appearance.

All of these findings are highly suspicious for primary as well as metastatic carcinoma. The patient was admitted to the hospital for further workup.

Answer
The radiograph shows several abnormalities: There is a moderate to large right pleural effusion, as well as a parenchymal density within the right lower lobe. In addition, several of the ribs have a mottled appearance.

All of these findings are highly suspicious for primary as well as metastatic carcinoma. The patient was admitted to the hospital for further workup.

Neurologic emergencies such as acute stroke, status epilepticus, subarachnoid hemorrhage, neuromuscular weakness, and spinal cord injury affect millions of Americans yearly.^1,2 These conditions can be difficult to diagnose, and delays in recognition and treatment can have devastating results. Consequently, it is important for nonneurologists to be able to quickly recognize these conditions and initiate timely management, often while awaiting neurologic consultation.

Here, we review how to recognize and treat these common, serious conditions.

ACUTE ISCHEMIC STROKE: TIME IS OF THE ESSENCE

Stroke is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States and is one of the most common causes of disability worldwide.^3–5 About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from diminished vascular supply to the brain. Symptoms such as facial droop, unilateral weakness or numbness, aphasia, gaze deviation, and unsteadiness of gait may be seen. Time is of the essence, as all currently available interventions are safe and effective only within defined time windows.

Diagnosis and assessment

When acute ischemic stroke is suspected, the clinical history, time of onset, and basic neurologic examination should be obtained quickly.

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) stroke scale is an objective marker for assessing stroke severity as well as evolution of disease and should be obtained in all stroke patients. Scores range from 0 (best) to 42 (worst) (www.ninds.nih.gov/doctors/NIH_Stroke_Scale.pdf).

Time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine, since it guides eligibility for acute therapies. Clinicians should ascertain the last time the patient was seen to be neurologically well in order to estimate this time window as closely as possible.

Laboratory tests should include a fingerstick blood glucose measurement, coagulation studies, complete blood cell count, and basic metabolic profile.

Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast should be obtained immediately to exclude acute hemorrhage and any alternative diagnoses that could explain the patient’s symptoms. Acute brain ischemia is often not apparent on CT during the first few hours of injury. Therefore, a patient presenting with new focal neurologic deficits and an unremarkable result on CT of the head should be treated as having had an acute ischemic stroke, and interventional therapies should be considered.

Stroke mimics should be considered and treated, as appropriate (Table 1).

Acute management of ischemic stroke

Acute treatment should not be delayed by obtaining chest radiography, inserting a Foley catheter, or obtaining an electrocardiogram. The longer the time that elapses before treatment, the worse the functional outcome, underscoring the need for rapid decision-making.^6–8

Lowering the head of the bed may provide benefit by promoting blood flow to ischemic brain tissue.⁹ However, this should not be done in patients with significantly elevated intracerebral pressure and concern for herniation.

Permissive hypertension (antihypertensive treatment only for blood pressure greater than 220/110 mm Hg) should be allowed per national guidelines to provide adequate perfusion to brain areas at risk of injury.¹⁰

Tissue plasminogen activator. Patients with ischemic stroke who present within 3 hours of symptom onset should be considered for intravenous administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), a safe and effective therapy with nearly 2 decades of evidence to support its use.¹⁰ The treating physician should carefully review the risks and benefits of this therapy.

To receive tPA, the patient must have all of the following:

• Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke with measurable neurologic deficit
• Onset of symptoms within the past 3 hours
• Age 18 or older.

The patient must not have any of the following:

• Significant stroke within the past 3 months
• Severe traumatic head injury within the past 3 months
• History of significant intracerebral hemorrhage
• Previously ruptured arteriovenous malformation or intracranial aneurysm
• Central nervous system neoplasm
• Arterial puncture at a noncompressible site within the past 7 days
• Evidence of hemorrhage on CT of the head
• Evidence of ischemia in greater than 33% of the cerebral hemisphere on head CT
• History and symptoms strongly suggesting subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Persistent hypertension (systolic pressure ≥ 185 mm Hg or diastolic pressure ≥ 110 mm Hg)
• Evidence of acute significant bleeding (external or internal)
• Hypoglycemia—ie, serum glucose less than 50 mg/dL (< 2.8 mmol/L)
• Thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 100 × 10⁹/L)
• Significant coagulopathy (international normalized ratio > 1.7, prothrombin time > 15 seconds, or abnormally elevated activated partial thromboplastin time)
• Current use of a factor Xa inhibitor or direct thrombin inhibitor.

Relative contraindications:

• Minor or rapidly resolving symptoms
• Major surgery or trauma within the past 14 days
• Gastrointestinal or urinary tract bleeding within the past 21 days
• Myocardial infarction in the past 3 months
• Unruptured intracranial aneurysm
• Seizure occurring at stroke onset
• Pregnancy.

If these criteria are satisfied, tPA should be given at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg intravenously over 60 minutes. Ten percent  of the dose should be given as an initial bolus, followed by a constant infusion of the remaining 90% over 1 hour.

If tPA is given, the blood pressure must be kept lower than 185/110 mm Hg to minimize the risk of symptomatic intracerebral hemorrhage.

A subset of patients may benefit from receiving intravenous tPA between 3 and 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms. These include patients who are no more than 80 years old, who have not recently used oral anticoagulants, who do not have severe neurologic injury (ie, do not have NIH Stroke Scale scores > 25), and who do not have diabetes mellitus or a history of ischemic stroke.¹¹ Although many hospitals have such a protocol for tPA up to 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms, this time window is not currently approved by the US Food and Drug Administration.

Intra-arterial therapy. Based on recent trials, some patients may benefit further from intra-arterial thrombolysis or mechanical thrombectomy, both delivered during catheter-based cerebral angiography, independent of intravenous tPA administration.^12,13 These patients should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis by a neurologist and neurointerventional team. Time windows for these treatments generally extend to 6 hours from stroke onset and perhaps even longer in some situations (eg, basilar artery occlusion).

An antiplatelet agent should be started quickly in all stroke patients who do not receive tPA. Patients who receive tPA can begin receiving an antiplatelet agent 24 hours afterward.

Unfractionated heparin. There is no evidence to support the use of unfractionated heparin in most cases of acute ischemic stroke.¹⁰

Glucose control (in the range of 140–180 mg/dL) and fever control remain essential elements of post-acute stroke care to provide additional protection to the damaged brain.

For ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation

In ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation, early anticoagulation should be considered, based on the CHA₂DS₂-VASC risk of ischemic stroke vs the HAS-BLED risk of hemorrhage (calculators available at www.mdcalc.com).

In general, anticoagulation may be withheld during the first 72 hours while further stroke workup and evaluation of extent of injury are carried out, as there is an increased risk of hemorrhagic transformation of the ischemic stroke. Often, anticoagulation is resumed at a full dose between 72 hours and 2 weeks of the ischemic stroke.

ACUTE HEMORRHAGIC STROKE: BLOOD PRESSURE, COAGULATION

Approximately 15% of strokes are caused by intracerebral hemorrhage, which can be detected with noncontrast head CT with a sensitivity of 98.6% within 6 hours of the onset of bleeding.¹⁴ A common underlying cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is chronic poorly controlled hypertension, causing rupture of damaged (or “lipohyalinized”) vessels with resultant blood extravasation into the brain parenchyma. Other causes are less common (Table 2).

Treatment of acute hemorrhagic stroke

Acute treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage includes blood pressure control, reversal of underlying coagulopathy or anticoagulation, and sometimes intracranial pressure control. There is little role for surgery in most cases, based on findings of randomized trials.¹⁵

Blood pressure control. Many studies have investigated optimal blood pressure goals in acute intracerebral hemorrhage. Recent data suggest that early aggressive therapy, targeting a systolic blood pressure goal less than 140 mm Hg within the first hour, is safe and can lead to better functional outcomes than a more conservative blood-pressure-lowering target.¹⁶ Rapid-onset, short-acting antihypertensive agents in intravenous form, such as nicardipine and labetalol, are frequently used. Of note, this treatment strategy for hemorrhagic stroke is in direct contrast to the treatment of ischemic stroke, in which permissive hypertension (blood pressure goal < 220/110 mm Hg) is often pursued.

Reversal of any coagulation abnormalities should be done quickly in intracranial hemorrhage. Warfarin use has been shown to be a strong independent predictor of intracranial hemorrhage expansion, which increases the risk of death.^17,18

Increasingly, agents other than vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma are being used to rapidly reverse anticoagulation, including prothrombin complex concentrate (available in three- and four-factor preparations) and recombinant factor VIIa. While four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate and recombinant factor VIIa have been shown to be more efficacious than fresh-frozen plasma, there are limited data directly comparing these newer reversal agents against each other.¹⁹ The use of these medications is limited by availability and practitioner familiarity.^20–22

Reversing anticoagulation due to target-specific oral anticoagulants. The acute management of intracranial hemorrhage in patients taking the new target-specific oral anticoagulants (eg, dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban) remains challenging. Laboratory tests such as factor Xa levels are not readily available in many institutions and do not provide results in a timely fashion, and in the interim, acute hemorrhage and clinical deterioration may occur. Management strategies involve giving fresh-frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrate, and consideration of hemodialysis.²³ Dabigatran reversal with idarucizumab has recently been shown to have efficacy.²⁴

Vigilance for elevated intracranial pressure. Intracranial hemorrhage can occasionally cause elevated intracranial pressure, which should be treated rapidly. Any acute decline in mental status in a patient with intracranial hemorrhage requires emergency imaging to evaluate for expansion of hemorrhage.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

The sudden onset of a “thunderclap” headache (often described by patients as “the worst headache of my life”) suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage.

In contrast to intracranial hemorrhage, in subarachnoid hemorrhage blood collects mainly in the cerebral spinal fluid-containing spaces surrounding the brain, leading to a higher incidence of hydrocephalus from impaired drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. Nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is most often caused by rupture of an intracranial aneurysm, which can be a devastating event, with death rates approaching 50%.²⁵

Diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Noncontrast CT of the head is the main modality for diagnosing subarachnoid hemorrhage. Blood within the subarachnoid space is demonstrable in 92% of cases if CT is performed within the first 24 hours of hemorrhage, with an initial sensitivity of about 95% within the first 6 hours of onset.^14,26,27 The longer CT is delayed, the lower the sensitivity.

Some studies suggest that a protocol of CT followed by CT angiography can safely exclude aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage and obviate the need for lumbar puncture. However, further research is required to validate this approach.²⁸

Lumbar puncture. If clinical suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage remains strong even though initial CT is negative, lumbar puncture must be performed for cerebrospinal fluid analysis.²⁹ Xanthochromia (a yellowish pigmentation of the cerebrospinal fluid due to the degeneration of blood products that occurs within 8 to 12 hours of bleeding) should raise the alarm for subarachnoid hemorrhage; this sign may be present up to 4 weeks after the bleeding event.³⁰

If lumbar puncture is contraindicated, then aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage has not been ruled out, and further neurologic consultation should be pursued.

Management of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Early management of blood pressure for a ruptured intracranial aneurysm follows strategies similar to those for intracranial hemorrhage. Further investigation is rapidly directed toward an underlying vascular malformation, with intracranial vessel imaging such as CT angiography, magnetic resonance angiography, or the gold standard test—catheter-based cerebral angiography.

Aneurysms are treated (or “secured”) either by surgical clipping or by endovascular coiling. Endovascular coiling is preferable in cases in which both can be safely attempted.³¹ If the facility lacks the resources to do these procedures, the patient should be referred to a nearby tertiary care center.

INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION: DANGER OF BRAIN HERNIATION

A number of conditions can cause an acute intracranial pressure elevation. The danger of brain herniation requires that therapies be implemented rapidly to prevent catastrophic neurologic injury. In many situations, nonneurologists are the first responders and therefore should be familiar with basic intracranial pressure management.

Initial symptoms of acute rise in intracranial pressure

As intracranial pressure rises, pressure is typically equally distributed throughout the cranial vault, leading to dysfunction of the ascending reticular activating system, which clinically manifests as the inability to stay alert despite varying degrees of noxious stimulation. Progressive cranial neuropathies (often starting with pupillary abnormalities) and coma are often seen in this setting as the upper brainstem begins to be compressed.

Initial assessment and treatment of elevated intracranial pressure

Noncontrast CT of the head is often obtained immediately when acutely elevated intracranial pressure is suspected. If clinical examination and radiographic findings are consistent with intracranial hypertension, prompt measures can be started at the bedside.

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees to promote venous drainage and reduce intracranial pressure. (In contrast, most other hemodynamically unstable patients are placed flat or in the Trendelenburg position.)

Intubation should be done quickly in cases of airway compromise, and hyperventilation should be started with a goal Paco₂ of 30 to 35 mm Hg. This hypocarbic strategy promotes cerebral vasoconstriction and a transient decrease in intracranial pressure.

Hyperosmolar therapy allows for transient intracranial volume decompression and is the mainstay of emergency medical treatment of intracranial hypertension. Mannitol is a hyper­osmolar polysaccharide that promotes osmotic diuresis and removes excessive cerebral water. In the acute setting, it can be given as an intravenous bolus of 1 to 2 g/kg through a peripheral intravenous line, followed by a bolus every 4 to 6 hours. Hypotension can occur after diuresis, and renal function should be closely monitored since frequent mannitol use can promote acute tubular necrosis. In patients who are anuric, the medication is typically not used.

Hypertonic saline (typically 3% sodium chloride, though different concentrations are available) is an alternative that helps draw interstitial fluid into the intravascular space, decreasing cerebral edema and maintaining hemodynamic stability. Relative contraindications include congestive heart failure or renal failure leading to pulmonary edema from volume overload. Hypertonic saline can be given as a bolus or a constant infusion. Some institutions have rapid access to 23.4% saline, which can be given as a 30-mL bolus but typically requires a central venous catheter for rapid infusion.

Comatose patients with radiographic findings of hydrocephalus, epidural or subdural hematoma, or mass effect with midline shift warrant prompt neurosurgical consultation for further surgical measures of intracranial pressure control and monitoring.

The ‘blown’ pupil

The physician should be concerned about elevated intracranial pressure if a patient has mydriasis, ie, an abnormally dilated (“blown”) pupil, which is a worrisome sign in the setting of true intracranial hypertension. However, many different processes can cause mydriasis and should be kept in mind when evaluating this finding (Table 3).³² If radiographic findings do not suggest elevated intracranial pressure, further workup into these other processes should be pursued.

STATUS EPILEPTICUS: SEIZURE CONTROL IS IMPORTANT

A continuous unremitting seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or recurrent seizure activity in a patient who does not regain consciousness between seizures should be treated as status epilepticus. All seizure types carry the risk of progressing to status epilepticus, and responsiveness to antiepileptic drug therapy is inversely related to the duration of seizures. It is imperative that seizure activity be treated early and aggressively to prevent recalcitrant seizure activity, neuronal damage, and progression to status epilepticus.³³

Once the ABCs of emergency stabilization have been performed (ie, airway, breathing, circulation), antiepileptic drug therapy should start immediately using established algorithms (Figure 1).^34–36 During the course of treatment, the reliability of the neurologic examination may be limited due to medication effects or continued status epilepticus, making continuous video electroencephalographic monitoring often necessary to guide further therapy in patients who are not rapidly recovering.^34–38

Once status epilepticus has resolved, further investigation into the underlying cause should be pursued quickly, especially in patients without a previous diagnosis of epilepsy. Head CT with contrast or magnetic resonance imaging can be used to look for any structural abnormality that may explain seizures. Basic laboratory tests including toxicology screening can identify a common trigger such as hypoglycemia or stimulant use. Fever or other possible signs of meningitis should be investigated further with cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

SPINAL CORD INJURY

Acute spinal cord injury can lead to substantial long-term neurologic impairment and should be suspected in any patient presenting with focal motor loss, sensory loss, or both with sparing of the cranial nerves and mental status. Causes of injury include compression (traumatic or nontraumatic) and inflammatory and noninflammatory myelopathies.

The location of the injury can be inferred by analyzing the symptoms, which can point to the cord level and indicate whether the anterior or posterior of the cord is involved. Anterior cord injury tends to affect the descending corticospinal and pyramidal tracts, resulting in motor deficits and weakness. Posterior cord injury involves the dorsal columns, leading to deficits of vibration sensation and proprioception. High cervical cord injuries tend to involve varying degrees of quadriparesis, sensory loss, and sometimes respiratory compromise. A clinical history of bilateral lower-extremity weakness, a “band-like” sensory complaint around the lower chest or abdomen, or both, can suggest thoracic cord involvement. Symptoms isolated to one or both lower extremities along with lower back pain and bowel or bladder involvement may point to injury of the lumbosacral cord.

Basic management of spinal cord injury includes decompression of the bladder and initial protection against further injury with a stabilizing collar or brace.

Magnetic resonance imaging with and without contrast is the ideal study to evaluate injuries to the spinal cord itself. While CT is helpful in identifying bony disease of the spinal column (eg, evaluating traumatic fractures), it is not helpful in viewing intrinsic cord pathology.

Traumatic myelopathy

Traumatic spinal cord injury is usually suggested by the clinical history and confirmed with CT. In this setting, early consultation with a neurosurgeon is required to prevent permanent cord injury.

