Case Reports

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus (ILVEN) is a rare entity that presents with linear and pruritic psoriasiform plaques and most commonly occurs during childhood. It represents a dysregulation of keratinocytes exhibiting genetic mosaicism.^1,2 Epidermal nevi may derive from keratinocytic, follicular, sebaceous, apocrine, or eccrine origin. Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is classified under the keratinocytic type of epidermal nevus and represents approximately 6% of all epidermal nevi.³ The condition presents as erythematous and verrucous plaques along the lines of Blaschko.^2,4 There is a predilection for the legs, and girls are 4 times more commonly affected than boys.¹ Cases of ILVEN are predominantly sporadic, though rare familial cases have been reported.⁴

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is notoriously refractory to treatment. First-line therapies include topical agents such as corticosteroids, calcipotriol, retinoids, and 5-fluorouracil.^3,4 Other treatments include intralesional corticosteroids, cryotherapy, electrodesiccation and curettage, and surgical excision.³ Several case reports have shown promising results using the pulsed dye and ablative CO2 lasers.^5-8

Case Report

An otherwise healthy 20-year-old woman presented with dry, pruritic, red lesions on the right leg that had been present and stable since she was an infant (2 weeks of age). Her medical history included acne vulgaris, but she denied any personal or family history of psoriasis as well as any arthralgia or arthritis. Physical examination revealed discrete, oval, hyperkeratotic, scaly, red plaques on the lateral right leg with a larger hyperkeratotic, linear, red plaque extending from the right popliteal fossa to the posterior thigh (Figure 1A). The nails, scalp, buttocks, and upper extremities were unaffected. Bacterial culture of the right leg demonstrated Staphylococcus aureus colonization. Biopsy of the right popliteal fossa showed psoriasiform dermatitis with psoriasiform hyperplasia, a slightly verruciform surface, broad zones of superficial pallor, and parakeratosis with conspicuous colonies of bacteria (Figure 2).

Following the positive bacterial culture, the patient was treated with a short course of oral doxycycline, which did not alter the clinical appearance of the lesions or improve symptoms of pruritus. Pruritus improved moderately with topical corticosteroid treatment, but clinically the lesions appeared unchanged. The plaque on the superior right leg was treated with a superpulsed CO₂ laser and the plaque on the inferior right leg was treated with a fractional CO₂ laser, both with minimal improvement.

Because of the clinical and histopathologic similarities of the patient's lesions to psoriasis, a trial of the UV 308-nm excimer laser was initiated. Following initial test spots, she completed a total of 18 treatments to all lesions with noticeable clinical improvement (Figure 1B). Initially, the patient returned for treatment biweekly for approximately 5 weeks with 2 small spots being targeted at each session, with an average surface area of approximately 16 cm². She was started at 225 mJ/cm² with 25% increases at each session and ultimately reached up to 1676 mJ/cm² at the end of the 10 sessions. She tolerated the procedure well with some minor blistering. Treatment was deferred for 3 months due to the patient's schedule, then biweekly treatments resumed for 4 weeks, totaling 8 more sessions. At that time, all lesions on the right leg were targeted, with an average surface area of approximately 100 cm². The laser settings were initiated at 225 mJ/cm² with 20% increases at each session and ultimately reached 560 mJ/cm². The treatment was well tolerated throughout; however, the patient initially reported residual pruritus. The plaques continued to improve, and most notably, there was thinning of the hyperkeratotic scale of the plaques in addition to decreased erythema and complete resolution of pruritus. Ultimately, treatment was discontinued because of lack of insurance coverage and financial burden. The patient was lost to follow-up.

Comment

Presentation
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is a rare type of keratinocytic epidermal nevus⁴ that clinically presents as small, discrete, pruritic, scaly plaques coalescing into a linear plaque along the lines of Blaschko.⁹ Considerable pruritus and resistance to treatment are hallmarks of the disease.¹⁰ Histopathologically, ILVEN is characterized by alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis with a lack of neutrophils in an acanthotic epidermis.^11-13 Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus presents at birth or in early childhood. Adult onset is rare.^9,14 Approximately 75% of lesions present by 5 years of age, with a majority occurring within the first 6 months of life.¹⁵ The differential diagnosis includes linear psoriasis, epidermal nevi, linear lichen planus, linear verrucae, linear lichen simplex chronicus, and mycosis fungoides.^4,11

Differentiation From Psoriasis
Despite the histopathologic overlap with psoriasis, ILVEN exhibits fewer Ki-67-positive keratinocyte nuclei (proliferative marker) and more cytokeratin 10-positive cells (epidermal differentiation marker) than psoriasis.¹⁶ Furthermore, ILVEN has demonstrated fewer CD4⁻, CD8⁻, CD45RO⁻, CD2⁻, CD25⁻, CD94⁻, and CD161⁺ cells within the dermis and epidermis than psoriasis.¹⁶

The clinical presentations of ILVEN and psoriasis may be similar, as some patients with linear psoriasis also present with psoriatic plaques along the lines of Blaschko.¹⁷ Additionally, ILVEN may be a precursor to psoriasis. Altman and Mehregan1 found that ILVEN patients who developed psoriasis did so in areas previously affected by ILVEN; however, they continued to distinguish the 2 pathologies as distinct entities. Another early report also hypothesized that the dermoepidermal defect caused by epidermal nevi provided a site for the development of psoriatic lesions because of the Koebner phenomenon.¹⁸

Patients with ILVEN also have been found to have extracutaneous manifestations and symptoms commonly seen in psoriasis patients. A 2012 retrospective review revealed that 37% (7/19) of patients with ILVEN also had psoriatic arthritis, cutaneous psoriatic lesions, and/or nail pitting. The authors concluded that ILVEN may lead to the onset of psoriasis later in life and may indicate an underlying psoriatic predisposition.¹⁹ Genetic theories also have been proposed, stating that ILVEN may be a mosaic of psoriasis2 or that a postzygotic mutation leads to the predisposition for developing psoriasis.²⁰

Treatment
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus frequently is refractory to treatment; however, the associated pruritus and distressing cosmesis make treatment attempts worthwhile.¹¹ No single therapy has been found to be successful in all patients. A widely used first-line treatment is topical or intralesional corticosteroids, with the former typically used with occlusion.¹³ Other treatments include adalimumab, calcipotriol,^22,23 tretinoin,²⁴ and 5-fluorouracil.²⁴ Physical modalities such as cryotherapy, electrodesiccation, and dermabrasion have been reported with varying success.^15,24 Surgical treatments include tangential²⁵ and full-thickness excisions.²⁶

The CO₂ laser also has demonstrated success. One study showed considerable improvement of pruritus and partial resolution of lesions only 5 weeks following a single CO₂ laser treatment.⁵ Another study showed promising results when combining CO₂ pulsed laser therapy with fractional CO₂ laser treatment.⁶ Other laser therapies including the argon²⁷ and flashlamp-pumped pulsed dye lasers⁸ have been used with limited success. The use of light therapy and lasers in psoriasis have now increased the treatment options for ILVEN based on the rationale of their shared histopathologic characteristics. Photodynamic therapy also has been attempted because of its successful use in psoriasis patients. It has been found to be successful in diminishing ILVEN lesions and associated pruritus after a few weeks of therapy; however, treatment is limited by the associated pain and requirement for local anesthesia.²⁸

The excimer laser is a form of targeted phototherapy that emits monochromatic light at 308 nm.²⁹ It is ideal for inflammatory skin lesions because the UVB light induces apoptosis.³⁰ Psoriasis lesions treated with the excimer laser show a decrease in keratinocyte proliferation, which in turn reverses epidermal acanthosis and causes T-cell depletion due to upregulation of p53.^29,31 This mechanism of action addresses the overproliferation of keratinocytes mediated by T cells in psoriasis and contributes to the success of excimer laser treatment.³¹ A considerable advantage is its localized treatment, resulting in lower cumulative doses of UVB and reducing the possible carcinogenic and phototoxic risks of whole-body phototherapy.³²

One study examined the antipruritic effects of the excimer laser following the treatment of epidermal hyperinnervation leading to intractable pruritus in patients with atopic dermatitis. The researchers suggested that a potential explanation for the antipruritic effect of the excimer laser may be secondary to nerve degeneration.³³ Additionally, low doses of UVB light also may inhibit mast cell degranulation and prevent histamine release, further supporting the antipruritic properties of excimer laser.³⁴

In our patient, failed treatment with other modalities led to trial of excimer laser therapy because of the overlapping clinical and histopathologic findings with psoriasis. Excimer laser improved the clinical appearance and overall texture of the ILVEN lesions and decreased pruritus. The reasons for treatment success may be two-fold. By decreasing the number of keratinocytes and mast cells, the excimer laser may have improved the epidermal hyperplasia and pruritus in the ILVEN lesions. Alternatively, because the patient had ILVEN lesions since infancy, psoriasis may have developed in the location of the ILVEN lesions due to koebnerization, resulting in the clinical response to excimer therapy; however, she had no other clinical evidence of psoriasis.

Because of the recalcitrance of ILVEN lesions to conventional therapies, it is important to investigate therapies that may be of possible benefit. Our novel case documents successful use of the excimer laser in the treatment of ILVEN. 

Conclusion

Our case of ILVEN in a woman that had been present since infancy highlights the disease pathology as well as a potential new treatment modality. The patient was refractory to first-line treatments and was concerned about the cosmetic appearance of the lesions. The patient was subsequently treated with a trial of a 308-nm excimer laser with clinical improvement of the lesions. It is possible that the similarity of ILVEN and psoriasis may have contributed to the clinical improvement in our patient, but the mechanism of action remains unknown. Due to the paucity of evidence regarding optimal treatment of ILVEN, the current case offers dermatologists an option for patients who are refractory to other treatments.
 