Guidelines suggest maintaining a mean arterial pressure greater than 85 to 90 mm Hg for the first 7 days after traumatic spinal cord injury, a particular problem in the setting of hemodynamic instability, which can accompany lesions above the midthoracic level.^39,40

Patients with vertebral body misalignment should be placed in an appropriate stabilizing collar or brace until a medically trained professional deems it appropriate to discontinue the device, or until surgical stabilization is performed.

Methylprednisone is a controversial intervention for acute spinal cord trauma, lacking clear benefit in meta-analyses.⁴¹

Nontraumatic compressive myelopathy

Patients with nontraumatic compressive myelopathy tend to present with varying degrees of back pain and worsening sensorimotor function. The differential diagnosis includes epidural abscesses, hematoma, metastatic neoplasm, and osteophyte compression (Table 4). The clinical history helps to guide therapy and should involve assessment for previous spinal column injury, immunocompromised state, travel history (which provides information on risks of exposure to a variety of diseases, including infections), and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss.

Epidural abscess can have devastating results if missed. Red flags such as recent illness, intravenous drug use, focal back pain, fever, worsening numbness or weakness, and bowel or bladder incontinence should raise suspicion of this disorder. Emergency magnetic resonance imaging is required to diagnose this condition, and treatment involves urgent administration of antibiotics and consideration of surgical drainage.

Noncompressive myelopathies

There are numerous causes of noncompressive spinal cord injury (Table 4), and the etiology may be inflammatory (eg, “myelitis”) or noninflammatory. The diagnostic workup may require both magnetic resonance imaging and cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Acute disease-targeted therapy is rarely indicated and can be deferred until a full diagnostic workup has been completed.

NEUROMUSCULAR DISEASE: IS VENTILATION NEEDED?

Diseases involving the motor components of the peripheral nervous system (Table 5) share the common risk of causing ventilatory failure due to weakness of the diaphragm, intercostal muscles, and upper-airway muscles. Clinicians need to be aware of this risk and view these disorders as neurologic emergencies.

Determining when these patients require mechanical intubation is a challenge. Serial measurements of maximum inspiratory force and vital capacity are important and can be accomplished quickly at the bedside by a respiratory therapist. A maximum inspiratory force less than –30 cm H₂O or a vital capacity less than 20 mL/kg, or both, are worrisome markers that raise concern for impending ventilatory failure. Serial measurements can detect changes in these values that might indicate the need for elective intubation. In any patient presenting with weakness of the limbs, these measurements are an important step in the initial evaluation.

Myasthenic crisis

Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors. Patients demonstrate muscle weakness, usually in a proximal pattern, with fatigue, respiratory distress, nasal speech, ophthalmoparesis, and dysphagia. Exacerbations can occur as a response to recent infection, surgery, or medications such as neuromuscular blocking agents or aminoglycosides.

Myasthenic crisis, while uncommon, is a life-threatening emergency characterized by bulbar or respiratory failure secondary to muscle weakness. It can occur in patients already diagnosed with myasthenia gravis or may be the initial manifestation of the disease.^42–49 Intubation and mechanical ventilation are frequently required. Postoperative myasthenic patients in whom extubation has been delayed more than 24 hours should be considered in crisis.⁴⁵

The diagnosis of myasthenia gravis can be made by serum autoantibody testing, electromyography, and nerve conduction studies (with repetitive stimulation) or administration of edrophonium in patients with obvious ptosis.

The mainstay of therapy for myasthenic crisis is either intravenous immunoglobulin at a dose of 2 g/kg over 2 to 5 days or plasmapheresis (5–7 exchanges over 7–14 days). Corticosteroids are not recommended in myasthenic crisis in patients who are not intubated, as they can potentiate an initial worsening of crisis. Once the patient begins to show clinical improvement, outpatient pyridostigmine and immunosuppressive medications can be resumed at a low dose and titrated as tolerated.

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Guillain-Barré syndrome)

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is an autoimmune disorder involving autoantibodies against axons or myelin in the peripheral nervous system.

This disease should be suspected in a patient who is developing worsening muscle weakness (usually with areflexia) over the course of days to weeks. Occasionally, a recent diarrheal or other systemic infectious trigger can be identified. Blood pressure instability and cardiac arrhythmia can also be seen due to autonomic nerve involvement. Although classically described as an “ascending paralysis,” other variants of this disease have distinct clinical presentations (eg, the descending paralysis, ataxia, areflexia, ophthalmoparesis of the Miller Fisher syndrome).

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is diagnosed by electromyography and nerve conduction studies. A cerebrospinal fluid profile demonstrating elevated protein and few white blood cells is typical.

Treatment, as in myasthenic crisis, involves intravenous immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis. Corticosteroids are ineffective. Anticipation of ventilatory failure and expectant intubation is essential, given the progressive nature of the disorder.⁵⁰

Neurologic emergencies such as acute stroke, status epilepticus, subarachnoid hemorrhage, neuromuscular weakness, and spinal cord injury affect millions of Americans yearly.^1,2 These conditions can be difficult to diagnose, and delays in recognition and treatment can have devastating results. Consequently, it is important for nonneurologists to be able to quickly recognize these conditions and initiate timely management, often while awaiting neurologic consultation.

Here, we review how to recognize and treat these common, serious conditions.

ACUTE ISCHEMIC STROKE: TIME IS OF THE ESSENCE

Stroke is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States and is one of the most common causes of disability worldwide.^3–5 About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from diminished vascular supply to the brain. Symptoms such as facial droop, unilateral weakness or numbness, aphasia, gaze deviation, and unsteadiness of gait may be seen. Time is of the essence, as all currently available interventions are safe and effective only within defined time windows.

Diagnosis and assessment

When acute ischemic stroke is suspected, the clinical history, time of onset, and basic neurologic examination should be obtained quickly.

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) stroke scale is an objective marker for assessing stroke severity as well as evolution of disease and should be obtained in all stroke patients. Scores range from 0 (best) to 42 (worst) (www.ninds.nih.gov/doctors/NIH_Stroke_Scale.pdf).

Time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine, since it guides eligibility for acute therapies. Clinicians should ascertain the last time the patient was seen to be neurologically well in order to estimate this time window as closely as possible.

Laboratory tests should include a fingerstick blood glucose measurement, coagulation studies, complete blood cell count, and basic metabolic profile.

Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast should be obtained immediately to exclude acute hemorrhage and any alternative diagnoses that could explain the patient’s symptoms. Acute brain ischemia is often not apparent on CT during the first few hours of injury. Therefore, a patient presenting with new focal neurologic deficits and an unremarkable result on CT of the head should be treated as having had an acute ischemic stroke, and interventional therapies should be considered.

Stroke mimics should be considered and treated, as appropriate (Table 1).

Acute management of ischemic stroke

Acute treatment should not be delayed by obtaining chest radiography, inserting a Foley catheter, or obtaining an electrocardiogram. The longer the time that elapses before treatment, the worse the functional outcome, underscoring the need for rapid decision-making.^6–8

Lowering the head of the bed may provide benefit by promoting blood flow to ischemic brain tissue.⁹ However, this should not be done in patients with significantly elevated intracerebral pressure and concern for herniation.

Permissive hypertension (antihypertensive treatment only for blood pressure greater than 220/110 mm Hg) should be allowed per national guidelines to provide adequate perfusion to brain areas at risk of injury.¹⁰

Tissue plasminogen activator. Patients with ischemic stroke who present within 3 hours of symptom onset should be considered for intravenous administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), a safe and effective therapy with nearly 2 decades of evidence to support its use.¹⁰ The treating physician should carefully review the risks and benefits of this therapy.

To receive tPA, the patient must have all of the following:

• Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke with measurable neurologic deficit
• Onset of symptoms within the past 3 hours
• Age 18 or older.

The patient must not have any of the following:

• Significant stroke within the past 3 months
• Severe traumatic head injury within the past 3 months
• History of significant intracerebral hemorrhage
• Previously ruptured arteriovenous malformation or intracranial aneurysm
• Central nervous system neoplasm
• Arterial puncture at a noncompressible site within the past 7 days
• Evidence of hemorrhage on CT of the head
• Evidence of ischemia in greater than 33% of the cerebral hemisphere on head CT
• History and symptoms strongly suggesting subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Persistent hypertension (systolic pressure ≥ 185 mm Hg or diastolic pressure ≥ 110 mm Hg)
• Evidence of acute significant bleeding (external or internal)
• Hypoglycemia—ie, serum glucose less than 50 mg/dL (< 2.8 mmol/L)
• Thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 100 × 10⁹/L)
• Significant coagulopathy (international normalized ratio > 1.7, prothrombin time > 15 seconds, or abnormally elevated activated partial thromboplastin time)
• Current use of a factor Xa inhibitor or direct thrombin inhibitor.

Relative contraindications:

• Minor or rapidly resolving symptoms
• Major surgery or trauma within the past 14 days
• Gastrointestinal or urinary tract bleeding within the past 21 days
• Myocardial infarction in the past 3 months
• Unruptured intracranial aneurysm
• Seizure occurring at stroke onset
• Pregnancy.

If these criteria are satisfied, tPA should be given at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg intravenously over 60 minutes. Ten percent  of the dose should be given as an initial bolus, followed by a constant infusion of the remaining 90% over 1 hour.

If tPA is given, the blood pressure must be kept lower than 185/110 mm Hg to minimize the risk of symptomatic intracerebral hemorrhage.

A subset of patients may benefit from receiving intravenous tPA between 3 and 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms. These include patients who are no more than 80 years old, who have not recently used oral anticoagulants, who do not have severe neurologic injury (ie, do not have NIH Stroke Scale scores > 25), and who do not have diabetes mellitus or a history of ischemic stroke.¹¹ Although many hospitals have such a protocol for tPA up to 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms, this time window is not currently approved by the US Food and Drug Administration.

Intra-arterial therapy. Based on recent trials, some patients may benefit further from intra-arterial thrombolysis or mechanical thrombectomy, both delivered during catheter-based cerebral angiography, independent of intravenous tPA administration.^12,13 These patients should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis by a neurologist and neurointerventional team. Time windows for these treatments generally extend to 6 hours from stroke onset and perhaps even longer in some situations (eg, basilar artery occlusion).

An antiplatelet agent should be started quickly in all stroke patients who do not receive tPA. Patients who receive tPA can begin receiving an antiplatelet agent 24 hours afterward.

Unfractionated heparin. There is no evidence to support the use of unfractionated heparin in most cases of acute ischemic stroke.¹⁰

Glucose control (in the range of 140–180 mg/dL) and fever control remain essential elements of post-acute stroke care to provide additional protection to the damaged brain.

For ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation

In ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation, early anticoagulation should be considered, based on the CHA₂DS₂-VASC risk of ischemic stroke vs the HAS-BLED risk of hemorrhage (calculators available at www.mdcalc.com).

In general, anticoagulation may be withheld during the first 72 hours while further stroke workup and evaluation of extent of injury are carried out, as there is an increased risk of hemorrhagic transformation of the ischemic stroke. Often, anticoagulation is resumed at a full dose between 72 hours and 2 weeks of the ischemic stroke.

ACUTE HEMORRHAGIC STROKE: BLOOD PRESSURE, COAGULATION

Approximately 15% of strokes are caused by intracerebral hemorrhage, which can be detected with noncontrast head CT with a sensitivity of 98.6% within 6 hours of the onset of bleeding.¹⁴ A common underlying cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is chronic poorly controlled hypertension, causing rupture of damaged (or “lipohyalinized”) vessels with resultant blood extravasation into the brain parenchyma. Other causes are less common (Table 2).

Treatment of acute hemorrhagic stroke

Acute treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage includes blood pressure control, reversal of underlying coagulopathy or anticoagulation, and sometimes intracranial pressure control. There is little role for surgery in most cases, based on findings of randomized trials.¹⁵

Blood pressure control. Many studies have investigated optimal blood pressure goals in acute intracerebral hemorrhage. Recent data suggest that early aggressive therapy, targeting a systolic blood pressure goal less than 140 mm Hg within the first hour, is safe and can lead to better functional outcomes than a more conservative blood-pressure-lowering target.¹⁶ Rapid-onset, short-acting antihypertensive agents in intravenous form, such as nicardipine and labetalol, are frequently used. Of note, this treatment strategy for hemorrhagic stroke is in direct contrast to the treatment of ischemic stroke, in which permissive hypertension (blood pressure goal < 220/110 mm Hg) is often pursued.

Reversal of any coagulation abnormalities should be done quickly in intracranial hemorrhage. Warfarin use has been shown to be a strong independent predictor of intracranial hemorrhage expansion, which increases the risk of death.^17,18

Increasingly, agents other than vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma are being used to rapidly reverse anticoagulation, including prothrombin complex concentrate (available in three- and four-factor preparations) and recombinant factor VIIa. While four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate and recombinant factor VIIa have been shown to be more efficacious than fresh-frozen plasma, there are limited data directly comparing these newer reversal agents against each other.¹⁹ The use of these medications is limited by availability and practitioner familiarity.^20–22

Reversing anticoagulation due to target-specific oral anticoagulants. The acute management of intracranial hemorrhage in patients taking the new target-specific oral anticoagulants (eg, dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban) remains challenging. Laboratory tests such as factor Xa levels are not readily available in many institutions and do not provide results in a timely fashion, and in the interim, acute hemorrhage and clinical deterioration may occur. Management strategies involve giving fresh-frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrate, and consideration of hemodialysis.²³ Dabigatran reversal with idarucizumab has recently been shown to have efficacy.²⁴

Vigilance for elevated intracranial pressure. Intracranial hemorrhage can occasionally cause elevated intracranial pressure, which should be treated rapidly. Any acute decline in mental status in a patient with intracranial hemorrhage requires emergency imaging to evaluate for expansion of hemorrhage.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

The sudden onset of a “thunderclap” headache (often described by patients as “the worst headache of my life”) suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage.

In contrast to intracranial hemorrhage, in subarachnoid hemorrhage blood collects mainly in the cerebral spinal fluid-containing spaces surrounding the brain, leading to a higher incidence of hydrocephalus from impaired drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. Nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is most often caused by rupture of an intracranial aneurysm, which can be a devastating event, with death rates approaching 50%.²⁵

Diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Noncontrast CT of the head is the main modality for diagnosing subarachnoid hemorrhage. Blood within the subarachnoid space is demonstrable in 92% of cases if CT is performed within the first 24 hours of hemorrhage, with an initial sensitivity of about 95% within the first 6 hours of onset.^14,26,27 The longer CT is delayed, the lower the sensitivity.

Some studies suggest that a protocol of CT followed by CT angiography can safely exclude aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage and obviate the need for lumbar puncture. However, further research is required to validate this approach.²⁸

Lumbar puncture. If clinical suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage remains strong even though initial CT is negative, lumbar puncture must be performed for cerebrospinal fluid analysis.²⁹ Xanthochromia (a yellowish pigmentation of the cerebrospinal fluid due to the degeneration of blood products that occurs within 8 to 12 hours of bleeding) should raise the alarm for subarachnoid hemorrhage; this sign may be present up to 4 weeks after the bleeding event.³⁰

If lumbar puncture is contraindicated, then aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage has not been ruled out, and further neurologic consultation should be pursued.

Management of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Early management of blood pressure for a ruptured intracranial aneurysm follows strategies similar to those for intracranial hemorrhage. Further investigation is rapidly directed toward an underlying vascular malformation, with intracranial vessel imaging such as CT angiography, magnetic resonance angiography, or the gold standard test—catheter-based cerebral angiography.

Aneurysms are treated (or “secured”) either by surgical clipping or by endovascular coiling. Endovascular coiling is preferable in cases in which both can be safely attempted.³¹ If the facility lacks the resources to do these procedures, the patient should be referred to a nearby tertiary care center.

INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION: DANGER OF BRAIN HERNIATION

A number of conditions can cause an acute intracranial pressure elevation. The danger of brain herniation requires that therapies be implemented rapidly to prevent catastrophic neurologic injury. In many situations, nonneurologists are the first responders and therefore should be familiar with basic intracranial pressure management.

Initial symptoms of acute rise in intracranial pressure

As intracranial pressure rises, pressure is typically equally distributed throughout the cranial vault, leading to dysfunction of the ascending reticular activating system, which clinically manifests as the inability to stay alert despite varying degrees of noxious stimulation. Progressive cranial neuropathies (often starting with pupillary abnormalities) and coma are often seen in this setting as the upper brainstem begins to be compressed.

Initial assessment and treatment of elevated intracranial pressure

Noncontrast CT of the head is often obtained immediately when acutely elevated intracranial pressure is suspected. If clinical examination and radiographic findings are consistent with intracranial hypertension, prompt measures can be started at the bedside.

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees to promote venous drainage and reduce intracranial pressure. (In contrast, most other hemodynamically unstable patients are placed flat or in the Trendelenburg position.)

Intubation should be done quickly in cases of airway compromise, and hyperventilation should be started with a goal Paco₂ of 30 to 35 mm Hg. This hypocarbic strategy promotes cerebral vasoconstriction and a transient decrease in intracranial pressure.

Hyperosmolar therapy allows for transient intracranial volume decompression and is the mainstay of emergency medical treatment of intracranial hypertension. Mannitol is a hyper­osmolar polysaccharide that promotes osmotic diuresis and removes excessive cerebral water. In the acute setting, it can be given as an intravenous bolus of 1 to 2 g/kg through a peripheral intravenous line, followed by a bolus every 4 to 6 hours. Hypotension can occur after diuresis, and renal function should be closely monitored since frequent mannitol use can promote acute tubular necrosis. In patients who are anuric, the medication is typically not used.

Hypertonic saline (typically 3% sodium chloride, though different concentrations are available) is an alternative that helps draw interstitial fluid into the intravascular space, decreasing cerebral edema and maintaining hemodynamic stability. Relative contraindications include congestive heart failure or renal failure leading to pulmonary edema from volume overload. Hypertonic saline can be given as a bolus or a constant infusion. Some institutions have rapid access to 23.4% saline, which can be given as a 30-mL bolus but typically requires a central venous catheter for rapid infusion.

Comatose patients with radiographic findings of hydrocephalus, epidural or subdural hematoma, or mass effect with midline shift warrant prompt neurosurgical consultation for further surgical measures of intracranial pressure control and monitoring.

The ‘blown’ pupil

The physician should be concerned about elevated intracranial pressure if a patient has mydriasis, ie, an abnormally dilated (“blown”) pupil, which is a worrisome sign in the setting of true intracranial hypertension. However, many different processes can cause mydriasis and should be kept in mind when evaluating this finding (Table 3).³² If radiographic findings do not suggest elevated intracranial pressure, further workup into these other processes should be pursued.

STATUS EPILEPTICUS: SEIZURE CONTROL IS IMPORTANT

A continuous unremitting seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or recurrent seizure activity in a patient who does not regain consciousness between seizures should be treated as status epilepticus. All seizure types carry the risk of progressing to status epilepticus, and responsiveness to antiepileptic drug therapy is inversely related to the duration of seizures. It is imperative that seizure activity be treated early and aggressively to prevent recalcitrant seizure activity, neuronal damage, and progression to status epilepticus.³³

Once the ABCs of emergency stabilization have been performed (ie, airway, breathing, circulation), antiepileptic drug therapy should start immediately using established algorithms (Figure 1).^34–36 During the course of treatment, the reliability of the neurologic examination may be limited due to medication effects or continued status epilepticus, making continuous video electroencephalographic monitoring often necessary to guide further therapy in patients who are not rapidly recovering.^34–38

Once status epilepticus has resolved, further investigation into the underlying cause should be pursued quickly, especially in patients without a previous diagnosis of epilepsy. Head CT with contrast or magnetic resonance imaging can be used to look for any structural abnormality that may explain seizures. Basic laboratory tests including toxicology screening can identify a common trigger such as hypoglycemia or stimulant use. Fever or other possible signs of meningitis should be investigated further with cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

SPINAL CORD INJURY

Acute spinal cord injury can lead to substantial long-term neurologic impairment and should be suspected in any patient presenting with focal motor loss, sensory loss, or both with sparing of the cranial nerves and mental status. Causes of injury include compression (traumatic or nontraumatic) and inflammatory and noninflammatory myelopathies.

The location of the injury can be inferred by analyzing the symptoms, which can point to the cord level and indicate whether the anterior or posterior of the cord is involved. Anterior cord injury tends to affect the descending corticospinal and pyramidal tracts, resulting in motor deficits and weakness. Posterior cord injury involves the dorsal columns, leading to deficits of vibration sensation and proprioception. High cervical cord injuries tend to involve varying degrees of quadriparesis, sensory loss, and sometimes respiratory compromise. A clinical history of bilateral lower-extremity weakness, a “band-like” sensory complaint around the lower chest or abdomen, or both, can suggest thoracic cord involvement. Symptoms isolated to one or both lower extremities along with lower back pain and bowel or bladder involvement may point to injury of the lumbosacral cord.

Basic management of spinal cord injury includes decompression of the bladder and initial protection against further injury with a stabilizing collar or brace.

Magnetic resonance imaging with and without contrast is the ideal study to evaluate injuries to the spinal cord itself. While CT is helpful in identifying bony disease of the spinal column (eg, evaluating traumatic fractures), it is not helpful in viewing intrinsic cord pathology.

Traumatic myelopathy

Traumatic spinal cord injury is usually suggested by the clinical history and confirmed with CT. In this setting, early consultation with a neurosurgeon is required to prevent permanent cord injury.

Guidelines suggest maintaining a mean arterial pressure greater than 85 to 90 mm Hg for the first 7 days after traumatic spinal cord injury, a particular problem in the setting of hemodynamic instability, which can accompany lesions above the midthoracic level.^39,40

Patients with vertebral body misalignment should be placed in an appropriate stabilizing collar or brace until a medically trained professional deems it appropriate to discontinue the device, or until surgical stabilization is performed.

Methylprednisone is a controversial intervention for acute spinal cord trauma, lacking clear benefit in meta-analyses.⁴¹

Nontraumatic compressive myelopathy

Patients with nontraumatic compressive myelopathy tend to present with varying degrees of back pain and worsening sensorimotor function. The differential diagnosis includes epidural abscesses, hematoma, metastatic neoplasm, and osteophyte compression (Table 4). The clinical history helps to guide therapy and should involve assessment for previous spinal column injury, immunocompromised state, travel history (which provides information on risks of exposure to a variety of diseases, including infections), and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss.

Epidural abscess can have devastating results if missed. Red flags such as recent illness, intravenous drug use, focal back pain, fever, worsening numbness or weakness, and bowel or bladder incontinence should raise suspicion of this disorder. Emergency magnetic resonance imaging is required to diagnose this condition, and treatment involves urgent administration of antibiotics and consideration of surgical drainage.

Noncompressive myelopathies

There are numerous causes of noncompressive spinal cord injury (Table 4), and the etiology may be inflammatory (eg, “myelitis”) or noninflammatory. The diagnostic workup may require both magnetic resonance imaging and cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Acute disease-targeted therapy is rarely indicated and can be deferred until a full diagnostic workup has been completed.

NEUROMUSCULAR DISEASE: IS VENTILATION NEEDED?

Diseases involving the motor components of the peripheral nervous system (Table 5) share the common risk of causing ventilatory failure due to weakness of the diaphragm, intercostal muscles, and upper-airway muscles. Clinicians need to be aware of this risk and view these disorders as neurologic emergencies.

Determining when these patients require mechanical intubation is a challenge. Serial measurements of maximum inspiratory force and vital capacity are important and can be accomplished quickly at the bedside by a respiratory therapist. A maximum inspiratory force less than –30 cm H₂O or a vital capacity less than 20 mL/kg, or both, are worrisome markers that raise concern for impending ventilatory failure. Serial measurements can detect changes in these values that might indicate the need for elective intubation. In any patient presenting with weakness of the limbs, these measurements are an important step in the initial evaluation.

Myasthenic crisis

Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors. Patients demonstrate muscle weakness, usually in a proximal pattern, with fatigue, respiratory distress, nasal speech, ophthalmoparesis, and dysphagia. Exacerbations can occur as a response to recent infection, surgery, or medications such as neuromuscular blocking agents or aminoglycosides.

Myasthenic crisis, while uncommon, is a life-threatening emergency characterized by bulbar or respiratory failure secondary to muscle weakness. It can occur in patients already diagnosed with myasthenia gravis or may be the initial manifestation of the disease.^42–49 Intubation and mechanical ventilation are frequently required. Postoperative myasthenic patients in whom extubation has been delayed more than 24 hours should be considered in crisis.⁴⁵

The diagnosis of myasthenia gravis can be made by serum autoantibody testing, electromyography, and nerve conduction studies (with repetitive stimulation) or administration of edrophonium in patients with obvious ptosis.

The mainstay of therapy for myasthenic crisis is either intravenous immunoglobulin at a dose of 2 g/kg over 2 to 5 days or plasmapheresis (5–7 exchanges over 7–14 days). Corticosteroids are not recommended in myasthenic crisis in patients who are not intubated, as they can potentiate an initial worsening of crisis. Once the patient begins to show clinical improvement, outpatient pyridostigmine and immunosuppressive medications can be resumed at a low dose and titrated as tolerated.

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Guillain-Barré syndrome)

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is an autoimmune disorder involving autoantibodies against axons or myelin in the peripheral nervous system.

This disease should be suspected in a patient who is developing worsening muscle weakness (usually with areflexia) over the course of days to weeks. Occasionally, a recent diarrheal or other systemic infectious trigger can be identified. Blood pressure instability and cardiac arrhythmia can also be seen due to autonomic nerve involvement. Although classically described as an “ascending paralysis,” other variants of this disease have distinct clinical presentations (eg, the descending paralysis, ataxia, areflexia, ophthalmoparesis of the Miller Fisher syndrome).

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is diagnosed by electromyography and nerve conduction studies. A cerebrospinal fluid profile demonstrating elevated protein and few white blood cells is typical.

Treatment, as in myasthenic crisis, involves intravenous immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis. Corticosteroids are ineffective. Anticipation of ventilatory failure and expectant intubation is essential, given the progressive nature of the disorder.⁵⁰

Neurologic emergencies such as acute stroke, status epilepticus, subarachnoid hemorrhage, neuromuscular weakness, and spinal cord injury affect millions of Americans yearly.^1,2 These conditions can be difficult to diagnose, and delays in recognition and treatment can have devastating results. Consequently, it is important for nonneurologists to be able to quickly recognize these conditions and initiate timely management, often while awaiting neurologic consultation.

Here, we review how to recognize and treat these common, serious conditions.

ACUTE ISCHEMIC STROKE: TIME IS OF THE ESSENCE

Stroke is the fourth leading cause of death in the United States and is one of the most common causes of disability worldwide.^3–5 About 85% of strokes are ischemic, resulting from diminished vascular supply to the brain. Symptoms such as facial droop, unilateral weakness or numbness, aphasia, gaze deviation, and unsteadiness of gait may be seen. Time is of the essence, as all currently available interventions are safe and effective only within defined time windows.

Diagnosis and assessment

When acute ischemic stroke is suspected, the clinical history, time of onset, and basic neurologic examination should be obtained quickly.

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) stroke scale is an objective marker for assessing stroke severity as well as evolution of disease and should be obtained in all stroke patients. Scores range from 0 (best) to 42 (worst) (www.ninds.nih.gov/doctors/NIH_Stroke_Scale.pdf).

Time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine, since it guides eligibility for acute therapies. Clinicians should ascertain the last time the patient was seen to be neurologically well in order to estimate this time window as closely as possible.

Laboratory tests should include a fingerstick blood glucose measurement, coagulation studies, complete blood cell count, and basic metabolic profile.

Computed tomography (CT) of the head without contrast should be obtained immediately to exclude acute hemorrhage and any alternative diagnoses that could explain the patient’s symptoms. Acute brain ischemia is often not apparent on CT during the first few hours of injury. Therefore, a patient presenting with new focal neurologic deficits and an unremarkable result on CT of the head should be treated as having had an acute ischemic stroke, and interventional therapies should be considered.

Stroke mimics should be considered and treated, as appropriate (Table 1).

Acute management of ischemic stroke

Acute treatment should not be delayed by obtaining chest radiography, inserting a Foley catheter, or obtaining an electrocardiogram. The longer the time that elapses before treatment, the worse the functional outcome, underscoring the need for rapid decision-making.^6–8

Lowering the head of the bed may provide benefit by promoting blood flow to ischemic brain tissue.⁹ However, this should not be done in patients with significantly elevated intracerebral pressure and concern for herniation.

Permissive hypertension (antihypertensive treatment only for blood pressure greater than 220/110 mm Hg) should be allowed per national guidelines to provide adequate perfusion to brain areas at risk of injury.¹⁰

Tissue plasminogen activator. Patients with ischemic stroke who present within 3 hours of symptom onset should be considered for intravenous administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), a safe and effective therapy with nearly 2 decades of evidence to support its use.¹⁰ The treating physician should carefully review the risks and benefits of this therapy.

To receive tPA, the patient must have all of the following:

• Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke with measurable neurologic deficit
• Onset of symptoms within the past 3 hours
• Age 18 or older.

The patient must not have any of the following:

• Significant stroke within the past 3 months
• Severe traumatic head injury within the past 3 months
• History of significant intracerebral hemorrhage
• Previously ruptured arteriovenous malformation or intracranial aneurysm
• Central nervous system neoplasm
• Arterial puncture at a noncompressible site within the past 7 days
• Evidence of hemorrhage on CT of the head
• Evidence of ischemia in greater than 33% of the cerebral hemisphere on head CT
• History and symptoms strongly suggesting subarachnoid hemorrhage
• Persistent hypertension (systolic pressure ≥ 185 mm Hg or diastolic pressure ≥ 110 mm Hg)
• Evidence of acute significant bleeding (external or internal)
• Hypoglycemia—ie, serum glucose less than 50 mg/dL (< 2.8 mmol/L)
• Thrombocytopenia (platelet count < 100 × 10⁹/L)
• Significant coagulopathy (international normalized ratio > 1.7, prothrombin time > 15 seconds, or abnormally elevated activated partial thromboplastin time)
• Current use of a factor Xa inhibitor or direct thrombin inhibitor.

Relative contraindications:

• Minor or rapidly resolving symptoms
• Major surgery or trauma within the past 14 days
• Gastrointestinal or urinary tract bleeding within the past 21 days
• Myocardial infarction in the past 3 months
• Unruptured intracranial aneurysm
• Seizure occurring at stroke onset
• Pregnancy.

If these criteria are satisfied, tPA should be given at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg intravenously over 60 minutes. Ten percent  of the dose should be given as an initial bolus, followed by a constant infusion of the remaining 90% over 1 hour.

If tPA is given, the blood pressure must be kept lower than 185/110 mm Hg to minimize the risk of symptomatic intracerebral hemorrhage.

A subset of patients may benefit from receiving intravenous tPA between 3 and 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms. These include patients who are no more than 80 years old, who have not recently used oral anticoagulants, who do not have severe neurologic injury (ie, do not have NIH Stroke Scale scores > 25), and who do not have diabetes mellitus or a history of ischemic stroke.¹¹ Although many hospitals have such a protocol for tPA up to 4.5 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms, this time window is not currently approved by the US Food and Drug Administration.

Intra-arterial therapy. Based on recent trials, some patients may benefit further from intra-arterial thrombolysis or mechanical thrombectomy, both delivered during catheter-based cerebral angiography, independent of intravenous tPA administration.^12,13 These patients should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis by a neurologist and neurointerventional team. Time windows for these treatments generally extend to 6 hours from stroke onset and perhaps even longer in some situations (eg, basilar artery occlusion).

An antiplatelet agent should be started quickly in all stroke patients who do not receive tPA. Patients who receive tPA can begin receiving an antiplatelet agent 24 hours afterward.

Unfractionated heparin. There is no evidence to support the use of unfractionated heparin in most cases of acute ischemic stroke.¹⁰

Glucose control (in the range of 140–180 mg/dL) and fever control remain essential elements of post-acute stroke care to provide additional protection to the damaged brain.

For ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation

In ischemic stroke due to atrial fibrillation, early anticoagulation should be considered, based on the CHA₂DS₂-VASC risk of ischemic stroke vs the HAS-BLED risk of hemorrhage (calculators available at www.mdcalc.com).

In general, anticoagulation may be withheld during the first 72 hours while further stroke workup and evaluation of extent of injury are carried out, as there is an increased risk of hemorrhagic transformation of the ischemic stroke. Often, anticoagulation is resumed at a full dose between 72 hours and 2 weeks of the ischemic stroke.

ACUTE HEMORRHAGIC STROKE: BLOOD PRESSURE, COAGULATION

Approximately 15% of strokes are caused by intracerebral hemorrhage, which can be detected with noncontrast head CT with a sensitivity of 98.6% within 6 hours of the onset of bleeding.¹⁴ A common underlying cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is chronic poorly controlled hypertension, causing rupture of damaged (or “lipohyalinized”) vessels with resultant blood extravasation into the brain parenchyma. Other causes are less common (Table 2).

Treatment of acute hemorrhagic stroke

Acute treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage includes blood pressure control, reversal of underlying coagulopathy or anticoagulation, and sometimes intracranial pressure control. There is little role for surgery in most cases, based on findings of randomized trials.¹⁵

Blood pressure control. Many studies have investigated optimal blood pressure goals in acute intracerebral hemorrhage. Recent data suggest that early aggressive therapy, targeting a systolic blood pressure goal less than 140 mm Hg within the first hour, is safe and can lead to better functional outcomes than a more conservative blood-pressure-lowering target.¹⁶ Rapid-onset, short-acting antihypertensive agents in intravenous form, such as nicardipine and labetalol, are frequently used. Of note, this treatment strategy for hemorrhagic stroke is in direct contrast to the treatment of ischemic stroke, in which permissive hypertension (blood pressure goal < 220/110 mm Hg) is often pursued.