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus (ILVEN) is a rare entity that presents with linear and pruritic psoriasiform plaques and most commonly occurs during childhood. It represents a dysregulation of keratinocytes exhibiting genetic mosaicism.^1,2 Epidermal nevi may derive from keratinocytic, follicular, sebaceous, apocrine, or eccrine origin. Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is classified under the keratinocytic type of epidermal nevus and represents approximately 6% of all epidermal nevi.³ The condition presents as erythematous and verrucous plaques along the lines of Blaschko.^2,4 There is a predilection for the legs, and girls are 4 times more commonly affected than boys.¹ Cases of ILVEN are predominantly sporadic, though rare familial cases have been reported.⁴

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is notoriously refractory to treatment. First-line therapies include topical agents such as corticosteroids, calcipotriol, retinoids, and 5-fluorouracil.^3,4 Other treatments include intralesional corticosteroids, cryotherapy, electrodesiccation and curettage, and surgical excision.³ Several case reports have shown promising results using the pulsed dye and ablative CO2 lasers.^5-8

Case Report

An otherwise healthy 20-year-old woman presented with dry, pruritic, red lesions on the right leg that had been present and stable since she was an infant (2 weeks of age). Her medical history included acne vulgaris, but she denied any personal or family history of psoriasis as well as any arthralgia or arthritis. Physical examination revealed discrete, oval, hyperkeratotic, scaly, red plaques on the lateral right leg with a larger hyperkeratotic, linear, red plaque extending from the right popliteal fossa to the posterior thigh (Figure 1A). The nails, scalp, buttocks, and upper extremities were unaffected. Bacterial culture of the right leg demonstrated Staphylococcus aureus colonization. Biopsy of the right popliteal fossa showed psoriasiform dermatitis with psoriasiform hyperplasia, a slightly verruciform surface, broad zones of superficial pallor, and parakeratosis with conspicuous colonies of bacteria (Figure 2).

Following the positive bacterial culture, the patient was treated with a short course of oral doxycycline, which did not alter the clinical appearance of the lesions or improve symptoms of pruritus. Pruritus improved moderately with topical corticosteroid treatment, but clinically the lesions appeared unchanged. The plaque on the superior right leg was treated with a superpulsed CO₂ laser and the plaque on the inferior right leg was treated with a fractional CO₂ laser, both with minimal improvement.

Because of the clinical and histopathologic similarities of the patient's lesions to psoriasis, a trial of the UV 308-nm excimer laser was initiated. Following initial test spots, she completed a total of 18 treatments to all lesions with noticeable clinical improvement (Figure 1B). Initially, the patient returned for treatment biweekly for approximately 5 weeks with 2 small spots being targeted at each session, with an average surface area of approximately 16 cm². She was started at 225 mJ/cm² with 25% increases at each session and ultimately reached up to 1676 mJ/cm² at the end of the 10 sessions. She tolerated the procedure well with some minor blistering. Treatment was deferred for 3 months due to the patient's schedule, then biweekly treatments resumed for 4 weeks, totaling 8 more sessions. At that time, all lesions on the right leg were targeted, with an average surface area of approximately 100 cm². The laser settings were initiated at 225 mJ/cm² with 20% increases at each session and ultimately reached 560 mJ/cm². The treatment was well tolerated throughout; however, the patient initially reported residual pruritus. The plaques continued to improve, and most notably, there was thinning of the hyperkeratotic scale of the plaques in addition to decreased erythema and complete resolution of pruritus. Ultimately, treatment was discontinued because of lack of insurance coverage and financial burden. The patient was lost to follow-up.

Comment

Presentation
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is a rare type of keratinocytic epidermal nevus⁴ that clinically presents as small, discrete, pruritic, scaly plaques coalescing into a linear plaque along the lines of Blaschko.⁹ Considerable pruritus and resistance to treatment are hallmarks of the disease.¹⁰ Histopathologically, ILVEN is characterized by alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis with a lack of neutrophils in an acanthotic epidermis.^11-13 Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus presents at birth or in early childhood. Adult onset is rare.^9,14 Approximately 75% of lesions present by 5 years of age, with a majority occurring within the first 6 months of life.¹⁵ The differential diagnosis includes linear psoriasis, epidermal nevi, linear lichen planus, linear verrucae, linear lichen simplex chronicus, and mycosis fungoides.^4,11

Differentiation From Psoriasis
Despite the histopathologic overlap with psoriasis, ILVEN exhibits fewer Ki-67-positive keratinocyte nuclei (proliferative marker) and more cytokeratin 10-positive cells (epidermal differentiation marker) than psoriasis.¹⁶ Furthermore, ILVEN has demonstrated fewer CD4⁻, CD8⁻, CD45RO⁻, CD2⁻, CD25⁻, CD94⁻, and CD161⁺ cells within the dermis and epidermis than psoriasis.¹⁶

The clinical presentations of ILVEN and psoriasis may be similar, as some patients with linear psoriasis also present with psoriatic plaques along the lines of Blaschko.¹⁷ Additionally, ILVEN may be a precursor to psoriasis. Altman and Mehregan1 found that ILVEN patients who developed psoriasis did so in areas previously affected by ILVEN; however, they continued to distinguish the 2 pathologies as distinct entities. Another early report also hypothesized that the dermoepidermal defect caused by epidermal nevi provided a site for the development of psoriatic lesions because of the Koebner phenomenon.¹⁸

Patients with ILVEN also have been found to have extracutaneous manifestations and symptoms commonly seen in psoriasis patients. A 2012 retrospective review revealed that 37% (7/19) of patients with ILVEN also had psoriatic arthritis, cutaneous psoriatic lesions, and/or nail pitting. The authors concluded that ILVEN may lead to the onset of psoriasis later in life and may indicate an underlying psoriatic predisposition.¹⁹ Genetic theories also have been proposed, stating that ILVEN may be a mosaic of psoriasis2 or that a postzygotic mutation leads to the predisposition for developing psoriasis.²⁰

Treatment
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus frequently is refractory to treatment; however, the associated pruritus and distressing cosmesis make treatment attempts worthwhile.¹¹ No single therapy has been found to be successful in all patients. A widely used first-line treatment is topical or intralesional corticosteroids, with the former typically used with occlusion.¹³ Other treatments include adalimumab, calcipotriol,^22,23 tretinoin,²⁴ and 5-fluorouracil.²⁴ Physical modalities such as cryotherapy, electrodesiccation, and dermabrasion have been reported with varying success.^15,24 Surgical treatments include tangential²⁵ and full-thickness excisions.²⁶

The CO₂ laser also has demonstrated success. One study showed considerable improvement of pruritus and partial resolution of lesions only 5 weeks following a single CO₂ laser treatment.⁵ Another study showed promising results when combining CO₂ pulsed laser therapy with fractional CO₂ laser treatment.⁶ Other laser therapies including the argon²⁷ and flashlamp-pumped pulsed dye lasers⁸ have been used with limited success. The use of light therapy and lasers in psoriasis have now increased the treatment options for ILVEN based on the rationale of their shared histopathologic characteristics. Photodynamic therapy also has been attempted because of its successful use in psoriasis patients. It has been found to be successful in diminishing ILVEN lesions and associated pruritus after a few weeks of therapy; however, treatment is limited by the associated pain and requirement for local anesthesia.²⁸

The excimer laser is a form of targeted phototherapy that emits monochromatic light at 308 nm.²⁹ It is ideal for inflammatory skin lesions because the UVB light induces apoptosis.³⁰ Psoriasis lesions treated with the excimer laser show a decrease in keratinocyte proliferation, which in turn reverses epidermal acanthosis and causes T-cell depletion due to upregulation of p53.^29,31 This mechanism of action addresses the overproliferation of keratinocytes mediated by T cells in psoriasis and contributes to the success of excimer laser treatment.³¹ A considerable advantage is its localized treatment, resulting in lower cumulative doses of UVB and reducing the possible carcinogenic and phototoxic risks of whole-body phototherapy.³²

One study examined the antipruritic effects of the excimer laser following the treatment of epidermal hyperinnervation leading to intractable pruritus in patients with atopic dermatitis. The researchers suggested that a potential explanation for the antipruritic effect of the excimer laser may be secondary to nerve degeneration.³³ Additionally, low doses of UVB light also may inhibit mast cell degranulation and prevent histamine release, further supporting the antipruritic properties of excimer laser.³⁴

In our patient, failed treatment with other modalities led to trial of excimer laser therapy because of the overlapping clinical and histopathologic findings with psoriasis. Excimer laser improved the clinical appearance and overall texture of the ILVEN lesions and decreased pruritus. The reasons for treatment success may be two-fold. By decreasing the number of keratinocytes and mast cells, the excimer laser may have improved the epidermal hyperplasia and pruritus in the ILVEN lesions. Alternatively, because the patient had ILVEN lesions since infancy, psoriasis may have developed in the location of the ILVEN lesions due to koebnerization, resulting in the clinical response to excimer therapy; however, she had no other clinical evidence of psoriasis.

Because of the recalcitrance of ILVEN lesions to conventional therapies, it is important to investigate therapies that may be of possible benefit. Our novel case documents successful use of the excimer laser in the treatment of ILVEN. 