Reversal of any coagulation abnormalities should be done quickly in intracranial hemorrhage. Warfarin use has been shown to be a strong independent predictor of intracranial hemorrhage expansion, which increases the risk of death.^17,18

Increasingly, agents other than vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma are being used to rapidly reverse anticoagulation, including prothrombin complex concentrate (available in three- and four-factor preparations) and recombinant factor VIIa. While four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate and recombinant factor VIIa have been shown to be more efficacious than fresh-frozen plasma, there are limited data directly comparing these newer reversal agents against each other.¹⁹ The use of these medications is limited by availability and practitioner familiarity.^20–22

Reversing anticoagulation due to target-specific oral anticoagulants. The acute management of intracranial hemorrhage in patients taking the new target-specific oral anticoagulants (eg, dabigatran, apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban) remains challenging. Laboratory tests such as factor Xa levels are not readily available in many institutions and do not provide results in a timely fashion, and in the interim, acute hemorrhage and clinical deterioration may occur. Management strategies involve giving fresh-frozen plasma, prothrombin complex concentrate, and consideration of hemodialysis.²³ Dabigatran reversal with idarucizumab has recently been shown to have efficacy.²⁴

Vigilance for elevated intracranial pressure. Intracranial hemorrhage can occasionally cause elevated intracranial pressure, which should be treated rapidly. Any acute decline in mental status in a patient with intracranial hemorrhage requires emergency imaging to evaluate for expansion of hemorrhage.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

The sudden onset of a “thunderclap” headache (often described by patients as “the worst headache of my life”) suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage.

In contrast to intracranial hemorrhage, in subarachnoid hemorrhage blood collects mainly in the cerebral spinal fluid-containing spaces surrounding the brain, leading to a higher incidence of hydrocephalus from impaired drainage of cerebrospinal fluid. Nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is most often caused by rupture of an intracranial aneurysm, which can be a devastating event, with death rates approaching 50%.²⁵

Diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Noncontrast CT of the head is the main modality for diagnosing subarachnoid hemorrhage. Blood within the subarachnoid space is demonstrable in 92% of cases if CT is performed within the first 24 hours of hemorrhage, with an initial sensitivity of about 95% within the first 6 hours of onset.^14,26,27 The longer CT is delayed, the lower the sensitivity.

Some studies suggest that a protocol of CT followed by CT angiography can safely exclude aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage and obviate the need for lumbar puncture. However, further research is required to validate this approach.²⁸

Lumbar puncture. If clinical suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage remains strong even though initial CT is negative, lumbar puncture must be performed for cerebrospinal fluid analysis.²⁹ Xanthochromia (a yellowish pigmentation of the cerebrospinal fluid due to the degeneration of blood products that occurs within 8 to 12 hours of bleeding) should raise the alarm for subarachnoid hemorrhage; this sign may be present up to 4 weeks after the bleeding event.³⁰

If lumbar puncture is contraindicated, then aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage has not been ruled out, and further neurologic consultation should be pursued.

Management of subarachnoid hemorrhage

Early management of blood pressure for a ruptured intracranial aneurysm follows strategies similar to those for intracranial hemorrhage. Further investigation is rapidly directed toward an underlying vascular malformation, with intracranial vessel imaging such as CT angiography, magnetic resonance angiography, or the gold standard test—catheter-based cerebral angiography.

Aneurysms are treated (or “secured”) either by surgical clipping or by endovascular coiling. Endovascular coiling is preferable in cases in which both can be safely attempted.³¹ If the facility lacks the resources to do these procedures, the patient should be referred to a nearby tertiary care center.

INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION: DANGER OF BRAIN HERNIATION

A number of conditions can cause an acute intracranial pressure elevation. The danger of brain herniation requires that therapies be implemented rapidly to prevent catastrophic neurologic injury. In many situations, nonneurologists are the first responders and therefore should be familiar with basic intracranial pressure management.

Initial symptoms of acute rise in intracranial pressure

As intracranial pressure rises, pressure is typically equally distributed throughout the cranial vault, leading to dysfunction of the ascending reticular activating system, which clinically manifests as the inability to stay alert despite varying degrees of noxious stimulation. Progressive cranial neuropathies (often starting with pupillary abnormalities) and coma are often seen in this setting as the upper brainstem begins to be compressed.

Initial assessment and treatment of elevated intracranial pressure

Noncontrast CT of the head is often obtained immediately when acutely elevated intracranial pressure is suspected. If clinical examination and radiographic findings are consistent with intracranial hypertension, prompt measures can be started at the bedside.

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees to promote venous drainage and reduce intracranial pressure. (In contrast, most other hemodynamically unstable patients are placed flat or in the Trendelenburg position.)

Intubation should be done quickly in cases of airway compromise, and hyperventilation should be started with a goal Paco₂ of 30 to 35 mm Hg. This hypocarbic strategy promotes cerebral vasoconstriction and a transient decrease in intracranial pressure.

Hyperosmolar therapy allows for transient intracranial volume decompression and is the mainstay of emergency medical treatment of intracranial hypertension. Mannitol is a hyper­osmolar polysaccharide that promotes osmotic diuresis and removes excessive cerebral water. In the acute setting, it can be given as an intravenous bolus of 1 to 2 g/kg through a peripheral intravenous line, followed by a bolus every 4 to 6 hours. Hypotension can occur after diuresis, and renal function should be closely monitored since frequent mannitol use can promote acute tubular necrosis. In patients who are anuric, the medication is typically not used.

Hypertonic saline (typically 3% sodium chloride, though different concentrations are available) is an alternative that helps draw interstitial fluid into the intravascular space, decreasing cerebral edema and maintaining hemodynamic stability. Relative contraindications include congestive heart failure or renal failure leading to pulmonary edema from volume overload. Hypertonic saline can be given as a bolus or a constant infusion. Some institutions have rapid access to 23.4% saline, which can be given as a 30-mL bolus but typically requires a central venous catheter for rapid infusion.

Comatose patients with radiographic findings of hydrocephalus, epidural or subdural hematoma, or mass effect with midline shift warrant prompt neurosurgical consultation for further surgical measures of intracranial pressure control and monitoring.

The ‘blown’ pupil

The physician should be concerned about elevated intracranial pressure if a patient has mydriasis, ie, an abnormally dilated (“blown”) pupil, which is a worrisome sign in the setting of true intracranial hypertension. However, many different processes can cause mydriasis and should be kept in mind when evaluating this finding (Table 3).³² If radiographic findings do not suggest elevated intracranial pressure, further workup into these other processes should be pursued.

STATUS EPILEPTICUS: SEIZURE CONTROL IS IMPORTANT

A continuous unremitting seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or recurrent seizure activity in a patient who does not regain consciousness between seizures should be treated as status epilepticus. All seizure types carry the risk of progressing to status epilepticus, and responsiveness to antiepileptic drug therapy is inversely related to the duration of seizures. It is imperative that seizure activity be treated early and aggressively to prevent recalcitrant seizure activity, neuronal damage, and progression to status epilepticus.³³

Once the ABCs of emergency stabilization have been performed (ie, airway, breathing, circulation), antiepileptic drug therapy should start immediately using established algorithms (Figure 1).^34–36 During the course of treatment, the reliability of the neurologic examination may be limited due to medication effects or continued status epilepticus, making continuous video electroencephalographic monitoring often necessary to guide further therapy in patients who are not rapidly recovering.^34–38

Once status epilepticus has resolved, further investigation into the underlying cause should be pursued quickly, especially in patients without a previous diagnosis of epilepsy. Head CT with contrast or magnetic resonance imaging can be used to look for any structural abnormality that may explain seizures. Basic laboratory tests including toxicology screening can identify a common trigger such as hypoglycemia or stimulant use. Fever or other possible signs of meningitis should be investigated further with cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

SPINAL CORD INJURY

Acute spinal cord injury can lead to substantial long-term neurologic impairment and should be suspected in any patient presenting with focal motor loss, sensory loss, or both with sparing of the cranial nerves and mental status. Causes of injury include compression (traumatic or nontraumatic) and inflammatory and noninflammatory myelopathies.

The location of the injury can be inferred by analyzing the symptoms, which can point to the cord level and indicate whether the anterior or posterior of the cord is involved. Anterior cord injury tends to affect the descending corticospinal and pyramidal tracts, resulting in motor deficits and weakness. Posterior cord injury involves the dorsal columns, leading to deficits of vibration sensation and proprioception. High cervical cord injuries tend to involve varying degrees of quadriparesis, sensory loss, and sometimes respiratory compromise. A clinical history of bilateral lower-extremity weakness, a “band-like” sensory complaint around the lower chest or abdomen, or both, can suggest thoracic cord involvement. Symptoms isolated to one or both lower extremities along with lower back pain and bowel or bladder involvement may point to injury of the lumbosacral cord.

Basic management of spinal cord injury includes decompression of the bladder and initial protection against further injury with a stabilizing collar or brace.

Magnetic resonance imaging with and without contrast is the ideal study to evaluate injuries to the spinal cord itself. While CT is helpful in identifying bony disease of the spinal column (eg, evaluating traumatic fractures), it is not helpful in viewing intrinsic cord pathology.

Traumatic myelopathy

Traumatic spinal cord injury is usually suggested by the clinical history and confirmed with CT. In this setting, early consultation with a neurosurgeon is required to prevent permanent cord injury.

Guidelines suggest maintaining a mean arterial pressure greater than 85 to 90 mm Hg for the first 7 days after traumatic spinal cord injury, a particular problem in the setting of hemodynamic instability, which can accompany lesions above the midthoracic level.^39,40

Patients with vertebral body misalignment should be placed in an appropriate stabilizing collar or brace until a medically trained professional deems it appropriate to discontinue the device, or until surgical stabilization is performed.

Methylprednisone is a controversial intervention for acute spinal cord trauma, lacking clear benefit in meta-analyses.⁴¹

Nontraumatic compressive myelopathy

Patients with nontraumatic compressive myelopathy tend to present with varying degrees of back pain and worsening sensorimotor function. The differential diagnosis includes epidural abscesses, hematoma, metastatic neoplasm, and osteophyte compression (Table 4). The clinical history helps to guide therapy and should involve assessment for previous spinal column injury, immunocompromised state, travel history (which provides information on risks of exposure to a variety of diseases, including infections), and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss.

Epidural abscess can have devastating results if missed. Red flags such as recent illness, intravenous drug use, focal back pain, fever, worsening numbness or weakness, and bowel or bladder incontinence should raise suspicion of this disorder. Emergency magnetic resonance imaging is required to diagnose this condition, and treatment involves urgent administration of antibiotics and consideration of surgical drainage.

Noncompressive myelopathies

There are numerous causes of noncompressive spinal cord injury (Table 4), and the etiology may be inflammatory (eg, “myelitis”) or noninflammatory. The diagnostic workup may require both magnetic resonance imaging and cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Acute disease-targeted therapy is rarely indicated and can be deferred until a full diagnostic workup has been completed.

NEUROMUSCULAR DISEASE: IS VENTILATION NEEDED?

Diseases involving the motor components of the peripheral nervous system (Table 5) share the common risk of causing ventilatory failure due to weakness of the diaphragm, intercostal muscles, and upper-airway muscles. Clinicians need to be aware of this risk and view these disorders as neurologic emergencies.

Determining when these patients require mechanical intubation is a challenge. Serial measurements of maximum inspiratory force and vital capacity are important and can be accomplished quickly at the bedside by a respiratory therapist. A maximum inspiratory force less than –30 cm H₂O or a vital capacity less than 20 mL/kg, or both, are worrisome markers that raise concern for impending ventilatory failure. Serial measurements can detect changes in these values that might indicate the need for elective intubation. In any patient presenting with weakness of the limbs, these measurements are an important step in the initial evaluation.

Myasthenic crisis

Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors. Patients demonstrate muscle weakness, usually in a proximal pattern, with fatigue, respiratory distress, nasal speech, ophthalmoparesis, and dysphagia. Exacerbations can occur as a response to recent infection, surgery, or medications such as neuromuscular blocking agents or aminoglycosides.

Myasthenic crisis, while uncommon, is a life-threatening emergency characterized by bulbar or respiratory failure secondary to muscle weakness. It can occur in patients already diagnosed with myasthenia gravis or may be the initial manifestation of the disease.^42–49 Intubation and mechanical ventilation are frequently required. Postoperative myasthenic patients in whom extubation has been delayed more than 24 hours should be considered in crisis.⁴⁵

The diagnosis of myasthenia gravis can be made by serum autoantibody testing, electromyography, and nerve conduction studies (with repetitive stimulation) or administration of edrophonium in patients with obvious ptosis.

The mainstay of therapy for myasthenic crisis is either intravenous immunoglobulin at a dose of 2 g/kg over 2 to 5 days or plasmapheresis (5–7 exchanges over 7–14 days). Corticosteroids are not recommended in myasthenic crisis in patients who are not intubated, as they can potentiate an initial worsening of crisis. Once the patient begins to show clinical improvement, outpatient pyridostigmine and immunosuppressive medications can be resumed at a low dose and titrated as tolerated.

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Guillain-Barré syndrome)

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is an autoimmune disorder involving autoantibodies against axons or myelin in the peripheral nervous system.

This disease should be suspected in a patient who is developing worsening muscle weakness (usually with areflexia) over the course of days to weeks. Occasionally, a recent diarrheal or other systemic infectious trigger can be identified. Blood pressure instability and cardiac arrhythmia can also be seen due to autonomic nerve involvement. Although classically described as an “ascending paralysis,” other variants of this disease have distinct clinical presentations (eg, the descending paralysis, ataxia, areflexia, ophthalmoparesis of the Miller Fisher syndrome).

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is diagnosed by electromyography and nerve conduction studies. A cerebrospinal fluid profile demonstrating elevated protein and few white blood cells is typical.

Treatment, as in myasthenic crisis, involves intravenous immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis. Corticosteroids are ineffective. Anticipation of ventilatory failure and expectant intubation is essential, given the progressive nature of the disorder.⁵⁰

A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 7-day history of fatigue and nausea. On presentation she denies having abdominal pain, headache, fever, chills, night sweats, vomiting, diarrhea, melena, hematochezia, or weight loss. She recalls changes in the colors of her eyes and darkening urine over the last few days. Her medical history before this is unremarkable. She takes no prescription, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. She works as a librarian and has no occupational toxic exposures. She is single and has one sister with no prior medical history. She denies recent travel, sick contacts, smoking, recreational drug use, or pets at home.

On physical examination, her vital signs are temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F), heart rate 90 beats per minute, blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg, respiration rate 14 per minute, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. She has icteric sclera and her skin is jaundiced. Cardiac examination is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft with no visceromegaly, masses, or tenderness. Extremities are normal with no edema. She is alert and oriented, but she has mild asterixis of the outstretched hands. The neurologic examination is otherwise unremarkable.

The patient’s basic laboratory values are listed in Table 1. Shortly after admission, she develops changes in her mental status, remaining alert but becoming agitated and oriented to person only. In view of her symptoms and laboratory findings, acute liver failure is suspected.

ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

1. The diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure include all of the following except which one?

• Acute elevation of liver biochemical tests
• Presence of preexisting liver disease
• Coagulopathy, defined by an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.5 or greater
• Encephalopathy
• Duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks

Acute liver failure is defined by acute onset of worsening liver tests, coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5), and encephalopathy in patients with no preexisting liver disease and with symptom duration of less than 26 weeks.¹ With a few exceptions, a history of preexisting liver disease negates the diagnosis of acute liver failure. Our patient meets the diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure.

Immediate management

Once acute liver failure is identified or suspected, the next step is to transfer the patient to the intensive care unit for close monitoring of mental status. Serial neurologic evaluations permit early detection of cerebral edema, which is considered the most common cause of death in patients with acute liver failure. Additionally, close monitoring of electrolytes and plasma glucose is necessary since these patients are susceptible to electrolyte disturbances and hypoglycemia.

Patients with acute liver failure are at increased risk of infections and should be routinely screened by obtaining urine and blood cultures.

Gastrointestinal bleeding is not uncommon in patients with acute liver failure and is usually due to gastric stress ulceration. Prophylaxis with a histamine 2 receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor should be considered in order to prevent gastrointestinal bleeding.

Treatment with N-acetylcysteine is beneficial, not only in patients with acute liver failure due to acetaminophen overdose, but also in those with acute liver failure from other causes.

CASE CONTINUES:
TRANSFER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

The patient, now diagnosed with acute liver failure, is transferred to the intensive care unit. Arterial blood gas measurement shows:

• pH 7.38 (reference range 7.35–7.45)
• Pco₂ 40 mm Hg (36–46)
• Po₂ 97 mm Hg (85–95)
• Hco₃ 22 mmol/L (22–26).

A chest radiograph is obtained and is clear. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain reveals no edema. Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography does not show any intracranial fluid collections.

Blood and urine cultures are negative. Her hemoglobin level remains stable, and she does not develop signs of bleeding. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor for stress ulcer prophylaxis and is empirically given intravenous N-acetylcysteine until the cause of acute liver failure can be determined.

CAUSES OF ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

2. Which of the following can cause acute liver failure?

• Acetaminophen overdose
• Viral hepatitis
• Autoimmune hepatitis
• Wilson disease
• Alcoholic hepatitis

Drug-induced liver injury is the most common cause of acute liver failure in the United States,^2,3 and of all drugs, acetaminophen overdose is the number-one cause. In acetaminophen-induced liver injury, serum aminotransferase levels are usually elevated to more than 1,000 U/L, while serum bilirubin remains normal in the early stages. Antimicrobial agents, antiepileptic drugs, and herbal supplements have also been implicated in acute liver failure. Our patient has denied taking herbal supplements or medications, including over-the-counter ones.