Conclusion

Our case of ILVEN in a woman that had been present since infancy highlights the disease pathology as well as a potential new treatment modality. The patient was refractory to first-line treatments and was concerned about the cosmetic appearance of the lesions. The patient was subsequently treated with a trial of a 308-nm excimer laser with clinical improvement of the lesions. It is possible that the similarity of ILVEN and psoriasis may have contributed to the clinical improvement in our patient, but the mechanism of action remains unknown. Due to the paucity of evidence regarding optimal treatment of ILVEN, the current case offers dermatologists an option for patients who are refractory to other treatments.
 

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus (ILVEN) is a rare entity that presents with linear and pruritic psoriasiform plaques and most commonly occurs during childhood. It represents a dysregulation of keratinocytes exhibiting genetic mosaicism.^1,2 Epidermal nevi may derive from keratinocytic, follicular, sebaceous, apocrine, or eccrine origin. Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is classified under the keratinocytic type of epidermal nevus and represents approximately 6% of all epidermal nevi.³ The condition presents as erythematous and verrucous plaques along the lines of Blaschko.^2,4 There is a predilection for the legs, and girls are 4 times more commonly affected than boys.¹ Cases of ILVEN are predominantly sporadic, though rare familial cases have been reported.⁴

Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is notoriously refractory to treatment. First-line therapies include topical agents such as corticosteroids, calcipotriol, retinoids, and 5-fluorouracil.^3,4 Other treatments include intralesional corticosteroids, cryotherapy, electrodesiccation and curettage, and surgical excision.³ Several case reports have shown promising results using the pulsed dye and ablative CO2 lasers.^5-8

Case Report

An otherwise healthy 20-year-old woman presented with dry, pruritic, red lesions on the right leg that had been present and stable since she was an infant (2 weeks of age). Her medical history included acne vulgaris, but she denied any personal or family history of psoriasis as well as any arthralgia or arthritis. Physical examination revealed discrete, oval, hyperkeratotic, scaly, red plaques on the lateral right leg with a larger hyperkeratotic, linear, red plaque extending from the right popliteal fossa to the posterior thigh (Figure 1A). The nails, scalp, buttocks, and upper extremities were unaffected. Bacterial culture of the right leg demonstrated Staphylococcus aureus colonization. Biopsy of the right popliteal fossa showed psoriasiform dermatitis with psoriasiform hyperplasia, a slightly verruciform surface, broad zones of superficial pallor, and parakeratosis with conspicuous colonies of bacteria (Figure 2).

Following the positive bacterial culture, the patient was treated with a short course of oral doxycycline, which did not alter the clinical appearance of the lesions or improve symptoms of pruritus. Pruritus improved moderately with topical corticosteroid treatment, but clinically the lesions appeared unchanged. The plaque on the superior right leg was treated with a superpulsed CO₂ laser and the plaque on the inferior right leg was treated with a fractional CO₂ laser, both with minimal improvement.

Because of the clinical and histopathologic similarities of the patient's lesions to psoriasis, a trial of the UV 308-nm excimer laser was initiated. Following initial test spots, she completed a total of 18 treatments to all lesions with noticeable clinical improvement (Figure 1B). Initially, the patient returned for treatment biweekly for approximately 5 weeks with 2 small spots being targeted at each session, with an average surface area of approximately 16 cm². She was started at 225 mJ/cm² with 25% increases at each session and ultimately reached up to 1676 mJ/cm² at the end of the 10 sessions. She tolerated the procedure well with some minor blistering. Treatment was deferred for 3 months due to the patient's schedule, then biweekly treatments resumed for 4 weeks, totaling 8 more sessions. At that time, all lesions on the right leg were targeted, with an average surface area of approximately 100 cm². The laser settings were initiated at 225 mJ/cm² with 20% increases at each session and ultimately reached 560 mJ/cm². The treatment was well tolerated throughout; however, the patient initially reported residual pruritus. The plaques continued to improve, and most notably, there was thinning of the hyperkeratotic scale of the plaques in addition to decreased erythema and complete resolution of pruritus. Ultimately, treatment was discontinued because of lack of insurance coverage and financial burden. The patient was lost to follow-up.

Comment

Presentation
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus is a rare type of keratinocytic epidermal nevus⁴ that clinically presents as small, discrete, pruritic, scaly plaques coalescing into a linear plaque along the lines of Blaschko.⁹ Considerable pruritus and resistance to treatment are hallmarks of the disease.¹⁰ Histopathologically, ILVEN is characterized by alternating orthokeratosis and parakeratosis with a lack of neutrophils in an acanthotic epidermis.^11-13 Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus presents at birth or in early childhood. Adult onset is rare.^9,14 Approximately 75% of lesions present by 5 years of age, with a majority occurring within the first 6 months of life.¹⁵ The differential diagnosis includes linear psoriasis, epidermal nevi, linear lichen planus, linear verrucae, linear lichen simplex chronicus, and mycosis fungoides.^4,11

Differentiation From Psoriasis
Despite the histopathologic overlap with psoriasis, ILVEN exhibits fewer Ki-67-positive keratinocyte nuclei (proliferative marker) and more cytokeratin 10-positive cells (epidermal differentiation marker) than psoriasis.¹⁶ Furthermore, ILVEN has demonstrated fewer CD4⁻, CD8⁻, CD45RO⁻, CD2⁻, CD25⁻, CD94⁻, and CD161⁺ cells within the dermis and epidermis than psoriasis.¹⁶

The clinical presentations of ILVEN and psoriasis may be similar, as some patients with linear psoriasis also present with psoriatic plaques along the lines of Blaschko.¹⁷ Additionally, ILVEN may be a precursor to psoriasis. Altman and Mehregan1 found that ILVEN patients who developed psoriasis did so in areas previously affected by ILVEN; however, they continued to distinguish the 2 pathologies as distinct entities. Another early report also hypothesized that the dermoepidermal defect caused by epidermal nevi provided a site for the development of psoriatic lesions because of the Koebner phenomenon.¹⁸

Patients with ILVEN also have been found to have extracutaneous manifestations and symptoms commonly seen in psoriasis patients. A 2012 retrospective review revealed that 37% (7/19) of patients with ILVEN also had psoriatic arthritis, cutaneous psoriatic lesions, and/or nail pitting. The authors concluded that ILVEN may lead to the onset of psoriasis later in life and may indicate an underlying psoriatic predisposition.¹⁹ Genetic theories also have been proposed, stating that ILVEN may be a mosaic of psoriasis2 or that a postzygotic mutation leads to the predisposition for developing psoriasis.²⁰

Treatment
Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus frequently is refractory to treatment; however, the associated pruritus and distressing cosmesis make treatment attempts worthwhile.¹¹ No single therapy has been found to be successful in all patients. A widely used first-line treatment is topical or intralesional corticosteroids, with the former typically used with occlusion.¹³ Other treatments include adalimumab, calcipotriol,^22,23 tretinoin,²⁴ and 5-fluorouracil.²⁴ Physical modalities such as cryotherapy, electrodesiccation, and dermabrasion have been reported with varying success.^15,24 Surgical treatments include tangential²⁵ and full-thickness excisions.²⁶

The CO₂ laser also has demonstrated success. One study showed considerable improvement of pruritus and partial resolution of lesions only 5 weeks following a single CO₂ laser treatment.⁵ Another study showed promising results when combining CO₂ pulsed laser therapy with fractional CO₂ laser treatment.⁶ Other laser therapies including the argon²⁷ and flashlamp-pumped pulsed dye lasers⁸ have been used with limited success. The use of light therapy and lasers in psoriasis have now increased the treatment options for ILVEN based on the rationale of their shared histopathologic characteristics. Photodynamic therapy also has been attempted because of its successful use in psoriasis patients. It has been found to be successful in diminishing ILVEN lesions and associated pruritus after a few weeks of therapy; however, treatment is limited by the associated pain and requirement for local anesthesia.²⁸

The excimer laser is a form of targeted phototherapy that emits monochromatic light at 308 nm.²⁹ It is ideal for inflammatory skin lesions because the UVB light induces apoptosis.³⁰ Psoriasis lesions treated with the excimer laser show a decrease in keratinocyte proliferation, which in turn reverses epidermal acanthosis and causes T-cell depletion due to upregulation of p53.^29,31 This mechanism of action addresses the overproliferation of keratinocytes mediated by T cells in psoriasis and contributes to the success of excimer laser treatment.³¹ A considerable advantage is its localized treatment, resulting in lower cumulative doses of UVB and reducing the possible carcinogenic and phototoxic risks of whole-body phototherapy.³²

One study examined the antipruritic effects of the excimer laser following the treatment of epidermal hyperinnervation leading to intractable pruritus in patients with atopic dermatitis. The researchers suggested that a potential explanation for the antipruritic effect of the excimer laser may be secondary to nerve degeneration.³³ Additionally, low doses of UVB light also may inhibit mast cell degranulation and prevent histamine release, further supporting the antipruritic properties of excimer laser.³⁴

In our patient, failed treatment with other modalities led to trial of excimer laser therapy because of the overlapping clinical and histopathologic findings with psoriasis. Excimer laser improved the clinical appearance and overall texture of the ILVEN lesions and decreased pruritus. The reasons for treatment success may be two-fold. By decreasing the number of keratinocytes and mast cells, the excimer laser may have improved the epidermal hyperplasia and pruritus in the ILVEN lesions. Alternatively, because the patient had ILVEN lesions since infancy, psoriasis may have developed in the location of the ILVEN lesions due to koebnerization, resulting in the clinical response to excimer therapy; however, she had no other clinical evidence of psoriasis.

Because of the recalcitrance of ILVEN lesions to conventional therapies, it is important to investigate therapies that may be of possible benefit. Our novel case documents successful use of the excimer laser in the treatment of ILVEN. 