Acute viral hepatitis can explain the patient’s condition. It is a common cause of acute liver failure in the United States.² Hepatitis A and E are more common in developing countries. Other viruses such as cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2, and varicella zoster virus can also cause acute liver failure. Serum aminotransferase levels may exceed 1,000 U/L in patients with viral hepatitis.

A young woman presents with acute liver failure: What is the cause? Is her sister at risk?

Autoimmune hepatitis is a rare cause of acute liver failure, but it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, particularly in middle-aged women with autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism. Autoimmune hepatitis can cause marked elevation in aminotransferase levels (> 1,000 U/L).

Wilson disease is an autosomal-recessive disease in which there is excessive accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs because of an inherited defect in the biliary excretion of copper. Wilson disease can cause acute liver failure and should be excluded in any patient, particularly if under age 40 with acute onset of unexplained hepatic, neurologic, or psychiatric disease.

Alcoholic hepatitis usually occurs in patients with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol use. As a result, most patients with alcoholic hepatitis have manifestations of chronic liver disease due to alcohol use. Therefore, by definition, it is not a cause of acute liver failure. Additionally, in patients with alcoholic hepatitis, the aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level is elevated but less than 300 IU/mL, and the ratio of AST to alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually more than 2.

CASE CONTINUES: FURTHER TESTING

The results of our patient’s serologic tests are shown in Table 2. Other test results:

• Autoimmune markers including antinuclear antibodies, antimitochondrial antibodies, antismooth muscle antibodies, and liver and kidney microsomal antibodies are negative; her immunoglobulin G (IgG) level is normal
• Serum ceruloplasmin 25 mg/dL (normal 21–45)
• Free serum copper 120 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Abdominal ultrasonography is unremarkable, with normal liver parenchyma and no intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary dilatation
• Doppler ultrasonography of the liver shows patent blood vessels.

3. Based on the new data, which of the following statements is correct?

• Hepatitis B is the cause of acute liver failure in this patient
• Herpetic hepatitis cannot be excluded on the basis of the available data
• Wilson disease is most likely the diagnosis, given her elevated free serum copper
• A normal serum ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease

Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies were negative in our patient, excluding hepatitis B virus infection. The positive hepatitis B surface antibody indicates prior immunization.

Herpetic hepatitis is an uncommon but important cause of acute liver failure because the mortality rate is high if the patient is not treated early with acyclovir. Fever, elevated aminotransferases, and leukopenia are common with herpetic hepatitis. Fewer than 50% of patients with herpetic hepatitis have vesicular rash.^4,5 The value of antibody serologic testing is limited due to high rates of false-positive and false-negative results. The gold standard diagnostic tests are viral load (detection of viral RNA by polymerase chain reaction), viral staining on liver biopsy, or both. In our patient, herpes simplex virus polymerase chain reaction testing was negative, which makes herpetic hepatitis unlikely.

Wilson disease is a genetic condition in which the ability to excrete copper in the bile is impaired, resulting in accumulation of copper in the hepatocytes. Subsequently, copper is released into the bloodstream and eventually into the urine.

However, copper excretion into the bile is impaired in patients with acute liver failure regardless of the etiology. Therefore, elevated free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper levels are not specific for the diagnosis of acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease. Moreover, Kayser-Fleischer rings, which represent copper deposition in the limbus of the cornea, may not be apparent in the early stages of Wilson disease.

Wilson disease involves accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs as the result of a genetic defect

Since it is challenging to diagnose Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure, Korman et al⁶ compared patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease with patients with acute liver failure secondary to other conditions. They found that alkaline phosphatase levels are frequently decreased in patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease,⁶ and that a ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 is 94% sensitive and 96% specific for the diagnosis.⁶

Hemolysis is common in acute liver failure due to Wilson disease. This leads to disproportionate elevation of AST compared with ALT, since AST is present in red blood cells. Consequently, the ratio of AST to ALT is usually greater than 2.2, which provides a sensitivity of 94% and a specificity of 86% for the diagnosis.⁶ These two ratios together provide 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity for the diagnosis of Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure.⁶

Ceruloplasmin. Patients with Wilson disease typically have a low ceruloplasmin level. However, because it is an acute-phase reaction protein, ceruloplasmin can be normal or elevated in patients with acute liver failure from Wilson disease.⁶ Therefore, a normal ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

CASE CONTINUES: A DEFINITIVE DIAGNOSIS

Our patient undergoes further testing, which reveals the following:

• Her 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is 150 µg (reference value < 30)
• Slit-lamp examination is normal and shows no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings
• Her ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin is 0.77 based on her initial laboratory results (Table 1)
• Her AST-ALT ratio is 3.4.

The diagnosis in our patient is acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

4. What is the most appropriate next step?

• Liver biopsy
• d-penicillamine by mouth
• Trientine by mouth
• Liver transplant
• Plasmapheresis

Liver biopsy. Accumulation of copper in the liver parenchyma in patients with Wilson disease is sporadic. Therefore, qualitative copper staining on liver biopsy can be falsely negative. Quantitative copper measurement in liver tissue is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Wilson disease. However, the test is time-consuming and is not rapidly available in the context of acute liver failure.

Chelating agents such as d-pencillamine and trientine are used to treat the chronic manifestations of Wilson disease but are not useful for acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is life-threatening, and liver transplant is considered the only definitive life-saving therapy.

Therapeutic plasmapheresis has been reported to be a successful adjunctive therapy to bridge patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease to transplant.⁷ However, liver transplant is still the only definitive treatment.

CASE CONTINUES: THE PATIENT’S SISTER SEEKS CARE

The patient undergoes liver transplantation, with no perioperative or postoperative complications.

The patient’s 18-year-old sister is now seeking medical attention in the outpatient clinic, concerned that she may have Wilson disease. She is otherwise healthy and denies any symptoms or complaints.

5. What is the next step for the patient’s sister?

• Reassurance
• Prophylaxis with trientine
• Check liver enzyme levels, serum ceruloplasmin level, and urine copper, and order a slit-lamp examination
• Genetic testing

Wilson disease can be asymptomatic in its early stages and may be diagnosed incidentally during routine blood tests that reveal abnormal liver enzyme levels. All patients with a confirmed family history of Wilson disease should be screened even if they are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of Wilson disease should be established in first-degree relatives before specific treatment for the relatives is prescribed.

Based on information in Roberts EA, Schilsky ML; American Association for Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD). Diagnosis and treatment of Wilson disease: an update. Hepatology 2008; 7:2089–2111.

The first step in screening a first-degree relative for Wilson disease is to check liver enzyme levels (specifically aminotransferases, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin), serum ceruloplasmin level, and 24-hour urine copper, and order an ophthalmologic slit-lamp examination. If any of these tests is abnormal, liver biopsy should be performed for histopathologic evaluation and quantitative copper measurement. Kayser-Fleischer  rings are seen in only 50% of patients with Wilson disease and hepatic involvement, but they are pathognomic. Guidelines⁸ for screening first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients are shown in Figure 1.

Genetic analysis. ATP7B, the Wilson disease gene, is located on chromosome 13. At least 300 mutations of the gene have been described,² and the most common mutation is present in only 15% to 30% of the Wilson disease population.^8–10 Routine molecular testing of the ATP7B

CASE CONTINUES: WORKUP OF THE PATIENT’S SISTER

The patient’s sister has no symptoms and her physical examination is normal. Slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings. Her laboratory values, including complete blood counts, complete metabolic panel, and INR, are within normal ranges. Other test results, however, are abnormal:

• Free serum copper level 27 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Serum ceruloplasmin 9.0 mg/dL (normal 20–50)
• 24-hour urinary copper excretion 135 µg (normal < 30).

She undergoes liver biopsy for quantitative copper measurement, and the result is very high at 1,118 µg/g dry weight (reference range 10–35). The diagnosis of Wilson disease is established.

TREATING CHRONIC WILSON DISEASE

6. Which of the following is not an appropriate next step for the patient’s sister?

• Tetrathiomolybdate
• d-penicillamine
• Trientine
• Zinc salts
• Prednisone

The goal of medical treatment of chronic Wilson disease is to improve symptoms and prevent progression of the disease.

Chelating agents and zinc salts are the most commonly used medicines in the management of Wilson disease. Chelating agents remove copper from tissue, whereas zinc blocks the intestinal absorption of copper and stimulates the synthesis of endogenous chelators such as metallothioneins. Tetrathiomolybdate is an alternative agent developed to interfere with the distribution of excess body copper to susceptible target sites by reducing free serum copper (Table 3). There are no data to support the use of prednisone in the treatment of Wilson disease.

During treatment with chelating agents, 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is routinely monitored to determine the efficacy of therapy and adherence to treatment. Once de-coppering is achieved, as evidenced by a normalization of 24-hour urine copper excretion, the chelating agent can be switched to zinc salts to prevent intestinal absorption of copper.

Clinical and biochemical stabilization is achieved typically within 2 to 6 months of the initial treatment with chelating agents.⁸ Organ meats, nuts, shellfish, and chocolate are rich in copper and should be avoided.

The patient’s sister is started on trientine 250 mg orally three times daily on an empty stomach at least 1 hour before meals. Treatment is monitored by following 24-hour urine copper measurement. A 24-hour urine copper measurement at 3 months after starting treatment has increased from 54 at baseline to 350 µg, which indicates that the copper is being removed from tissues. The plan is for early substitution of zinc for long-term maintenance once de-coppering is completed.

KEY POINTS

• Acute liver failure is severe acute liver injury characterized by coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5) and encephalopathy in a patient with no preexisting liver disease and with duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks.
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is uncommon but should be excluded, particularly in young patients.
• The diagnosis of Wilson disease in the setting of acute liver failure is challenging because the serum ceruloplasmin level may be normal in acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease, and free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper are usually elevated in all acute liver failure patients regardless of the etiology.
• A ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 plus an AST-ALT ratio greater than 2.2 in a patient with acute liver failure should be regarded as Wilson disease until proven otherwise (Figure 2).
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is usually fatal, and emergency liver transplant is a life-saving procedure.
• Screening of first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients should include a history and physical examination, liver enzyme tests, complete blood cell count, serum ceruloplasmin level, serum free copper level, slit-lamp examination of the eyes, and 24-hour urinary copper measurement. Genetic tests are supplementary for screening but are not routinely available.

A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 7-day history of fatigue and nausea. On presentation she denies having abdominal pain, headache, fever, chills, night sweats, vomiting, diarrhea, melena, hematochezia, or weight loss. She recalls changes in the colors of her eyes and darkening urine over the last few days. Her medical history before this is unremarkable. She takes no prescription, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. She works as a librarian and has no occupational toxic exposures. She is single and has one sister with no prior medical history. She denies recent travel, sick contacts, smoking, recreational drug use, or pets at home.

On physical examination, her vital signs are temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F), heart rate 90 beats per minute, blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg, respiration rate 14 per minute, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. She has icteric sclera and her skin is jaundiced. Cardiac examination is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft with no visceromegaly, masses, or tenderness. Extremities are normal with no edema. She is alert and oriented, but she has mild asterixis of the outstretched hands. The neurologic examination is otherwise unremarkable.

The patient’s basic laboratory values are listed in Table 1. Shortly after admission, she develops changes in her mental status, remaining alert but becoming agitated and oriented to person only. In view of her symptoms and laboratory findings, acute liver failure is suspected.

ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

1. The diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure include all of the following except which one?

• Acute elevation of liver biochemical tests
• Presence of preexisting liver disease
• Coagulopathy, defined by an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.5 or greater
• Encephalopathy
• Duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks

Acute liver failure is defined by acute onset of worsening liver tests, coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5), and encephalopathy in patients with no preexisting liver disease and with symptom duration of less than 26 weeks.¹ With a few exceptions, a history of preexisting liver disease negates the diagnosis of acute liver failure. Our patient meets the diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure.

Immediate management

Once acute liver failure is identified or suspected, the next step is to transfer the patient to the intensive care unit for close monitoring of mental status. Serial neurologic evaluations permit early detection of cerebral edema, which is considered the most common cause of death in patients with acute liver failure. Additionally, close monitoring of electrolytes and plasma glucose is necessary since these patients are susceptible to electrolyte disturbances and hypoglycemia.

Patients with acute liver failure are at increased risk of infections and should be routinely screened by obtaining urine and blood cultures.

Gastrointestinal bleeding is not uncommon in patients with acute liver failure and is usually due to gastric stress ulceration. Prophylaxis with a histamine 2 receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor should be considered in order to prevent gastrointestinal bleeding.

Treatment with N-acetylcysteine is beneficial, not only in patients with acute liver failure due to acetaminophen overdose, but also in those with acute liver failure from other causes.

CASE CONTINUES:
TRANSFER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

The patient, now diagnosed with acute liver failure, is transferred to the intensive care unit. Arterial blood gas measurement shows:

• pH 7.38 (reference range 7.35–7.45)
• Pco₂ 40 mm Hg (36–46)
• Po₂ 97 mm Hg (85–95)
• Hco₃ 22 mmol/L (22–26).

A chest radiograph is obtained and is clear. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain reveals no edema. Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography does not show any intracranial fluid collections.

Blood and urine cultures are negative. Her hemoglobin level remains stable, and she does not develop signs of bleeding. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor for stress ulcer prophylaxis and is empirically given intravenous N-acetylcysteine until the cause of acute liver failure can be determined.

CAUSES OF ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

2. Which of the following can cause acute liver failure?

• Acetaminophen overdose
• Viral hepatitis
• Autoimmune hepatitis
• Wilson disease
• Alcoholic hepatitis

Drug-induced liver injury is the most common cause of acute liver failure in the United States,^2,3 and of all drugs, acetaminophen overdose is the number-one cause. In acetaminophen-induced liver injury, serum aminotransferase levels are usually elevated to more than 1,000 U/L, while serum bilirubin remains normal in the early stages. Antimicrobial agents, antiepileptic drugs, and herbal supplements have also been implicated in acute liver failure. Our patient has denied taking herbal supplements or medications, including over-the-counter ones.

Acute viral hepatitis can explain the patient’s condition. It is a common cause of acute liver failure in the United States.² Hepatitis A and E are more common in developing countries. Other viruses such as cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2, and varicella zoster virus can also cause acute liver failure. Serum aminotransferase levels may exceed 1,000 U/L in patients with viral hepatitis.

A young woman presents with acute liver failure: What is the cause? Is her sister at risk?

Autoimmune hepatitis is a rare cause of acute liver failure, but it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, particularly in middle-aged women with autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism. Autoimmune hepatitis can cause marked elevation in aminotransferase levels (> 1,000 U/L).

Wilson disease is an autosomal-recessive disease in which there is excessive accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs because of an inherited defect in the biliary excretion of copper. Wilson disease can cause acute liver failure and should be excluded in any patient, particularly if under age 40 with acute onset of unexplained hepatic, neurologic, or psychiatric disease.

Alcoholic hepatitis usually occurs in patients with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol use. As a result, most patients with alcoholic hepatitis have manifestations of chronic liver disease due to alcohol use. Therefore, by definition, it is not a cause of acute liver failure. Additionally, in patients with alcoholic hepatitis, the aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level is elevated but less than 300 IU/mL, and the ratio of AST to alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually more than 2.

CASE CONTINUES: FURTHER TESTING

The results of our patient’s serologic tests are shown in Table 2. Other test results:

• Autoimmune markers including antinuclear antibodies, antimitochondrial antibodies, antismooth muscle antibodies, and liver and kidney microsomal antibodies are negative; her immunoglobulin G (IgG) level is normal
• Serum ceruloplasmin 25 mg/dL (normal 21–45)
• Free serum copper 120 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Abdominal ultrasonography is unremarkable, with normal liver parenchyma and no intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary dilatation
• Doppler ultrasonography of the liver shows patent blood vessels.

3. Based on the new data, which of the following statements is correct?

• Hepatitis B is the cause of acute liver failure in this patient
• Herpetic hepatitis cannot be excluded on the basis of the available data
• Wilson disease is most likely the diagnosis, given her elevated free serum copper
• A normal serum ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease

Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies were negative in our patient, excluding hepatitis B virus infection. The positive hepatitis B surface antibody indicates prior immunization.

Herpetic hepatitis is an uncommon but important cause of acute liver failure because the mortality rate is high if the patient is not treated early with acyclovir. Fever, elevated aminotransferases, and leukopenia are common with herpetic hepatitis. Fewer than 50% of patients with herpetic hepatitis have vesicular rash.^4,5 The value of antibody serologic testing is limited due to high rates of false-positive and false-negative results. The gold standard diagnostic tests are viral load (detection of viral RNA by polymerase chain reaction), viral staining on liver biopsy, or both. In our patient, herpes simplex virus polymerase chain reaction testing was negative, which makes herpetic hepatitis unlikely.

Wilson disease is a genetic condition in which the ability to excrete copper in the bile is impaired, resulting in accumulation of copper in the hepatocytes. Subsequently, copper is released into the bloodstream and eventually into the urine.

However, copper excretion into the bile is impaired in patients with acute liver failure regardless of the etiology. Therefore, elevated free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper levels are not specific for the diagnosis of acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease. Moreover, Kayser-Fleischer rings, which represent copper deposition in the limbus of the cornea, may not be apparent in the early stages of Wilson disease.