Conclusion

Our case of ILVEN in a woman that had been present since infancy highlights the disease pathology as well as a potential new treatment modality. The patient was refractory to first-line treatments and was concerned about the cosmetic appearance of the lesions. The patient was subsequently treated with a trial of a 308-nm excimer laser with clinical improvement of the lesions. It is possible that the similarity of ILVEN and psoriasis may have contributed to the clinical improvement in our patient, but the mechanism of action remains unknown. Due to the paucity of evidence regarding optimal treatment of ILVEN, the current case offers dermatologists an option for patients who are refractory to other treatments.
 

THE CASE

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 13 weeks’ gestation came in for a routine prenatal visit complaining of sudden-onset heart palpitations that were occurring about once a week. Each episode lasted between 15 and 60 minutes and was accompanied by chest tightness, with no identifiable cause. The patient could inconsistently terminate the episodes with Valsalva maneuvers. She reported having had 2 similar incidents of palpitations within the past year. Her family history was significant for sudden cardiac death of her father and paternal grandfather in their fifth decades of life.

A cardiovascular exam was normal; heart auscultation revealed a regular rate and rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and the peripheral pulses were normal. A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level, basic metabolic panel (BMP), and complete blood count (CBC) were within normal limits. A transthoracic echocardiogram was negative for structural heart disease.

THE DIAGNOSIS

An initial Holter monitor study failed to capture an episode of her palpitations. The frequency of her palpitations increased as her pregnancy progressed, occurring almost daily by the second half of the third trimester, and a repeat Holter monitor study in the third trimester was significant for a 3-minute episode of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that correlated with patient-recorded symptoms (FIGURE).

Based on these results, we diagnosed the patient with an atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia (AVNRT). Although atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia (AVRT) remained a remote possibility, it is far less common, and a 12-lead electrocardiogram (EKG) showed no evidence of pre-excitation.

DISCUSSION

AVNRT is the most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). It occurs more frequently in women and typically manifests in the second to fourth decades of life.¹ AVNRT is a narrow complex tachycardia characterized by a heart rate of 120 to >200 beats/min.

Hemodynamic changes in pregnancy can trigger arrhythmias

During pregnancy, hemodynamic changes (including increased blood volume and cardiac output) are thought to stimulate stretch-activated ion channels within the walls of the heart.^2-4 Such changes may exacerbate previously existing cardiac arrhythmias or (less commonly) cause new-onset arrhythmias.^3,4 A family history positive for arrhythmias or sudden cardiac death increases the likelihood of developing tachyarrhythmia during pregnancy.³ Women with a known history of PSVT might experience symptom exacerbation despite being on prophylactic therapy.⁴

Detection and diagnosis

While AVNRT is relatively benign in pregnancy, other cardiac arrhythmias (eg, atrial fibrillation/flutter, ventricular tachycardia) carry a greater risk for fetal and maternal complications, underscoring the need to correctly identify the type of arrhythmia.^2,3

Continue to: Physical exam findings

Physical exam findings are often unremarkable unless the patient is actively experiencing SVT in the office, in which case prominent jugular pulsations may be seen due to simultaneous contraction of the atria and ventricles.

The initial evaluation of a pregnant patient presenting with tachycardia should include a BMP, TSH, 12-lead EKG, and transthoracic echocardiography.^3,5 In most patients with AVNRT, the results of these tests will be normal. A Holter monitor can be used to document an arrhythmia if the episodes are relatively frequent or an event monitor can be used if the episodes are infrequent.⁵

EKG findings. When patients are actively experiencing SVT, EKG findings include a P wave obscured by the QRS complex, sometimes manifesting as a pseudo-R wave in the V1 lead and a pseudo-S wave in leads II, III, and AVF. The QRS complex is narrow and the R-R interval is regular.⁶

Types of treatment

Valsalva maneuvers. Treatment of AVNRT in pregnancy should first involve addressing any precipitating causes, including metabolic and endocrine abnormalities.³ As virtually all antiarrhythmic drugs cross the placenta and are traceable in breast milk,^2,3 patients should be counseled to try to stop episodes using Valsalva maneuvers before moving to pharmacologic treatment.

Antiarrhythmics. First-line pharmacologic treatment for the prevention of AVNRT in pregnancy is metoprolol or verapamil.^2,5 Neither drug has been associated with adverse outcomes in infants, although there is a large body of evidence suggesting that low levels of metoprolol are present in breast milk.⁷

Continue to: Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to...

Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to vagal maneuvers or occur despite medical management can be treated acutely in pregnancy with adenosine, which effectively stops episodes about 90% of the time.² (See the TABLE^8,9 for a list of antiarrhythmics that may be used to treat AVNRT.)

Catheter ablation is first-line treatment for AVNRT in nonpregnant patients.^1,5 The risks of undergoing ablation during pregnancy include fetal exposure to radiation and anesthetic drugs.^2,3 Therefore, this treatment should be used only when pharmacologic treatment is unsuccessful and risks to the mother and fetus due to the arrhythmia outweigh the risks of the procedure. Ablation can be offered postpartum as more definitive therapy.

Our patient was started on metoprolol tartrate 12.5 mg bid at 35 weeks’ gestation due to increasingly common and persistent palpitations. This helped control the episodes for 2 weeks, at which point they increased again in frequency. These were terminated using Valsalva maneuvers; increasing the metoprolol dosage was prohibitive due to patient intolerance.

Tachyarrhythmias such as atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy.

Following an uncomplicated delivery, and discontinuation of metoprolol, the patient reported a decrease in both the number of episodes and the duration of SVT. Ultimately, she opted for a catheter ablation to prevent SVT exacerbation during subsequent pregnancies.

THE TAKEAWAY

AVNRT (and other tachyarrhythmias) may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy. After establishing the diagnosis, effort should be made to manage the condition conservatively with Valsalva maneuvers and medication. Catheter ablation should be offered postpartum as a more definitive treatment option.

CORRESPONDENCE
Joseph Lane Wilson, MD, ECU Brody School of Medicine, Department of Family Medicine Medical Director, 101 Heart Drive, Greenville, NC 27834; wilsonjo@ecu.edu.

THE CASE

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 13 weeks’ gestation came in for a routine prenatal visit complaining of sudden-onset heart palpitations that were occurring about once a week. Each episode lasted between 15 and 60 minutes and was accompanied by chest tightness, with no identifiable cause. The patient could inconsistently terminate the episodes with Valsalva maneuvers. She reported having had 2 similar incidents of palpitations within the past year. Her family history was significant for sudden cardiac death of her father and paternal grandfather in their fifth decades of life.

A cardiovascular exam was normal; heart auscultation revealed a regular rate and rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and the peripheral pulses were normal. A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level, basic metabolic panel (BMP), and complete blood count (CBC) were within normal limits. A transthoracic echocardiogram was negative for structural heart disease.

THE DIAGNOSIS

An initial Holter monitor study failed to capture an episode of her palpitations. The frequency of her palpitations increased as her pregnancy progressed, occurring almost daily by the second half of the third trimester, and a repeat Holter monitor study in the third trimester was significant for a 3-minute episode of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that correlated with patient-recorded symptoms (FIGURE).

Based on these results, we diagnosed the patient with an atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia (AVNRT). Although atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia (AVRT) remained a remote possibility, it is far less common, and a 12-lead electrocardiogram (EKG) showed no evidence of pre-excitation.

DISCUSSION

AVNRT is the most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). It occurs more frequently in women and typically manifests in the second to fourth decades of life.¹ AVNRT is a narrow complex tachycardia characterized by a heart rate of 120 to >200 beats/min.

Hemodynamic changes in pregnancy can trigger arrhythmias

During pregnancy, hemodynamic changes (including increased blood volume and cardiac output) are thought to stimulate stretch-activated ion channels within the walls of the heart.^2-4 Such changes may exacerbate previously existing cardiac arrhythmias or (less commonly) cause new-onset arrhythmias.^3,4 A family history positive for arrhythmias or sudden cardiac death increases the likelihood of developing tachyarrhythmia during pregnancy.³ Women with a known history of PSVT might experience symptom exacerbation despite being on prophylactic therapy.⁴

Detection and diagnosis

While AVNRT is relatively benign in pregnancy, other cardiac arrhythmias (eg, atrial fibrillation/flutter, ventricular tachycardia) carry a greater risk for fetal and maternal complications, underscoring the need to correctly identify the type of arrhythmia.^2,3

Continue to: Physical exam findings

Physical exam findings are often unremarkable unless the patient is actively experiencing SVT in the office, in which case prominent jugular pulsations may be seen due to simultaneous contraction of the atria and ventricles.

The initial evaluation of a pregnant patient presenting with tachycardia should include a BMP, TSH, 12-lead EKG, and transthoracic echocardiography.^3,5 In most patients with AVNRT, the results of these tests will be normal. A Holter monitor can be used to document an arrhythmia if the episodes are relatively frequent or an event monitor can be used if the episodes are infrequent.⁵

EKG findings. When patients are actively experiencing SVT, EKG findings include a P wave obscured by the QRS complex, sometimes manifesting as a pseudo-R wave in the V1 lead and a pseudo-S wave in leads II, III, and AVF. The QRS complex is narrow and the R-R interval is regular.⁶

Types of treatment

Valsalva maneuvers. Treatment of AVNRT in pregnancy should first involve addressing any precipitating causes, including metabolic and endocrine abnormalities.³ As virtually all antiarrhythmic drugs cross the placenta and are traceable in breast milk,^2,3 patients should be counseled to try to stop episodes using Valsalva maneuvers before moving to pharmacologic treatment.

Antiarrhythmics. First-line pharmacologic treatment for the prevention of AVNRT in pregnancy is metoprolol or verapamil.^2,5 Neither drug has been associated with adverse outcomes in infants, although there is a large body of evidence suggesting that low levels of metoprolol are present in breast milk.⁷

Continue to: Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to...

Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to vagal maneuvers or occur despite medical management can be treated acutely in pregnancy with adenosine, which effectively stops episodes about 90% of the time.² (See the TABLE^8,9 for a list of antiarrhythmics that may be used to treat AVNRT.)

Catheter ablation is first-line treatment for AVNRT in nonpregnant patients.^1,5 The risks of undergoing ablation during pregnancy include fetal exposure to radiation and anesthetic drugs.^2,3 Therefore, this treatment should be used only when pharmacologic treatment is unsuccessful and risks to the mother and fetus due to the arrhythmia outweigh the risks of the procedure. Ablation can be offered postpartum as more definitive therapy.

Our patient was started on metoprolol tartrate 12.5 mg bid at 35 weeks’ gestation due to increasingly common and persistent palpitations. This helped control the episodes for 2 weeks, at which point they increased again in frequency. These were terminated using Valsalva maneuvers; increasing the metoprolol dosage was prohibitive due to patient intolerance.

Tachyarrhythmias such as atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy.

Following an uncomplicated delivery, and discontinuation of metoprolol, the patient reported a decrease in both the number of episodes and the duration of SVT. Ultimately, she opted for a catheter ablation to prevent SVT exacerbation during subsequent pregnancies.

THE TAKEAWAY

AVNRT (and other tachyarrhythmias) may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy. After establishing the diagnosis, effort should be made to manage the condition conservatively with Valsalva maneuvers and medication. Catheter ablation should be offered postpartum as a more definitive treatment option.

CORRESPONDENCE
Joseph Lane Wilson, MD, ECU Brody School of Medicine, Department of Family Medicine Medical Director, 101 Heart Drive, Greenville, NC 27834; wilsonjo@ecu.edu.

THE CASE

A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 13 weeks’ gestation came in for a routine prenatal visit complaining of sudden-onset heart palpitations that were occurring about once a week. Each episode lasted between 15 and 60 minutes and was accompanied by chest tightness, with no identifiable cause. The patient could inconsistently terminate the episodes with Valsalva maneuvers. She reported having had 2 similar incidents of palpitations within the past year. Her family history was significant for sudden cardiac death of her father and paternal grandfather in their fifth decades of life.

A cardiovascular exam was normal; heart auscultation revealed a regular rate and rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and the peripheral pulses were normal. A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level, basic metabolic panel (BMP), and complete blood count (CBC) were within normal limits. A transthoracic echocardiogram was negative for structural heart disease.

THE DIAGNOSIS

An initial Holter monitor study failed to capture an episode of her palpitations. The frequency of her palpitations increased as her pregnancy progressed, occurring almost daily by the second half of the third trimester, and a repeat Holter monitor study in the third trimester was significant for a 3-minute episode of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that correlated with patient-recorded symptoms (FIGURE).

Based on these results, we diagnosed the patient with an atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia (AVNRT). Although atrioventricular reciprocating tachycardia (AVRT) remained a remote possibility, it is far less common, and a 12-lead electrocardiogram (EKG) showed no evidence of pre-excitation.

DISCUSSION

AVNRT is the most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). It occurs more frequently in women and typically manifests in the second to fourth decades of life.¹ AVNRT is a narrow complex tachycardia characterized by a heart rate of 120 to >200 beats/min.

Hemodynamic changes in pregnancy can trigger arrhythmias

During pregnancy, hemodynamic changes (including increased blood volume and cardiac output) are thought to stimulate stretch-activated ion channels within the walls of the heart.^2-4 Such changes may exacerbate previously existing cardiac arrhythmias or (less commonly) cause new-onset arrhythmias.^3,4 A family history positive for arrhythmias or sudden cardiac death increases the likelihood of developing tachyarrhythmia during pregnancy.³ Women with a known history of PSVT might experience symptom exacerbation despite being on prophylactic therapy.⁴

Detection and diagnosis

While AVNRT is relatively benign in pregnancy, other cardiac arrhythmias (eg, atrial fibrillation/flutter, ventricular tachycardia) carry a greater risk for fetal and maternal complications, underscoring the need to correctly identify the type of arrhythmia.^2,3

Continue to: Physical exam findings

Physical exam findings are often unremarkable unless the patient is actively experiencing SVT in the office, in which case prominent jugular pulsations may be seen due to simultaneous contraction of the atria and ventricles.

The initial evaluation of a pregnant patient presenting with tachycardia should include a BMP, TSH, 12-lead EKG, and transthoracic echocardiography.^3,5 In most patients with AVNRT, the results of these tests will be normal. A Holter monitor can be used to document an arrhythmia if the episodes are relatively frequent or an event monitor can be used if the episodes are infrequent.⁵

EKG findings. When patients are actively experiencing SVT, EKG findings include a P wave obscured by the QRS complex, sometimes manifesting as a pseudo-R wave in the V1 lead and a pseudo-S wave in leads II, III, and AVF. The QRS complex is narrow and the R-R interval is regular.⁶

Types of treatment

Valsalva maneuvers. Treatment of AVNRT in pregnancy should first involve addressing any precipitating causes, including metabolic and endocrine abnormalities.³ As virtually all antiarrhythmic drugs cross the placenta and are traceable in breast milk,^2,3 patients should be counseled to try to stop episodes using Valsalva maneuvers before moving to pharmacologic treatment.

Antiarrhythmics. First-line pharmacologic treatment for the prevention of AVNRT in pregnancy is metoprolol or verapamil.^2,5 Neither drug has been associated with adverse outcomes in infants, although there is a large body of evidence suggesting that low levels of metoprolol are present in breast milk.⁷

Continue to: Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to...

Acute episodes of SVT that are refractory to vagal maneuvers or occur despite medical management can be treated acutely in pregnancy with adenosine, which effectively stops episodes about 90% of the time.² (See the TABLE^8,9 for a list of antiarrhythmics that may be used to treat AVNRT.)

Catheter ablation is first-line treatment for AVNRT in nonpregnant patients.^1,5 The risks of undergoing ablation during pregnancy include fetal exposure to radiation and anesthetic drugs.^2,3 Therefore, this treatment should be used only when pharmacologic treatment is unsuccessful and risks to the mother and fetus due to the arrhythmia outweigh the risks of the procedure. Ablation can be offered postpartum as more definitive therapy.

Our patient was started on metoprolol tartrate 12.5 mg bid at 35 weeks’ gestation due to increasingly common and persistent palpitations. This helped control the episodes for 2 weeks, at which point they increased again in frequency. These were terminated using Valsalva maneuvers; increasing the metoprolol dosage was prohibitive due to patient intolerance.

Tachyarrhythmias such as atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy.

Following an uncomplicated delivery, and discontinuation of metoprolol, the patient reported a decrease in both the number of episodes and the duration of SVT. Ultimately, she opted for a catheter ablation to prevent SVT exacerbation during subsequent pregnancies.

THE TAKEAWAY

AVNRT (and other tachyarrhythmias) may worsen or manifest with physiologic changes that occur during pregnancy. After establishing the diagnosis, effort should be made to manage the condition conservatively with Valsalva maneuvers and medication. Catheter ablation should be offered postpartum as a more definitive treatment option.

CORRESPONDENCE
Joseph Lane Wilson, MD, ECU Brody School of Medicine, Department of Family Medicine Medical Director, 101 Heart Drive, Greenville, NC 27834; wilsonjo@ecu.edu.

THE CASE

A 22-year-old man presented to our family medicine clinic with hip pain of 2 weeks’ duration. The patient played hockey around the time of onset, but denied any specific injury. The pain, which affected the anterolateral aspect of the patient’s right hip, first started when he stood up after eating a meal. He rated the pain as an 8/10 on average and said that it was worse with movement. The patient had not shown improvement with conservative therapy (rest, ice, and ibuprofen). His medical and surgical history were noted as noncontributory. He was not taking any medications other than over-the-counter pain medication, did not drink alcohol or use tobacco, and he exercised regularly. A review of systems was negative except for right hip pain.

The physical exam revealed pain on active flexion and abduction of the hip. Passive range of motion (ROM) was negative for pain. The right hip was grossly normal with no pain on palpation or crepitus. There was no associated muscle tenderness. The patient was advised to continue to rest and ice the hip, as well as to take ibuprofen for pain relief. He was referred to Physical Therapy.

He returned to our clinic 4 weeks later with no improvement in his symptoms despite several sessions of physical therapy. We ordered radiographic images and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the right hip.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Plain films (FIGURE 1A) showed bilateral avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral heads, which was worse on the right side than the left. An MRI (FIGURE 1B) further supported this diagnosis, revealing changes in the femoral neck consistent with a stress reaction and no significant collapse of the femoral head.

DISCUSSION

AVN of the hip has an incidence ranging from 10,000 to 20,000 new cases annually.^1,2 It has many possible causes, including trauma, systemic lupus erythematosus, glucocorticoid use, and chronic excessive alcohol use. Although the underlying pathophysiology varies, experts hypothesize that most cases are caused by a disruption of the blood supply, which leads to hyperemia and cortical destruction and collapse.^1,2

Certain medications can cause AVN

A more thorough history-taking at this patient’s initial visit would have prompted imaging at that time and ensured that the standard of care was met. Upon further investigation at his follow-up appointment, it was discovered that he had been diagnosed with acute pre-B cell lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) 2 years earlier and had undergone chemotherapy with cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, methotrexate, and glucocorticoids. This discovery, along with the lack of symptom improvement, prompted the ordering of his imaging studies. Long-term glucocorticoid therapy is the second leading cause of AVN, following traumatic events.³ High daily dosages (>40 mg/d) and high cumulative dosages of glucocorticoids are associated with a significantly increased risk for AVN.^4,5

The other chemotherapy agents with which our patient had been treated (cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, and methotrexate) have no reported links to AVN. When mentioned in the literature, however, they are usually coupled with the use of dexamethasone or prednisone.