Wilson disease involves accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs as the result of a genetic defect

Since it is challenging to diagnose Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure, Korman et al⁶ compared patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease with patients with acute liver failure secondary to other conditions. They found that alkaline phosphatase levels are frequently decreased in patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease,⁶ and that a ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 is 94% sensitive and 96% specific for the diagnosis.⁶

Hemolysis is common in acute liver failure due to Wilson disease. This leads to disproportionate elevation of AST compared with ALT, since AST is present in red blood cells. Consequently, the ratio of AST to ALT is usually greater than 2.2, which provides a sensitivity of 94% and a specificity of 86% for the diagnosis.⁶ These two ratios together provide 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity for the diagnosis of Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure.⁶

Ceruloplasmin. Patients with Wilson disease typically have a low ceruloplasmin level. However, because it is an acute-phase reaction protein, ceruloplasmin can be normal or elevated in patients with acute liver failure from Wilson disease.⁶ Therefore, a normal ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

CASE CONTINUES: A DEFINITIVE DIAGNOSIS

Our patient undergoes further testing, which reveals the following:

• Her 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is 150 µg (reference value < 30)
• Slit-lamp examination is normal and shows no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings
• Her ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin is 0.77 based on her initial laboratory results (Table 1)
• Her AST-ALT ratio is 3.4.

The diagnosis in our patient is acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

4. What is the most appropriate next step?

• Liver biopsy
• d-penicillamine by mouth
• Trientine by mouth
• Liver transplant
• Plasmapheresis

Liver biopsy. Accumulation of copper in the liver parenchyma in patients with Wilson disease is sporadic. Therefore, qualitative copper staining on liver biopsy can be falsely negative. Quantitative copper measurement in liver tissue is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Wilson disease. However, the test is time-consuming and is not rapidly available in the context of acute liver failure.

Chelating agents such as d-pencillamine and trientine are used to treat the chronic manifestations of Wilson disease but are not useful for acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is life-threatening, and liver transplant is considered the only definitive life-saving therapy.

Therapeutic plasmapheresis has been reported to be a successful adjunctive therapy to bridge patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease to transplant.⁷ However, liver transplant is still the only definitive treatment.

CASE CONTINUES: THE PATIENT’S SISTER SEEKS CARE

The patient undergoes liver transplantation, with no perioperative or postoperative complications.

The patient’s 18-year-old sister is now seeking medical attention in the outpatient clinic, concerned that she may have Wilson disease. She is otherwise healthy and denies any symptoms or complaints.

5. What is the next step for the patient’s sister?

• Reassurance
• Prophylaxis with trientine
• Check liver enzyme levels, serum ceruloplasmin level, and urine copper, and order a slit-lamp examination
• Genetic testing

Wilson disease can be asymptomatic in its early stages and may be diagnosed incidentally during routine blood tests that reveal abnormal liver enzyme levels. All patients with a confirmed family history of Wilson disease should be screened even if they are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of Wilson disease should be established in first-degree relatives before specific treatment for the relatives is prescribed.

Based on information in Roberts EA, Schilsky ML; American Association for Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD). Diagnosis and treatment of Wilson disease: an update. Hepatology 2008; 7:2089–2111.

The first step in screening a first-degree relative for Wilson disease is to check liver enzyme levels (specifically aminotransferases, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin), serum ceruloplasmin level, and 24-hour urine copper, and order an ophthalmologic slit-lamp examination. If any of these tests is abnormal, liver biopsy should be performed for histopathologic evaluation and quantitative copper measurement. Kayser-Fleischer  rings are seen in only 50% of patients with Wilson disease and hepatic involvement, but they are pathognomic. Guidelines⁸ for screening first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients are shown in Figure 1.

Genetic analysis. ATP7B, the Wilson disease gene, is located on chromosome 13. At least 300 mutations of the gene have been described,² and the most common mutation is present in only 15% to 30% of the Wilson disease population.^8–10 Routine molecular testing of the ATP7B

CASE CONTINUES: WORKUP OF THE PATIENT’S SISTER

The patient’s sister has no symptoms and her physical examination is normal. Slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings. Her laboratory values, including complete blood counts, complete metabolic panel, and INR, are within normal ranges. Other test results, however, are abnormal:

• Free serum copper level 27 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Serum ceruloplasmin 9.0 mg/dL (normal 20–50)
• 24-hour urinary copper excretion 135 µg (normal < 30).

She undergoes liver biopsy for quantitative copper measurement, and the result is very high at 1,118 µg/g dry weight (reference range 10–35). The diagnosis of Wilson disease is established.

TREATING CHRONIC WILSON DISEASE

6. Which of the following is not an appropriate next step for the patient’s sister?

• Tetrathiomolybdate
• d-penicillamine
• Trientine
• Zinc salts
• Prednisone

The goal of medical treatment of chronic Wilson disease is to improve symptoms and prevent progression of the disease.

Chelating agents and zinc salts are the most commonly used medicines in the management of Wilson disease. Chelating agents remove copper from tissue, whereas zinc blocks the intestinal absorption of copper and stimulates the synthesis of endogenous chelators such as metallothioneins. Tetrathiomolybdate is an alternative agent developed to interfere with the distribution of excess body copper to susceptible target sites by reducing free serum copper (Table 3). There are no data to support the use of prednisone in the treatment of Wilson disease.

During treatment with chelating agents, 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is routinely monitored to determine the efficacy of therapy and adherence to treatment. Once de-coppering is achieved, as evidenced by a normalization of 24-hour urine copper excretion, the chelating agent can be switched to zinc salts to prevent intestinal absorption of copper.

Clinical and biochemical stabilization is achieved typically within 2 to 6 months of the initial treatment with chelating agents.⁸ Organ meats, nuts, shellfish, and chocolate are rich in copper and should be avoided.

The patient’s sister is started on trientine 250 mg orally three times daily on an empty stomach at least 1 hour before meals. Treatment is monitored by following 24-hour urine copper measurement. A 24-hour urine copper measurement at 3 months after starting treatment has increased from 54 at baseline to 350 µg, which indicates that the copper is being removed from tissues. The plan is for early substitution of zinc for long-term maintenance once de-coppering is completed.

KEY POINTS

• Acute liver failure is severe acute liver injury characterized by coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5) and encephalopathy in a patient with no preexisting liver disease and with duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks.
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is uncommon but should be excluded, particularly in young patients.
• The diagnosis of Wilson disease in the setting of acute liver failure is challenging because the serum ceruloplasmin level may be normal in acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease, and free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper are usually elevated in all acute liver failure patients regardless of the etiology.
• A ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 plus an AST-ALT ratio greater than 2.2 in a patient with acute liver failure should be regarded as Wilson disease until proven otherwise (Figure 2).
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is usually fatal, and emergency liver transplant is a life-saving procedure.
• Screening of first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients should include a history and physical examination, liver enzyme tests, complete blood cell count, serum ceruloplasmin level, serum free copper level, slit-lamp examination of the eyes, and 24-hour urinary copper measurement. Genetic tests are supplementary for screening but are not routinely available.

A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 7-day history of fatigue and nausea. On presentation she denies having abdominal pain, headache, fever, chills, night sweats, vomiting, diarrhea, melena, hematochezia, or weight loss. She recalls changes in the colors of her eyes and darkening urine over the last few days. Her medical history before this is unremarkable. She takes no prescription, over-the-counter, or herbal medications. She works as a librarian and has no occupational toxic exposures. She is single and has one sister with no prior medical history. She denies recent travel, sick contacts, smoking, recreational drug use, or pets at home.

On physical examination, her vital signs are temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F), heart rate 90 beats per minute, blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg, respiration rate 14 per minute, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. She has icteric sclera and her skin is jaundiced. Cardiac examination is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally. Her abdomen is soft with no visceromegaly, masses, or tenderness. Extremities are normal with no edema. She is alert and oriented, but she has mild asterixis of the outstretched hands. The neurologic examination is otherwise unremarkable.

The patient’s basic laboratory values are listed in Table 1. Shortly after admission, she develops changes in her mental status, remaining alert but becoming agitated and oriented to person only. In view of her symptoms and laboratory findings, acute liver failure is suspected.

ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

1. The diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure include all of the following except which one?

• Acute elevation of liver biochemical tests
• Presence of preexisting liver disease
• Coagulopathy, defined by an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.5 or greater
• Encephalopathy
• Duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks

Acute liver failure is defined by acute onset of worsening liver tests, coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5), and encephalopathy in patients with no preexisting liver disease and with symptom duration of less than 26 weeks.¹ With a few exceptions, a history of preexisting liver disease negates the diagnosis of acute liver failure. Our patient meets the diagnostic criteria for acute liver failure.

Immediate management

Once acute liver failure is identified or suspected, the next step is to transfer the patient to the intensive care unit for close monitoring of mental status. Serial neurologic evaluations permit early detection of cerebral edema, which is considered the most common cause of death in patients with acute liver failure. Additionally, close monitoring of electrolytes and plasma glucose is necessary since these patients are susceptible to electrolyte disturbances and hypoglycemia.

Patients with acute liver failure are at increased risk of infections and should be routinely screened by obtaining urine and blood cultures.

Gastrointestinal bleeding is not uncommon in patients with acute liver failure and is usually due to gastric stress ulceration. Prophylaxis with a histamine 2 receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor should be considered in order to prevent gastrointestinal bleeding.

Treatment with N-acetylcysteine is beneficial, not only in patients with acute liver failure due to acetaminophen overdose, but also in those with acute liver failure from other causes.

CASE CONTINUES:
TRANSFER TO THE INTENSIVE CARE UNIT

The patient, now diagnosed with acute liver failure, is transferred to the intensive care unit. Arterial blood gas measurement shows:

• pH 7.38 (reference range 7.35–7.45)
• Pco₂ 40 mm Hg (36–46)
• Po₂ 97 mm Hg (85–95)
• Hco₃ 22 mmol/L (22–26).

A chest radiograph is obtained and is clear. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain reveals no edema. Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography does not show any intracranial fluid collections.

Blood and urine cultures are negative. Her hemoglobin level remains stable, and she does not develop signs of bleeding. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor for stress ulcer prophylaxis and is empirically given intravenous N-acetylcysteine until the cause of acute liver failure can be determined.

CAUSES OF ACUTE LIVER FAILURE

2. Which of the following can cause acute liver failure?

• Acetaminophen overdose
• Viral hepatitis
• Autoimmune hepatitis
• Wilson disease
• Alcoholic hepatitis

Drug-induced liver injury is the most common cause of acute liver failure in the United States,^2,3 and of all drugs, acetaminophen overdose is the number-one cause. In acetaminophen-induced liver injury, serum aminotransferase levels are usually elevated to more than 1,000 U/L, while serum bilirubin remains normal in the early stages. Antimicrobial agents, antiepileptic drugs, and herbal supplements have also been implicated in acute liver failure. Our patient has denied taking herbal supplements or medications, including over-the-counter ones.

Acute viral hepatitis can explain the patient’s condition. It is a common cause of acute liver failure in the United States.² Hepatitis A and E are more common in developing countries. Other viruses such as cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2, and varicella zoster virus can also cause acute liver failure. Serum aminotransferase levels may exceed 1,000 U/L in patients with viral hepatitis.

A young woman presents with acute liver failure: What is the cause? Is her sister at risk?

Autoimmune hepatitis is a rare cause of acute liver failure, but it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, particularly in middle-aged women with autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism. Autoimmune hepatitis can cause marked elevation in aminotransferase levels (> 1,000 U/L).

Wilson disease is an autosomal-recessive disease in which there is excessive accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs because of an inherited defect in the biliary excretion of copper. Wilson disease can cause acute liver failure and should be excluded in any patient, particularly if under age 40 with acute onset of unexplained hepatic, neurologic, or psychiatric disease.

Alcoholic hepatitis usually occurs in patients with a long-standing history of heavy alcohol use. As a result, most patients with alcoholic hepatitis have manifestations of chronic liver disease due to alcohol use. Therefore, by definition, it is not a cause of acute liver failure. Additionally, in patients with alcoholic hepatitis, the aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level is elevated but less than 300 IU/mL, and the ratio of AST to alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is usually more than 2.

CASE CONTINUES: FURTHER TESTING

The results of our patient’s serologic tests are shown in Table 2. Other test results:

• Autoimmune markers including antinuclear antibodies, antimitochondrial antibodies, antismooth muscle antibodies, and liver and kidney microsomal antibodies are negative; her immunoglobulin G (IgG) level is normal
• Serum ceruloplasmin 25 mg/dL (normal 21–45)
• Free serum copper 120 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Abdominal ultrasonography is unremarkable, with normal liver parenchyma and no intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary dilatation
• Doppler ultrasonography of the liver shows patent blood vessels.

3. Based on the new data, which of the following statements is correct?

• Hepatitis B is the cause of acute liver failure in this patient
• Herpetic hepatitis cannot be excluded on the basis of the available data
• Wilson disease is most likely the diagnosis, given her elevated free serum copper
• A normal serum ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease

Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies were negative in our patient, excluding hepatitis B virus infection. The positive hepatitis B surface antibody indicates prior immunization.

Herpetic hepatitis is an uncommon but important cause of acute liver failure because the mortality rate is high if the patient is not treated early with acyclovir. Fever, elevated aminotransferases, and leukopenia are common with herpetic hepatitis. Fewer than 50% of patients with herpetic hepatitis have vesicular rash.^4,5 The value of antibody serologic testing is limited due to high rates of false-positive and false-negative results. The gold standard diagnostic tests are viral load (detection of viral RNA by polymerase chain reaction), viral staining on liver biopsy, or both. In our patient, herpes simplex virus polymerase chain reaction testing was negative, which makes herpetic hepatitis unlikely.

Wilson disease is a genetic condition in which the ability to excrete copper in the bile is impaired, resulting in accumulation of copper in the hepatocytes. Subsequently, copper is released into the bloodstream and eventually into the urine.

However, copper excretion into the bile is impaired in patients with acute liver failure regardless of the etiology. Therefore, elevated free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper levels are not specific for the diagnosis of acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease. Moreover, Kayser-Fleischer rings, which represent copper deposition in the limbus of the cornea, may not be apparent in the early stages of Wilson disease.

Wilson disease involves accumulation of copper in the liver and other organs as the result of a genetic defect

Since it is challenging to diagnose Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure, Korman et al⁶ compared patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease with patients with acute liver failure secondary to other conditions. They found that alkaline phosphatase levels are frequently decreased in patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease,⁶ and that a ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 is 94% sensitive and 96% specific for the diagnosis.⁶

Hemolysis is common in acute liver failure due to Wilson disease. This leads to disproportionate elevation of AST compared with ALT, since AST is present in red blood cells. Consequently, the ratio of AST to ALT is usually greater than 2.2, which provides a sensitivity of 94% and a specificity of 86% for the diagnosis.⁶ These two ratios together provide 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity for the diagnosis of Wilson disease in the context of acute liver failure.⁶

Ceruloplasmin. Patients with Wilson disease typically have a low ceruloplasmin level. However, because it is an acute-phase reaction protein, ceruloplasmin can be normal or elevated in patients with acute liver failure from Wilson disease.⁶ Therefore, a normal ceruloplasmin level is not sufficient to rule out acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

CASE CONTINUES: A DEFINITIVE DIAGNOSIS

Our patient undergoes further testing, which reveals the following:

• Her 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is 150 µg (reference value < 30)
• Slit-lamp examination is normal and shows no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings
• Her ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin is 0.77 based on her initial laboratory results (Table 1)
• Her AST-ALT ratio is 3.4.

The diagnosis in our patient is acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

4. What is the most appropriate next step?

• Liver biopsy
• d-penicillamine by mouth
• Trientine by mouth
• Liver transplant
• Plasmapheresis

Liver biopsy. Accumulation of copper in the liver parenchyma in patients with Wilson disease is sporadic. Therefore, qualitative copper staining on liver biopsy can be falsely negative. Quantitative copper measurement in liver tissue is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Wilson disease. However, the test is time-consuming and is not rapidly available in the context of acute liver failure.

Chelating agents such as d-pencillamine and trientine are used to treat the chronic manifestations of Wilson disease but are not useful for acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease.

Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is life-threatening, and liver transplant is considered the only definitive life-saving therapy.

Therapeutic plasmapheresis has been reported to be a successful adjunctive therapy to bridge patients with acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease to transplant.⁷ However, liver transplant is still the only definitive treatment.

CASE CONTINUES: THE PATIENT’S SISTER SEEKS CARE

The patient undergoes liver transplantation, with no perioperative or postoperative complications.

The patient’s 18-year-old sister is now seeking medical attention in the outpatient clinic, concerned that she may have Wilson disease. She is otherwise healthy and denies any symptoms or complaints.

5. What is the next step for the patient’s sister?

• Reassurance
• Prophylaxis with trientine
• Check liver enzyme levels, serum ceruloplasmin level, and urine copper, and order a slit-lamp examination
• Genetic testing

Wilson disease can be asymptomatic in its early stages and may be diagnosed incidentally during routine blood tests that reveal abnormal liver enzyme levels. All patients with a confirmed family history of Wilson disease should be screened even if they are asymptomatic. The diagnosis of Wilson disease should be established in first-degree relatives before specific treatment for the relatives is prescribed.