Continue to: One case report described a patient with...

One case report described a patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia who was treated with all-transretinoic acid, daunomycin, cytarabine, and a short course of dexamethasone, and was diagnosed with AVN 2 years after the cessation of chemotherapy.⁶ This demonstrates that steroid use does not need to be recent to have a contributory effect.

Did leukemic burden play a role?

We also considered whether the patient’s leukemic burden contributed to his osteonecrosis. Leukemia and its therapy regimens have been reported to cause cerebrovascular complications,⁷ so it would be logical to postulate that they might also pose a risk to the vasculature of the femoral head. One case report describes hip pain and AVN as the initial manifestation of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).⁸ But CML is more often associated with a severely increased white blood cell (WBC) count than is ALL, and our patient’s WBC count was in the expected range for a patient in the maintenance phase of chemotherapy, making leukemic burden a less likely culprit.

Know your patient’s history

Our patient had received an initial dose of approximately 120 mg/d prednisone alone during the first 28 days of his induction therapy for ALL. In addition, he received dexamethasone maintenance therapy, which can accumulate to >140 mg/m² over the course of therapy.⁹ This information was ultimately integral to his diagnosis and treatment.

Our patient was referred to Orthopedics. He underwent therapy with alendronate and did not require surgical intervention.

THE TAKEAWAY

This case illustrates the importance of obtaining a thorough medical history, including previous drug exposures, as a means to raise or lower one’s index of suspicion appropriately.

CORRESPONDENCE
Patrick Basile, 7124 Bristol Boulevard, Edina, MN 55435; basilepm@gmail.com.

THE CASE

A 22-year-old man presented to our family medicine clinic with hip pain of 2 weeks’ duration. The patient played hockey around the time of onset, but denied any specific injury. The pain, which affected the anterolateral aspect of the patient’s right hip, first started when he stood up after eating a meal. He rated the pain as an 8/10 on average and said that it was worse with movement. The patient had not shown improvement with conservative therapy (rest, ice, and ibuprofen). His medical and surgical history were noted as noncontributory. He was not taking any medications other than over-the-counter pain medication, did not drink alcohol or use tobacco, and he exercised regularly. A review of systems was negative except for right hip pain.

The physical exam revealed pain on active flexion and abduction of the hip. Passive range of motion (ROM) was negative for pain. The right hip was grossly normal with no pain on palpation or crepitus. There was no associated muscle tenderness. The patient was advised to continue to rest and ice the hip, as well as to take ibuprofen for pain relief. He was referred to Physical Therapy.

He returned to our clinic 4 weeks later with no improvement in his symptoms despite several sessions of physical therapy. We ordered radiographic images and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the right hip.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Plain films (FIGURE 1A) showed bilateral avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral heads, which was worse on the right side than the left. An MRI (FIGURE 1B) further supported this diagnosis, revealing changes in the femoral neck consistent with a stress reaction and no significant collapse of the femoral head.

DISCUSSION

AVN of the hip has an incidence ranging from 10,000 to 20,000 new cases annually.^1,2 It has many possible causes, including trauma, systemic lupus erythematosus, glucocorticoid use, and chronic excessive alcohol use. Although the underlying pathophysiology varies, experts hypothesize that most cases are caused by a disruption of the blood supply, which leads to hyperemia and cortical destruction and collapse.^1,2

Certain medications can cause AVN

A more thorough history-taking at this patient’s initial visit would have prompted imaging at that time and ensured that the standard of care was met. Upon further investigation at his follow-up appointment, it was discovered that he had been diagnosed with acute pre-B cell lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) 2 years earlier and had undergone chemotherapy with cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, methotrexate, and glucocorticoids. This discovery, along with the lack of symptom improvement, prompted the ordering of his imaging studies. Long-term glucocorticoid therapy is the second leading cause of AVN, following traumatic events.³ High daily dosages (>40 mg/d) and high cumulative dosages of glucocorticoids are associated with a significantly increased risk for AVN.^4,5

The other chemotherapy agents with which our patient had been treated (cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, and methotrexate) have no reported links to AVN. When mentioned in the literature, however, they are usually coupled with the use of dexamethasone or prednisone.

Continue to: One case report described a patient with...

One case report described a patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia who was treated with all-transretinoic acid, daunomycin, cytarabine, and a short course of dexamethasone, and was diagnosed with AVN 2 years after the cessation of chemotherapy.⁶ This demonstrates that steroid use does not need to be recent to have a contributory effect.

Did leukemic burden play a role?

We also considered whether the patient’s leukemic burden contributed to his osteonecrosis. Leukemia and its therapy regimens have been reported to cause cerebrovascular complications,⁷ so it would be logical to postulate that they might also pose a risk to the vasculature of the femoral head. One case report describes hip pain and AVN as the initial manifestation of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).⁸ But CML is more often associated with a severely increased white blood cell (WBC) count than is ALL, and our patient’s WBC count was in the expected range for a patient in the maintenance phase of chemotherapy, making leukemic burden a less likely culprit.

Know your patient’s history

Our patient had received an initial dose of approximately 120 mg/d prednisone alone during the first 28 days of his induction therapy for ALL. In addition, he received dexamethasone maintenance therapy, which can accumulate to >140 mg/m² over the course of therapy.⁹ This information was ultimately integral to his diagnosis and treatment.

Our patient was referred to Orthopedics. He underwent therapy with alendronate and did not require surgical intervention.

THE TAKEAWAY

This case illustrates the importance of obtaining a thorough medical history, including previous drug exposures, as a means to raise or lower one’s index of suspicion appropriately.

CORRESPONDENCE
Patrick Basile, 7124 Bristol Boulevard, Edina, MN 55435; basilepm@gmail.com.

THE CASE

A 22-year-old man presented to our family medicine clinic with hip pain of 2 weeks’ duration. The patient played hockey around the time of onset, but denied any specific injury. The pain, which affected the anterolateral aspect of the patient’s right hip, first started when he stood up after eating a meal. He rated the pain as an 8/10 on average and said that it was worse with movement. The patient had not shown improvement with conservative therapy (rest, ice, and ibuprofen). His medical and surgical history were noted as noncontributory. He was not taking any medications other than over-the-counter pain medication, did not drink alcohol or use tobacco, and he exercised regularly. A review of systems was negative except for right hip pain.

The physical exam revealed pain on active flexion and abduction of the hip. Passive range of motion (ROM) was negative for pain. The right hip was grossly normal with no pain on palpation or crepitus. There was no associated muscle tenderness. The patient was advised to continue to rest and ice the hip, as well as to take ibuprofen for pain relief. He was referred to Physical Therapy.

He returned to our clinic 4 weeks later with no improvement in his symptoms despite several sessions of physical therapy. We ordered radiographic images and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the right hip.

THE DIAGNOSIS

Plain films (FIGURE 1A) showed bilateral avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral heads, which was worse on the right side than the left. An MRI (FIGURE 1B) further supported this diagnosis, revealing changes in the femoral neck consistent with a stress reaction and no significant collapse of the femoral head.

DISCUSSION

AVN of the hip has an incidence ranging from 10,000 to 20,000 new cases annually.^1,2 It has many possible causes, including trauma, systemic lupus erythematosus, glucocorticoid use, and chronic excessive alcohol use. Although the underlying pathophysiology varies, experts hypothesize that most cases are caused by a disruption of the blood supply, which leads to hyperemia and cortical destruction and collapse.^1,2

Certain medications can cause AVN

A more thorough history-taking at this patient’s initial visit would have prompted imaging at that time and ensured that the standard of care was met. Upon further investigation at his follow-up appointment, it was discovered that he had been diagnosed with acute pre-B cell lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) 2 years earlier and had undergone chemotherapy with cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, methotrexate, and glucocorticoids. This discovery, along with the lack of symptom improvement, prompted the ordering of his imaging studies. Long-term glucocorticoid therapy is the second leading cause of AVN, following traumatic events.³ High daily dosages (>40 mg/d) and high cumulative dosages of glucocorticoids are associated with a significantly increased risk for AVN.^4,5

The other chemotherapy agents with which our patient had been treated (cytarabine, vincristine, L-asparaginase, daunorubicin, and methotrexate) have no reported links to AVN. When mentioned in the literature, however, they are usually coupled with the use of dexamethasone or prednisone.

Continue to: One case report described a patient with...

One case report described a patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia who was treated with all-transretinoic acid, daunomycin, cytarabine, and a short course of dexamethasone, and was diagnosed with AVN 2 years after the cessation of chemotherapy.⁶ This demonstrates that steroid use does not need to be recent to have a contributory effect.

Did leukemic burden play a role?

We also considered whether the patient’s leukemic burden contributed to his osteonecrosis. Leukemia and its therapy regimens have been reported to cause cerebrovascular complications,⁷ so it would be logical to postulate that they might also pose a risk to the vasculature of the femoral head. One case report describes hip pain and AVN as the initial manifestation of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).⁸ But CML is more often associated with a severely increased white blood cell (WBC) count than is ALL, and our patient’s WBC count was in the expected range for a patient in the maintenance phase of chemotherapy, making leukemic burden a less likely culprit.

Know your patient’s history

Our patient had received an initial dose of approximately 120 mg/d prednisone alone during the first 28 days of his induction therapy for ALL. In addition, he received dexamethasone maintenance therapy, which can accumulate to >140 mg/m² over the course of therapy.⁹ This information was ultimately integral to his diagnosis and treatment.

Our patient was referred to Orthopedics. He underwent therapy with alendronate and did not require surgical intervention.

THE TAKEAWAY

This case illustrates the importance of obtaining a thorough medical history, including previous drug exposures, as a means to raise or lower one’s index of suspicion appropriately.

CORRESPONDENCE
Patrick Basile, 7124 Bristol Boulevard, Edina, MN 55435; basilepm@gmail.com.

ABSTRACT

Vascular injury to the popliteal artery during knee surgery is uncommon, but it has significant consequences not only for the patient but also to the surgeon since it poses the threat of malpractice litigation. The vascular anatomy of the lower extremity is variable especially when it involves both the popliteal artery and its branches. An aberrant vascular course may increase the risk of iatrogenic vascular injury during surgery. Careful preoperative planning with advanced imaging can decrease the risk of a devastating vascular injury.

Continue to: Most non-traumatic injuries...

Most non-traumatic injuries to the popliteal artery are iatrogenic and may occur during total knee replacement,^1-8 high tibial osteotomy,^2,3,5-7 anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6 posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6,9,10 and arthroscopic meniscectomy.^2,6,9 Despite the rare occurrence of complications involving the popliteal artery during such procedures, results of vessel injuries can be devastating and may also lead to malpractice litigation. Anatomic variations of the distal popliteal artery and its significance in surgery have been well documented in the literature.^2-6,8,11 However, due to lack of awareness, this issue is often unintentionally disregarded. We present the case of an aberrant anterior tibial artery that was found during the review of a magnetic resonance imaging study. The patient was provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 61-year-old woman presented with a history of right knee pain from osteoarthritis that had rapidly progressed over 1 week secondary to a fall. The patient had no history of previous knee surgery. After careful evaluation of her right knee pain, treatment options were discussed. The patient agreed to proceed with total knee arthroplasty (TKA). During preoperative planning, the patient’s previous magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was reviewed. The MRI study revealed an aberrant anterior tibial artery. The popliteal artery bifurcated at the level of the knee joint (Figures 1A-1C). After the bifurcation, the anterior tibial artery coursed anteriorly to the tibioperoneal trunk. The anterior tibial artery is seen just anterior to the popliteus muscle and just posterior to the tibial plateau cortex (Figure 2). Intraoperatively, an oscillating saw was utilized for the tibial cut. Care was taken not to penetrate the posterior cortex. An osteotome was used to elevate the tibial cut and hinge it open, and with a small mallet, finish the tibial cut. The patient had a successful TKA without complication.

DISCUSSION

Emerging from the adductor hiatus (Hunter’s canal), the normal course of the popliteal artery is a position slightly lateral in the intercondylar fossa. It courses obliquely and posteriorly to the popliteus then bifurcates into the anterior tibial artery and the tibioperoneal trunk at the inferior border of the popliteus. The tibioperoneal trunk bifurcates into both the posterior tibial artery and the peroneal artery at the proximal tibia well below the knee joint.

There are many reported cases of popliteal artery variations.^{2,3,6,7,9,11-13} Variations in the popliteal artery are consequences of persistent embryonic vessels from primitive segments of the artery or abnormal fusions among them.¹⁴ According to Kim and colleagues,¹¹ variations can be classified by the modified Lippert’s system. This system has 3 categories with 3 subtypes (Table). Variations are not uncommon and occur in 7.4% to 12% of the population.^2,4,5,7,13

Table. Modified Lippert’s System¹¹

Of these variations, type IIA, a high bifurcation of the anterior tibial artery, arising at or above the knee joint from the popliteal artery is the most significant. Forty-two percent of these vessels course anterior to the popliteus and make direct contact with the cortex of the posterior tibia.⁴ It is also the most frequent variant type reported in 1.2% to 6% of the population.^3,7,11-13

Continue to: Injury to the popliteal artery...

Injury to the popliteal artery during an orthopedic procedure is believed to be under reported⁶ but is considered a rare complication. The incidence of popliteal artery injury in TKA is thought to be 0.03% to 0.2%.^1,2,5,7,8 Vessel injury in both high tibial osteotomy and arthroscopic surgeries (lateral meniscal repair) have also been reported.^5,6,8,10 Despite the rare occurrence of this complication, it may have devastating outcomes. The injury can be repaired with vascular grafting depending on its severity; however, it could also lead to compartment syndrome, loss of function, chronic ulcers, and necrosis of the affected limb resulting in below the knee amputation. The current consensus is that the popliteal artery moves posteriorly away from the tibia when the knee is in 90^° of flexion,⁵ which is the standard position for many orthopedic knee surgeries. This position limits the risk of injuring the vessel. However, Metzdorf and colleagues,⁴ Smith and colleagues,⁶ and Zaidi and colleagues⁸ suggested that the vessel not be displaced posteriorly with flexion. These studies reported that the behavior of the popliteal artery varied among individuals since in some cases it had moved closer to the tibia in flexion when compared with extension.

Regardless of the behavior of the artery, it is protected by the popliteus muscle in most orthopedic knee surgeries since the majority course posterior to the muscle. However, in cases of Lippert’s type IIA variation, it not only loses protection as it courses beneath the popliteus but also is extremely vulnerable from the close relationship to the posterior tibial cortex. Klecker and colleagues² described the aberrant artery locations related to common orthopedic procedures, which demonstrated its close proximity to various surgical plane levels. The position of the aberrant artery is approximately 1 to 1.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line, just posterior to the posterior capsule, and close to the posterior cruciate ligament insertion site where the transverse tibial cut is made during TKA. This location also corresponds to the position for an inlay block and the tibial tunnel for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. A transverse cut for a high tibial osteotomy is approximately 1.5 to 2.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line; the aberrant artery appeared directly posterior to the tibial cortex. These relationships were equivalent findings in this case. Such relationships of the aberrant anterior tibial artery to both the posterior tibial cortex and the posterior capsule increase the risk of vessel (anterior tibial artery) injury intraoperatively. The risk further increases in a revision of total knee replacement. This is secondary to limited flexibility of the vessel from scar formation which requires a more distal incision.^1,4

CONCLUSION

Vascular injuries in knee surgeries are rare and often overlooked. Despite their low occurrence rate, outcomes of these injuries have grave consequences not only regarding medical but also legal matters. Variations in the popliteal artery are not uncommon and could potentially contribute to risks of vessel injury. Of these variations, the high originating anterior tibial artery poses a special risk. However, due to the low occurrence rate of these injuries, screening the general population may not be cost-effective. Since many patients already have obtained necessary imaging (preferably MRI), a careful review of these images along with preoperative planning and special care during surgery is recommended to identify popliteal artery variants and avoid iatrogenic vascular injury.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

Vascular injury to the popliteal artery during knee surgery is uncommon, but it has significant consequences not only for the patient but also to the surgeon since it poses the threat of malpractice litigation. The vascular anatomy of the lower extremity is variable especially when it involves both the popliteal artery and its branches. An aberrant vascular course may increase the risk of iatrogenic vascular injury during surgery. Careful preoperative planning with advanced imaging can decrease the risk of a devastating vascular injury.

Continue to: Most non-traumatic injuries...

Most non-traumatic injuries to the popliteal artery are iatrogenic and may occur during total knee replacement,^1-8 high tibial osteotomy,^2,3,5-7 anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6 posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6,9,10 and arthroscopic meniscectomy.^2,6,9 Despite the rare occurrence of complications involving the popliteal artery during such procedures, results of vessel injuries can be devastating and may also lead to malpractice litigation. Anatomic variations of the distal popliteal artery and its significance in surgery have been well documented in the literature.^2-6,8,11 However, due to lack of awareness, this issue is often unintentionally disregarded. We present the case of an aberrant anterior tibial artery that was found during the review of a magnetic resonance imaging study. The patient was provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 61-year-old woman presented with a history of right knee pain from osteoarthritis that had rapidly progressed over 1 week secondary to a fall. The patient had no history of previous knee surgery. After careful evaluation of her right knee pain, treatment options were discussed. The patient agreed to proceed with total knee arthroplasty (TKA). During preoperative planning, the patient’s previous magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was reviewed. The MRI study revealed an aberrant anterior tibial artery. The popliteal artery bifurcated at the level of the knee joint (Figures 1A-1C). After the bifurcation, the anterior tibial artery coursed anteriorly to the tibioperoneal trunk. The anterior tibial artery is seen just anterior to the popliteus muscle and just posterior to the tibial plateau cortex (Figure 2). Intraoperatively, an oscillating saw was utilized for the tibial cut. Care was taken not to penetrate the posterior cortex. An osteotome was used to elevate the tibial cut and hinge it open, and with a small mallet, finish the tibial cut. The patient had a successful TKA without complication.

DISCUSSION

Emerging from the adductor hiatus (Hunter’s canal), the normal course of the popliteal artery is a position slightly lateral in the intercondylar fossa. It courses obliquely and posteriorly to the popliteus then bifurcates into the anterior tibial artery and the tibioperoneal trunk at the inferior border of the popliteus. The tibioperoneal trunk bifurcates into both the posterior tibial artery and the peroneal artery at the proximal tibia well below the knee joint.