Based on information in Roberts EA, Schilsky ML; American Association for Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD). Diagnosis and treatment of Wilson disease: an update. Hepatology 2008; 7:2089–2111.

The first step in screening a first-degree relative for Wilson disease is to check liver enzyme levels (specifically aminotransferases, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin), serum ceruloplasmin level, and 24-hour urine copper, and order an ophthalmologic slit-lamp examination. If any of these tests is abnormal, liver biopsy should be performed for histopathologic evaluation and quantitative copper measurement. Kayser-Fleischer  rings are seen in only 50% of patients with Wilson disease and hepatic involvement, but they are pathognomic. Guidelines⁸ for screening first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients are shown in Figure 1.

Genetic analysis. ATP7B, the Wilson disease gene, is located on chromosome 13. At least 300 mutations of the gene have been described,² and the most common mutation is present in only 15% to 30% of the Wilson disease population.^8–10 Routine molecular testing of the ATP7B

CASE CONTINUES: WORKUP OF THE PATIENT’S SISTER

The patient’s sister has no symptoms and her physical examination is normal. Slit-lamp examination reveals no evidence of Kayser-Fleischer rings. Her laboratory values, including complete blood counts, complete metabolic panel, and INR, are within normal ranges. Other test results, however, are abnormal:

• Free serum copper level 27 µg/dL (normal 8–12)
• Serum ceruloplasmin 9.0 mg/dL (normal 20–50)
• 24-hour urinary copper excretion 135 µg (normal < 30).

She undergoes liver biopsy for quantitative copper measurement, and the result is very high at 1,118 µg/g dry weight (reference range 10–35). The diagnosis of Wilson disease is established.

TREATING CHRONIC WILSON DISEASE

6. Which of the following is not an appropriate next step for the patient’s sister?

• Tetrathiomolybdate
• d-penicillamine
• Trientine
• Zinc salts
• Prednisone

The goal of medical treatment of chronic Wilson disease is to improve symptoms and prevent progression of the disease.

Chelating agents and zinc salts are the most commonly used medicines in the management of Wilson disease. Chelating agents remove copper from tissue, whereas zinc blocks the intestinal absorption of copper and stimulates the synthesis of endogenous chelators such as metallothioneins. Tetrathiomolybdate is an alternative agent developed to interfere with the distribution of excess body copper to susceptible target sites by reducing free serum copper (Table 3). There are no data to support the use of prednisone in the treatment of Wilson disease.

During treatment with chelating agents, 24-hour urinary excretion of copper is routinely monitored to determine the efficacy of therapy and adherence to treatment. Once de-coppering is achieved, as evidenced by a normalization of 24-hour urine copper excretion, the chelating agent can be switched to zinc salts to prevent intestinal absorption of copper.

Clinical and biochemical stabilization is achieved typically within 2 to 6 months of the initial treatment with chelating agents.⁸ Organ meats, nuts, shellfish, and chocolate are rich in copper and should be avoided.

The patient’s sister is started on trientine 250 mg orally three times daily on an empty stomach at least 1 hour before meals. Treatment is monitored by following 24-hour urine copper measurement. A 24-hour urine copper measurement at 3 months after starting treatment has increased from 54 at baseline to 350 µg, which indicates that the copper is being removed from tissues. The plan is for early substitution of zinc for long-term maintenance once de-coppering is completed.

KEY POINTS

• Acute liver failure is severe acute liver injury characterized by coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5) and encephalopathy in a patient with no preexisting liver disease and with duration of symptoms less than 26 weeks.
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is uncommon but should be excluded, particularly in young patients.
• The diagnosis of Wilson disease in the setting of acute liver failure is challenging because the serum ceruloplasmin level may be normal in acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease, and free serum copper and 24-hour urine copper are usually elevated in all acute liver failure patients regardless of the etiology.
• A ratio of alkaline phosphatase to total bilirubin of less than 4 plus an AST-ALT ratio greater than 2.2 in a patient with acute liver failure should be regarded as Wilson disease until proven otherwise (Figure 2).
• Acute liver failure secondary to Wilson disease is usually fatal, and emergency liver transplant is a life-saving procedure.
• Screening of first-degree relatives of Wilson disease patients should include a history and physical examination, liver enzyme tests, complete blood cell count, serum ceruloplasmin level, serum free copper level, slit-lamp examination of the eyes, and 24-hour urinary copper measurement. Genetic tests are supplementary for screening but are not routinely available.

A 60-year-old man presented to our emergency department with a 4-day history of frontal headaches he described as “stinging.” He had also had a large swollen area on his forehead for the past 8 weeks.

He denied fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, blurry vision, tinnitus, and neck pain, as well as any recent sinus infection, intransanal cocaine use, rhinorrhea, or head trauma. A month ago, he had presented to our emergency department with forehead swelling but no headaches. At that time, the swelling was thought to be an allergic reaction to lisinopril or metformin, medications he takes for hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He had been discharged home with a prescription for a course of prednisone in tapering doses, but that had failed to resolve the swelling.

Physical examination revealed a well-circumscribed area of swelling, 3 by 4 cm, in the central forehead (Figure 1). The area was warm, erythematous, fluctuant, and tender to palpation. The nasal septum was intact and the nasal mucosa appeared pink and healthy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

He was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His peripheral white blood cell count was mildly elevated at 11.1 × 109. Computed tomography of the brain and sinuses revealed a fluid collection in the frontal scalp associated with erosion of the anterior frontal sinus with posterior extension and enhancement of the adjacent meninges. Magnetic resonance imaging (Figure 2) revealed similar findings. A diagnosis of Pott puffy tumor was made based on the imaging findings.

The name of this condition is misleading, as it is not a neoplasm but an infection. It requires urgent antibiotic therapy and surgical management because of the high risk of the infection spreading to the brain. Our patient was started on a broad-spectrum antibiotic regimen of intravenous vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole pending tissue culture to identify the causative organism.

POTT PUFFY TUMOR: A BRIEF OVERVIEW

First described in 1760 by Sir Percivall Pott,¹ the same English surgeon who first described tuberculosis of the spine, Pott puffy tumor is a well-demarcated area of swelling that occurs when a frontal sinus infection breaks through the anterior portion of the frontal sinus and forms an abscess between the frontal bone and periosteum with associated osteomyelitis.² Though rare in adults (it is more common in children and adolescents),³ Pott puffy tumor is caused by conditions often encountered in internal medicine practice, such as bacterial sinusitis, head trauma, and intranasal cocaine use.

The infection can spread to the brain either directly by destruction of the posterior frontal sinus (as in our patient) or by way of the veins that drain the frontal sinus. Meningitis, epidural empyema, frontal lobe abscess, and cavernous sinus thrombosis² have all been described. Intracranial complications are seen in nearly 100% of children and adolescents with Pott puffy tumor. The rate in adults is 30%,^4,5 which is much lower but is nevertheless worrisome because patients can be initially misdiagnosed with scalp abscess,³ cellulitis, or epidermoid cyst,⁴ and then sent home from the emergency department or physician’s office. In a case series of 32 adult patients with Pott puffy tumor, nearly 45% were initially misdiagnosed, most often by an internist, dermatologist, ophthalmologist, or emergency room physician.⁴

The most common infective organisms are streptococci, staphylococci, and anaerobes,⁴ but Haemophilus, Aspergillus species, and invasive mucormycosis have also been described.

MANAGEMENT OPTIONS

Because of the risk of spread of the infection to the brain, rapid initiation of a broad-spectrum antibiotic is warranted in all patients with Pott puffy tumor pending results of tissue culture. Antibiotics may be necessary for at least 4 to 6 weeks to resolve osteomyelitis of the frontal bone and to decrease inflammation before surgery.⁶

Endoscopic sinus surgery is routinely done to drain the infected sinus and to remove or debride infected bone. Patients with intracranial extension of infection may require a combined endoscopic and neurosurgical approach.

OUTCOME

Our patient’s puffy tumor spontaneously ruptured externally on hospital day 3, and the purulent fluid was sent for culture that grew Streptococcus anginosus. His headaches improved almost immediately after this occurred. The antibiotic regimen was narrowed to ceftriaxone and metronidazole, and 1 week later he was discharged home with instructions to complete a 6-week course of antibiotics. Three weeks after he was discharged, he returned for outpatient endoscopic sinus surgery. At a follow-up visit 2 weeks after surgery, the forehead swelling had resolved, and he was well.

A 60-year-old man presented to our emergency department with a 4-day history of frontal headaches he described as “stinging.” He had also had a large swollen area on his forehead for the past 8 weeks.

He denied fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, blurry vision, tinnitus, and neck pain, as well as any recent sinus infection, intransanal cocaine use, rhinorrhea, or head trauma. A month ago, he had presented to our emergency department with forehead swelling but no headaches. At that time, the swelling was thought to be an allergic reaction to lisinopril or metformin, medications he takes for hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He had been discharged home with a prescription for a course of prednisone in tapering doses, but that had failed to resolve the swelling.

Physical examination revealed a well-circumscribed area of swelling, 3 by 4 cm, in the central forehead (Figure 1). The area was warm, erythematous, fluctuant, and tender to palpation. The nasal septum was intact and the nasal mucosa appeared pink and healthy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

He was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His peripheral white blood cell count was mildly elevated at 11.1 × 109. Computed tomography of the brain and sinuses revealed a fluid collection in the frontal scalp associated with erosion of the anterior frontal sinus with posterior extension and enhancement of the adjacent meninges. Magnetic resonance imaging (Figure 2) revealed similar findings. A diagnosis of Pott puffy tumor was made based on the imaging findings.

The name of this condition is misleading, as it is not a neoplasm but an infection. It requires urgent antibiotic therapy and surgical management because of the high risk of the infection spreading to the brain. Our patient was started on a broad-spectrum antibiotic regimen of intravenous vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole pending tissue culture to identify the causative organism.

POTT PUFFY TUMOR: A BRIEF OVERVIEW

First described in 1760 by Sir Percivall Pott,¹ the same English surgeon who first described tuberculosis of the spine, Pott puffy tumor is a well-demarcated area of swelling that occurs when a frontal sinus infection breaks through the anterior portion of the frontal sinus and forms an abscess between the frontal bone and periosteum with associated osteomyelitis.² Though rare in adults (it is more common in children and adolescents),³ Pott puffy tumor is caused by conditions often encountered in internal medicine practice, such as bacterial sinusitis, head trauma, and intranasal cocaine use.

The infection can spread to the brain either directly by destruction of the posterior frontal sinus (as in our patient) or by way of the veins that drain the frontal sinus. Meningitis, epidural empyema, frontal lobe abscess, and cavernous sinus thrombosis² have all been described. Intracranial complications are seen in nearly 100% of children and adolescents with Pott puffy tumor. The rate in adults is 30%,^4,5 which is much lower but is nevertheless worrisome because patients can be initially misdiagnosed with scalp abscess,³ cellulitis, or epidermoid cyst,⁴ and then sent home from the emergency department or physician’s office. In a case series of 32 adult patients with Pott puffy tumor, nearly 45% were initially misdiagnosed, most often by an internist, dermatologist, ophthalmologist, or emergency room physician.⁴

The most common infective organisms are streptococci, staphylococci, and anaerobes,⁴ but Haemophilus, Aspergillus species, and invasive mucormycosis have also been described.

MANAGEMENT OPTIONS

Because of the risk of spread of the infection to the brain, rapid initiation of a broad-spectrum antibiotic is warranted in all patients with Pott puffy tumor pending results of tissue culture. Antibiotics may be necessary for at least 4 to 6 weeks to resolve osteomyelitis of the frontal bone and to decrease inflammation before surgery.⁶

Endoscopic sinus surgery is routinely done to drain the infected sinus and to remove or debride infected bone. Patients with intracranial extension of infection may require a combined endoscopic and neurosurgical approach.

OUTCOME

Our patient’s puffy tumor spontaneously ruptured externally on hospital day 3, and the purulent fluid was sent for culture that grew Streptococcus anginosus. His headaches improved almost immediately after this occurred. The antibiotic regimen was narrowed to ceftriaxone and metronidazole, and 1 week later he was discharged home with instructions to complete a 6-week course of antibiotics. Three weeks after he was discharged, he returned for outpatient endoscopic sinus surgery. At a follow-up visit 2 weeks after surgery, the forehead swelling had resolved, and he was well.

A 60-year-old man presented to our emergency department with a 4-day history of frontal headaches he described as “stinging.” He had also had a large swollen area on his forehead for the past 8 weeks.

He denied fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, blurry vision, tinnitus, and neck pain, as well as any recent sinus infection, intransanal cocaine use, rhinorrhea, or head trauma. A month ago, he had presented to our emergency department with forehead swelling but no headaches. At that time, the swelling was thought to be an allergic reaction to lisinopril or metformin, medications he takes for hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He had been discharged home with a prescription for a course of prednisone in tapering doses, but that had failed to resolve the swelling.

Physical examination revealed a well-circumscribed area of swelling, 3 by 4 cm, in the central forehead (Figure 1). The area was warm, erythematous, fluctuant, and tender to palpation. The nasal septum was intact and the nasal mucosa appeared pink and healthy. The remainder of the examination was unremarkable.

He was afebrile and hemodynamically stable. His peripheral white blood cell count was mildly elevated at 11.1 × 109. Computed tomography of the brain and sinuses revealed a fluid collection in the frontal scalp associated with erosion of the anterior frontal sinus with posterior extension and enhancement of the adjacent meninges. Magnetic resonance imaging (Figure 2) revealed similar findings. A diagnosis of Pott puffy tumor was made based on the imaging findings.

The name of this condition is misleading, as it is not a neoplasm but an infection. It requires urgent antibiotic therapy and surgical management because of the high risk of the infection spreading to the brain. Our patient was started on a broad-spectrum antibiotic regimen of intravenous vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole pending tissue culture to identify the causative organism.

POTT PUFFY TUMOR: A BRIEF OVERVIEW

First described in 1760 by Sir Percivall Pott,¹ the same English surgeon who first described tuberculosis of the spine, Pott puffy tumor is a well-demarcated area of swelling that occurs when a frontal sinus infection breaks through the anterior portion of the frontal sinus and forms an abscess between the frontal bone and periosteum with associated osteomyelitis.² Though rare in adults (it is more common in children and adolescents),³ Pott puffy tumor is caused by conditions often encountered in internal medicine practice, such as bacterial sinusitis, head trauma, and intranasal cocaine use.

The infection can spread to the brain either directly by destruction of the posterior frontal sinus (as in our patient) or by way of the veins that drain the frontal sinus. Meningitis, epidural empyema, frontal lobe abscess, and cavernous sinus thrombosis² have all been described. Intracranial complications are seen in nearly 100% of children and adolescents with Pott puffy tumor. The rate in adults is 30%,^4,5 which is much lower but is nevertheless worrisome because patients can be initially misdiagnosed with scalp abscess,³ cellulitis, or epidermoid cyst,⁴ and then sent home from the emergency department or physician’s office. In a case series of 32 adult patients with Pott puffy tumor, nearly 45% were initially misdiagnosed, most often by an internist, dermatologist, ophthalmologist, or emergency room physician.⁴

The most common infective organisms are streptococci, staphylococci, and anaerobes,⁴ but Haemophilus, Aspergillus species, and invasive mucormycosis have also been described.

MANAGEMENT OPTIONS

Because of the risk of spread of the infection to the brain, rapid initiation of a broad-spectrum antibiotic is warranted in all patients with Pott puffy tumor pending results of tissue culture. Antibiotics may be necessary for at least 4 to 6 weeks to resolve osteomyelitis of the frontal bone and to decrease inflammation before surgery.⁶

Endoscopic sinus surgery is routinely done to drain the infected sinus and to remove or debride infected bone. Patients with intracranial extension of infection may require a combined endoscopic and neurosurgical approach.

OUTCOME

Our patient’s puffy tumor spontaneously ruptured externally on hospital day 3, and the purulent fluid was sent for culture that grew Streptococcus anginosus. His headaches improved almost immediately after this occurred. The antibiotic regimen was narrowed to ceftriaxone and metronidazole, and 1 week later he was discharged home with instructions to complete a 6-week course of antibiotics. Three weeks after he was discharged, he returned for outpatient endoscopic sinus surgery. At a follow-up visit 2 weeks after surgery, the forehead swelling had resolved, and he was well.

Case

A 34-year-old man with a history of polysubstance abuse presented to the ED after he had a seizure during his regular methadone-treatment program meeting. While at the clinic, attendees witnessed the patient experience a loss of consciousness accompanied by generalized shaking movements of his extremities, which lasted for several minutes.

Upon arrival in the ED, the patient stated that he had a mild headache; he was otherwise asymptomatic. Initial vital signs were: blood pressure, 126/80 mm Hg; heart rate, 82 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/minute; and temperature, 97.3°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air, and a finger-stick glucose test was 140 mg/dL. 

Physical examination revealed a small right-sided parietal hematoma. The patient had no tremors and his neurological examination, including mental status, was normal. When reviewing the patient’s medical history and medications in the health record, it was noted that the patient had a prescription for alprazolam for an anxiety disorder. On further questioning, the patient admitted that he had sold his last alprazolam prescription and had not been taking the drug for the past week.

What characterizes the  benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

Although introduced into clinical practice in the 1960s, the potential for dependence and a withdrawal syndrome was not appreciated until the early 1980s. This clinical syndrome can manifest with a wide variety of findings, most commonly with what are termed “rebound effects” or “rebound hyperexcitability.” These effects include anxiety, insomnia or sleep disturbance, tremulousness, irritability, sweating, psychomotor agitation, difficulty in concentration, nausea, weight loss, palpitations, headache, muscular pain and stiffness, or generalized weakness.² More severe manifestations include delirium, seizures, or psychosis. Often, these symptoms and signs may be confused with the very manifestations that prompted the initial use of the BZD, a reemergence of which can exacerbate the withdrawal syndrome.

When does benzodiazepine withdrawal occur?

The exact time course of BZD withdrawal can vary considerably and, unlike alcohol withdrawal (which occurs from a single compound, ethanol), can be difficult to characterize. The onset of withdrawal symptoms is dependent on a number of factors, including the half-life of the BZD involved. For example, delayed onset withdrawal symptoms of up to 3 weeks after cessation of the medication are described with long-acting BZDs such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. Conversely, symptoms may present as early as 24 to 48 hours after abrupt termination of BZDs with shorter half-lives, alprazolam and lorazepam. This variable time of onset differs considerably from other withdrawal syndromes, notably ethanol withdrawal. While both syndromes correlate to the individual patient’s severity of dependence, alcohol withdrawal follows a more predictable time course.

Some authors distinguish a rebound syndrome from a true withdrawal syndrome, the former of which is self-limited in nature and the result of cessation of treatment for the primary disease process. In this model, rebound symptoms begin 1 to 4 days after the abrupt cessation or dose reduction of the BZD, and are relatively short-lived, lasting 2 to 3 days.²

What is the appropriate treatment for benzodiazepine withdrawal?

The standard therapy for almost all withdrawal syndromes is reinstitution of the causal agent. A number of non-BZD-based treatment strategies have been investigated, and all have met with limited success. Of these, anticonvulsant drugs such as carbamazepine and valproic acid were initially considered promising based on case reports and small case series.⁴ These medications ultimately proved ineffective in randomized, placebo-controlled studies.⁵ β-Adrenergic antagonists, such as propranolol, have been studied as a method to normalize a patient’s vital signs but also proved nonbeneficial in managing withdrawal.^5,6

The safest and most effective management approach for patients with BZD withdrawal is reinstitution of the BZD followed by a prolonged and gradual tapering until cessation, if that is desired.^1,2,5,6 While all BZDs share structural and mechanistic similarities, there are subtle variations within this class that can affect their pharmacologic effects. These structural differences may result in incomplete cross-tolerance, which may lead to inadequate mitigation of the withdrawal syndrome. For example, previous reports suggest that alprazolam and clonazepam are structurally unique and bind to the BZD receptor with higher affinity than other BZDs. Therefore, while in general any BZD can be used to treat withdrawal from another BZD, it is recommended to treat withdrawal from these two agents with the implicated BZD.

There are, however, limitations to this approach. Namely, some BZDs are only available in oral formulations (eg, alprazolam and clonazepam) or the BZD of choice may not be readily available or on formulary within a given institution. In a patient with a severe withdrawal syndrome where it is not feasible or potentially harmful to administer an oral medication, it is reasonable to provide parenteral (preferably intravenous [IV]) BZD therapy. The optimal approach is to start with a small “standard” dose and titrate to effect while monitoring for adverse effects (eg, oversedation, ventilatory depression). Redosing should be triggered by symptoms or signs, and not performed in a timed or standing-order fashion. If this approach proves ineffective and withdrawal symptoms persist despite adequate BZD therapy, a direct GABA agonist such as propofol is a sensible alternative or adjuvant treatment. This may sound similar to the management of patients with ethanol withdrawal; indeed, this approach is essentially the same, with the exception of the more drawn-out time course.

Case Conclusion

After arrival in the ED, the patient received diazepam 10 mg IV and was subsequently admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. During his hospitalization, the patient was re-started on his usual dose of oral alprazolam.  No further withdrawal syndrome was observed, and he was discharged on hospital day 2 with a plan to slowly taper his alprazolam dose with his outpatient psychiatrist.

Dr Repplinger is a senior medical toxicology fellow in the department of emergency medicine at New York University Langone Medical Center. Dr Nelson, editor of “Case Studies in Toxicology,” is a professor in the department of emergency medicine and director of the medical toxicology fellowship program at the New York University School of Medicine and the New York City Poison Control Center. He is also associate editor, toxicology, of the EMERGENCY MEDICINE editorial board.

Case

A 34-year-old man with a history of polysubstance abuse presented to the ED after he had a seizure during his regular methadone-treatment program meeting. While at the clinic, attendees witnessed the patient experience a loss of consciousness accompanied by generalized shaking movements of his extremities, which lasted for several minutes.

Upon arrival in the ED, the patient stated that he had a mild headache; he was otherwise asymptomatic. Initial vital signs were: blood pressure, 126/80 mm Hg; heart rate, 82 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/minute; and temperature, 97.3°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air, and a finger-stick glucose test was 140 mg/dL. 

Physical examination revealed a small right-sided parietal hematoma. The patient had no tremors and his neurological examination, including mental status, was normal. When reviewing the patient’s medical history and medications in the health record, it was noted that the patient had a prescription for alprazolam for an anxiety disorder. On further questioning, the patient admitted that he had sold his last alprazolam prescription and had not been taking the drug for the past week.

What characterizes the  benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

Although introduced into clinical practice in the 1960s, the potential for dependence and a withdrawal syndrome was not appreciated until the early 1980s. This clinical syndrome can manifest with a wide variety of findings, most commonly with what are termed “rebound effects” or “rebound hyperexcitability.” These effects include anxiety, insomnia or sleep disturbance, tremulousness, irritability, sweating, psychomotor agitation, difficulty in concentration, nausea, weight loss, palpitations, headache, muscular pain and stiffness, or generalized weakness.² More severe manifestations include delirium, seizures, or psychosis. Often, these symptoms and signs may be confused with the very manifestations that prompted the initial use of the BZD, a reemergence of which can exacerbate the withdrawal syndrome.

When does benzodiazepine withdrawal occur?

The exact time course of BZD withdrawal can vary considerably and, unlike alcohol withdrawal (which occurs from a single compound, ethanol), can be difficult to characterize. The onset of withdrawal symptoms is dependent on a number of factors, including the half-life of the BZD involved. For example, delayed onset withdrawal symptoms of up to 3 weeks after cessation of the medication are described with long-acting BZDs such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. Conversely, symptoms may present as early as 24 to 48 hours after abrupt termination of BZDs with shorter half-lives, alprazolam and lorazepam. This variable time of onset differs considerably from other withdrawal syndromes, notably ethanol withdrawal. While both syndromes correlate to the individual patient’s severity of dependence, alcohol withdrawal follows a more predictable time course.

Some authors distinguish a rebound syndrome from a true withdrawal syndrome, the former of which is self-limited in nature and the result of cessation of treatment for the primary disease process. In this model, rebound symptoms begin 1 to 4 days after the abrupt cessation or dose reduction of the BZD, and are relatively short-lived, lasting 2 to 3 days.²

What is the appropriate treatment for benzodiazepine withdrawal?

The standard therapy for almost all withdrawal syndromes is reinstitution of the causal agent. A number of non-BZD-based treatment strategies have been investigated, and all have met with limited success. Of these, anticonvulsant drugs such as carbamazepine and valproic acid were initially considered promising based on case reports and small case series.⁴ These medications ultimately proved ineffective in randomized, placebo-controlled studies.⁵ β-Adrenergic antagonists, such as propranolol, have been studied as a method to normalize a patient’s vital signs but also proved nonbeneficial in managing withdrawal.^5,6

The safest and most effective management approach for patients with BZD withdrawal is reinstitution of the BZD followed by a prolonged and gradual tapering until cessation, if that is desired.^1,2,5,6 While all BZDs share structural and mechanistic similarities, there are subtle variations within this class that can affect their pharmacologic effects. These structural differences may result in incomplete cross-tolerance, which may lead to inadequate mitigation of the withdrawal syndrome. For example, previous reports suggest that alprazolam and clonazepam are structurally unique and bind to the BZD receptor with higher affinity than other BZDs. Therefore, while in general any BZD can be used to treat withdrawal from another BZD, it is recommended to treat withdrawal from these two agents with the implicated BZD.

There are, however, limitations to this approach. Namely, some BZDs are only available in oral formulations (eg, alprazolam and clonazepam) or the BZD of choice may not be readily available or on formulary within a given institution. In a patient with a severe withdrawal syndrome where it is not feasible or potentially harmful to administer an oral medication, it is reasonable to provide parenteral (preferably intravenous [IV]) BZD therapy. The optimal approach is to start with a small “standard” dose and titrate to effect while monitoring for adverse effects (eg, oversedation, ventilatory depression). Redosing should be triggered by symptoms or signs, and not performed in a timed or standing-order fashion. If this approach proves ineffective and withdrawal symptoms persist despite adequate BZD therapy, a direct GABA agonist such as propofol is a sensible alternative or adjuvant treatment. This may sound similar to the management of patients with ethanol withdrawal; indeed, this approach is essentially the same, with the exception of the more drawn-out time course.

Case Conclusion

After arrival in the ED, the patient received diazepam 10 mg IV and was subsequently admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. During his hospitalization, the patient was re-started on his usual dose of oral alprazolam.  No further withdrawal syndrome was observed, and he was discharged on hospital day 2 with a plan to slowly taper his alprazolam dose with his outpatient psychiatrist.

Dr Repplinger is a senior medical toxicology fellow in the department of emergency medicine at New York University Langone Medical Center. Dr Nelson, editor of “Case Studies in Toxicology,” is a professor in the department of emergency medicine and director of the medical toxicology fellowship program at the New York University School of Medicine and the New York City Poison Control Center. He is also associate editor, toxicology, of the EMERGENCY MEDICINE editorial board.

Case

A 34-year-old man with a history of polysubstance abuse presented to the ED after he had a seizure during his regular methadone-treatment program meeting. While at the clinic, attendees witnessed the patient experience a loss of consciousness accompanied by generalized shaking movements of his extremities, which lasted for several minutes.

Upon arrival in the ED, the patient stated that he had a mild headache; he was otherwise asymptomatic. Initial vital signs were: blood pressure, 126/80 mm Hg; heart rate, 82 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/minute; and temperature, 97.3°F. Oxygen saturation was 98% on room air, and a finger-stick glucose test was 140 mg/dL. 

Physical examination revealed a small right-sided parietal hematoma. The patient had no tremors and his neurological examination, including mental status, was normal. When reviewing the patient’s medical history and medications in the health record, it was noted that the patient had a prescription for alprazolam for an anxiety disorder. On further questioning, the patient admitted that he had sold his last alprazolam prescription and had not been taking the drug for the past week.

What characterizes the  benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome?

Although introduced into clinical practice in the 1960s, the potential for dependence and a withdrawal syndrome was not appreciated until the early 1980s. This clinical syndrome can manifest with a wide variety of findings, most commonly with what are termed “rebound effects” or “rebound hyperexcitability.” These effects include anxiety, insomnia or sleep disturbance, tremulousness, irritability, sweating, psychomotor agitation, difficulty in concentration, nausea, weight loss, palpitations, headache, muscular pain and stiffness, or generalized weakness.² More severe manifestations include delirium, seizures, or psychosis. Often, these symptoms and signs may be confused with the very manifestations that prompted the initial use of the BZD, a reemergence of which can exacerbate the withdrawal syndrome.

When does benzodiazepine withdrawal occur?

The exact time course of BZD withdrawal can vary considerably and, unlike alcohol withdrawal (which occurs from a single compound, ethanol), can be difficult to characterize. The onset of withdrawal symptoms is dependent on a number of factors, including the half-life of the BZD involved. For example, delayed onset withdrawal symptoms of up to 3 weeks after cessation of the medication are described with long-acting BZDs such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. Conversely, symptoms may present as early as 24 to 48 hours after abrupt termination of BZDs with shorter half-lives, alprazolam and lorazepam. This variable time of onset differs considerably from other withdrawal syndromes, notably ethanol withdrawal. While both syndromes correlate to the individual patient’s severity of dependence, alcohol withdrawal follows a more predictable time course.

Some authors distinguish a rebound syndrome from a true withdrawal syndrome, the former of which is self-limited in nature and the result of cessation of treatment for the primary disease process. In this model, rebound symptoms begin 1 to 4 days after the abrupt cessation or dose reduction of the BZD, and are relatively short-lived, lasting 2 to 3 days.²

What is the appropriate treatment for benzodiazepine withdrawal?

The standard therapy for almost all withdrawal syndromes is reinstitution of the causal agent. A number of non-BZD-based treatment strategies have been investigated, and all have met with limited success. Of these, anticonvulsant drugs such as carbamazepine and valproic acid were initially considered promising based on case reports and small case series.⁴ These medications ultimately proved ineffective in randomized, placebo-controlled studies.⁵ β-Adrenergic antagonists, such as propranolol, have been studied as a method to normalize a patient’s vital signs but also proved nonbeneficial in managing withdrawal.^5,6

The safest and most effective management approach for patients with BZD withdrawal is reinstitution of the BZD followed by a prolonged and gradual tapering until cessation, if that is desired.^1,2,5,6 While all BZDs share structural and mechanistic similarities, there are subtle variations within this class that can affect their pharmacologic effects. These structural differences may result in incomplete cross-tolerance, which may lead to inadequate mitigation of the withdrawal syndrome. For example, previous reports suggest that alprazolam and clonazepam are structurally unique and bind to the BZD receptor with higher affinity than other BZDs. Therefore, while in general any BZD can be used to treat withdrawal from another BZD, it is recommended to treat withdrawal from these two agents with the implicated BZD.

There are, however, limitations to this approach. Namely, some BZDs are only available in oral formulations (eg, alprazolam and clonazepam) or the BZD of choice may not be readily available or on formulary within a given institution. In a patient with a severe withdrawal syndrome where it is not feasible or potentially harmful to administer an oral medication, it is reasonable to provide parenteral (preferably intravenous [IV]) BZD therapy. The optimal approach is to start with a small “standard” dose and titrate to effect while monitoring for adverse effects (eg, oversedation, ventilatory depression). Redosing should be triggered by symptoms or signs, and not performed in a timed or standing-order fashion. If this approach proves ineffective and withdrawal symptoms persist despite adequate BZD therapy, a direct GABA agonist such as propofol is a sensible alternative or adjuvant treatment. This may sound similar to the management of patients with ethanol withdrawal; indeed, this approach is essentially the same, with the exception of the more drawn-out time course.

Case Conclusion

After arrival in the ED, the patient received diazepam 10 mg IV and was subsequently admitted to the hospital for further evaluation. During his hospitalization, the patient was re-started on his usual dose of oral alprazolam.  No further withdrawal syndrome was observed, and he was discharged on hospital day 2 with a plan to slowly taper his alprazolam dose with his outpatient psychiatrist.

Dr Repplinger is a senior medical toxicology fellow in the department of emergency medicine at New York University Langone Medical Center. Dr Nelson, editor of “Case Studies in Toxicology,” is a professor in the department of emergency medicine and director of the medical toxicology fellowship program at the New York University School of Medicine and the New York City Poison Control Center. He is also associate editor, toxicology, of the EMERGENCY MEDICINE editorial board.

Answer
The radiograph shows a compression deformity of the C6 vertebral body. In addition, there is a displaced fracture fragment along the anterior superior endplate. Alignment is adequate, with no evidence of subluxation. The disc space of C6-7 also appears slightly distracted, suggesting possible acute injury.

Given the clinical and radiographic presentation, this patient warranted further workup. He was admitted for CT and MRI of the cervical spine, which demonstrated disc herniation at both the C5-6 and C6-7 levels, as well as interspinous ligament injury.

The patient subsequently underwent a two-level anterior cervical disc­ectomy and fusion. His symptoms resolved, and he was discharged home the next day.

Answer
The radiograph shows a compression deformity of the C6 vertebral body. In addition, there is a displaced fracture fragment along the anterior superior endplate. Alignment is adequate, with no evidence of subluxation. The disc space of C6-7 also appears slightly distracted, suggesting possible acute injury.

Given the clinical and radiographic presentation, this patient warranted further workup. He was admitted for CT and MRI of the cervical spine, which demonstrated disc herniation at both the C5-6 and C6-7 levels, as well as interspinous ligament injury.

The patient subsequently underwent a two-level anterior cervical disc­ectomy and fusion. His symptoms resolved, and he was discharged home the next day.

Answer
The radiograph shows a compression deformity of the C6 vertebral body. In addition, there is a displaced fracture fragment along the anterior superior endplate. Alignment is adequate, with no evidence of subluxation. The disc space of C6-7 also appears slightly distracted, suggesting possible acute injury.

Given the clinical and radiographic presentation, this patient warranted further workup. He was admitted for CT and MRI of the cervical spine, which demonstrated disc herniation at both the C5-6 and C6-7 levels, as well as interspinous ligament injury.

The patient subsequently underwent a two-level anterior cervical disc­ectomy and fusion. His symptoms resolved, and he was discharged home the next day.