There are many reported cases of popliteal artery variations.^{2,3,6,7,9,11-13} Variations in the popliteal artery are consequences of persistent embryonic vessels from primitive segments of the artery or abnormal fusions among them.¹⁴ According to Kim and colleagues,¹¹ variations can be classified by the modified Lippert’s system. This system has 3 categories with 3 subtypes (Table). Variations are not uncommon and occur in 7.4% to 12% of the population.^2,4,5,7,13

Table. Modified Lippert’s System¹¹

Of these variations, type IIA, a high bifurcation of the anterior tibial artery, arising at or above the knee joint from the popliteal artery is the most significant. Forty-two percent of these vessels course anterior to the popliteus and make direct contact with the cortex of the posterior tibia.⁴ It is also the most frequent variant type reported in 1.2% to 6% of the population.^3,7,11-13

Continue to: Injury to the popliteal artery...

Injury to the popliteal artery during an orthopedic procedure is believed to be under reported⁶ but is considered a rare complication. The incidence of popliteal artery injury in TKA is thought to be 0.03% to 0.2%.^1,2,5,7,8 Vessel injury in both high tibial osteotomy and arthroscopic surgeries (lateral meniscal repair) have also been reported.^5,6,8,10 Despite the rare occurrence of this complication, it may have devastating outcomes. The injury can be repaired with vascular grafting depending on its severity; however, it could also lead to compartment syndrome, loss of function, chronic ulcers, and necrosis of the affected limb resulting in below the knee amputation. The current consensus is that the popliteal artery moves posteriorly away from the tibia when the knee is in 90^° of flexion,⁵ which is the standard position for many orthopedic knee surgeries. This position limits the risk of injuring the vessel. However, Metzdorf and colleagues,⁴ Smith and colleagues,⁶ and Zaidi and colleagues⁸ suggested that the vessel not be displaced posteriorly with flexion. These studies reported that the behavior of the popliteal artery varied among individuals since in some cases it had moved closer to the tibia in flexion when compared with extension.

Regardless of the behavior of the artery, it is protected by the popliteus muscle in most orthopedic knee surgeries since the majority course posterior to the muscle. However, in cases of Lippert’s type IIA variation, it not only loses protection as it courses beneath the popliteus but also is extremely vulnerable from the close relationship to the posterior tibial cortex. Klecker and colleagues² described the aberrant artery locations related to common orthopedic procedures, which demonstrated its close proximity to various surgical plane levels. The position of the aberrant artery is approximately 1 to 1.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line, just posterior to the posterior capsule, and close to the posterior cruciate ligament insertion site where the transverse tibial cut is made during TKA. This location also corresponds to the position for an inlay block and the tibial tunnel for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. A transverse cut for a high tibial osteotomy is approximately 1.5 to 2.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line; the aberrant artery appeared directly posterior to the tibial cortex. These relationships were equivalent findings in this case. Such relationships of the aberrant anterior tibial artery to both the posterior tibial cortex and the posterior capsule increase the risk of vessel (anterior tibial artery) injury intraoperatively. The risk further increases in a revision of total knee replacement. This is secondary to limited flexibility of the vessel from scar formation which requires a more distal incision.^1,4

CONCLUSION

Vascular injuries in knee surgeries are rare and often overlooked. Despite their low occurrence rate, outcomes of these injuries have grave consequences not only regarding medical but also legal matters. Variations in the popliteal artery are not uncommon and could potentially contribute to risks of vessel injury. Of these variations, the high originating anterior tibial artery poses a special risk. However, due to the low occurrence rate of these injuries, screening the general population may not be cost-effective. Since many patients already have obtained necessary imaging (preferably MRI), a careful review of these images along with preoperative planning and special care during surgery is recommended to identify popliteal artery variants and avoid iatrogenic vascular injury.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

Vascular injury to the popliteal artery during knee surgery is uncommon, but it has significant consequences not only for the patient but also to the surgeon since it poses the threat of malpractice litigation. The vascular anatomy of the lower extremity is variable especially when it involves both the popliteal artery and its branches. An aberrant vascular course may increase the risk of iatrogenic vascular injury during surgery. Careful preoperative planning with advanced imaging can decrease the risk of a devastating vascular injury.

Continue to: Most non-traumatic injuries...

Most non-traumatic injuries to the popliteal artery are iatrogenic and may occur during total knee replacement,^1-8 high tibial osteotomy,^2,3,5-7 anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6 posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,^2,6,9,10 and arthroscopic meniscectomy.^2,6,9 Despite the rare occurrence of complications involving the popliteal artery during such procedures, results of vessel injuries can be devastating and may also lead to malpractice litigation. Anatomic variations of the distal popliteal artery and its significance in surgery have been well documented in the literature.^2-6,8,11 However, due to lack of awareness, this issue is often unintentionally disregarded. We present the case of an aberrant anterior tibial artery that was found during the review of a magnetic resonance imaging study. The patient was provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE

A 61-year-old woman presented with a history of right knee pain from osteoarthritis that had rapidly progressed over 1 week secondary to a fall. The patient had no history of previous knee surgery. After careful evaluation of her right knee pain, treatment options were discussed. The patient agreed to proceed with total knee arthroplasty (TKA). During preoperative planning, the patient’s previous magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was reviewed. The MRI study revealed an aberrant anterior tibial artery. The popliteal artery bifurcated at the level of the knee joint (Figures 1A-1C). After the bifurcation, the anterior tibial artery coursed anteriorly to the tibioperoneal trunk. The anterior tibial artery is seen just anterior to the popliteus muscle and just posterior to the tibial plateau cortex (Figure 2). Intraoperatively, an oscillating saw was utilized for the tibial cut. Care was taken not to penetrate the posterior cortex. An osteotome was used to elevate the tibial cut and hinge it open, and with a small mallet, finish the tibial cut. The patient had a successful TKA without complication.

DISCUSSION

Emerging from the adductor hiatus (Hunter’s canal), the normal course of the popliteal artery is a position slightly lateral in the intercondylar fossa. It courses obliquely and posteriorly to the popliteus then bifurcates into the anterior tibial artery and the tibioperoneal trunk at the inferior border of the popliteus. The tibioperoneal trunk bifurcates into both the posterior tibial artery and the peroneal artery at the proximal tibia well below the knee joint.

There are many reported cases of popliteal artery variations.^{2,3,6,7,9,11-13} Variations in the popliteal artery are consequences of persistent embryonic vessels from primitive segments of the artery or abnormal fusions among them.¹⁴ According to Kim and colleagues,¹¹ variations can be classified by the modified Lippert’s system. This system has 3 categories with 3 subtypes (Table). Variations are not uncommon and occur in 7.4% to 12% of the population.^2,4,5,7,13

Table. Modified Lippert’s System¹¹

Of these variations, type IIA, a high bifurcation of the anterior tibial artery, arising at or above the knee joint from the popliteal artery is the most significant. Forty-two percent of these vessels course anterior to the popliteus and make direct contact with the cortex of the posterior tibia.⁴ It is also the most frequent variant type reported in 1.2% to 6% of the population.^3,7,11-13

Continue to: Injury to the popliteal artery...

Injury to the popliteal artery during an orthopedic procedure is believed to be under reported⁶ but is considered a rare complication. The incidence of popliteal artery injury in TKA is thought to be 0.03% to 0.2%.^1,2,5,7,8 Vessel injury in both high tibial osteotomy and arthroscopic surgeries (lateral meniscal repair) have also been reported.^5,6,8,10 Despite the rare occurrence of this complication, it may have devastating outcomes. The injury can be repaired with vascular grafting depending on its severity; however, it could also lead to compartment syndrome, loss of function, chronic ulcers, and necrosis of the affected limb resulting in below the knee amputation. The current consensus is that the popliteal artery moves posteriorly away from the tibia when the knee is in 90^° of flexion,⁵ which is the standard position for many orthopedic knee surgeries. This position limits the risk of injuring the vessel. However, Metzdorf and colleagues,⁴ Smith and colleagues,⁶ and Zaidi and colleagues⁸ suggested that the vessel not be displaced posteriorly with flexion. These studies reported that the behavior of the popliteal artery varied among individuals since in some cases it had moved closer to the tibia in flexion when compared with extension.

Regardless of the behavior of the artery, it is protected by the popliteus muscle in most orthopedic knee surgeries since the majority course posterior to the muscle. However, in cases of Lippert’s type IIA variation, it not only loses protection as it courses beneath the popliteus but also is extremely vulnerable from the close relationship to the posterior tibial cortex. Klecker and colleagues² described the aberrant artery locations related to common orthopedic procedures, which demonstrated its close proximity to various surgical plane levels. The position of the aberrant artery is approximately 1 to 1.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line, just posterior to the posterior capsule, and close to the posterior cruciate ligament insertion site where the transverse tibial cut is made during TKA. This location also corresponds to the position for an inlay block and the tibial tunnel for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. A transverse cut for a high tibial osteotomy is approximately 1.5 to 2.5 cm distal to the posterior tibial joint line; the aberrant artery appeared directly posterior to the tibial cortex. These relationships were equivalent findings in this case. Such relationships of the aberrant anterior tibial artery to both the posterior tibial cortex and the posterior capsule increase the risk of vessel (anterior tibial artery) injury intraoperatively. The risk further increases in a revision of total knee replacement. This is secondary to limited flexibility of the vessel from scar formation which requires a more distal incision.^1,4

CONCLUSION

Vascular injuries in knee surgeries are rare and often overlooked. Despite their low occurrence rate, outcomes of these injuries have grave consequences not only regarding medical but also legal matters. Variations in the popliteal artery are not uncommon and could potentially contribute to risks of vessel injury. Of these variations, the high originating anterior tibial artery poses a special risk. However, due to the low occurrence rate of these injuries, screening the general population may not be cost-effective. Since many patients already have obtained necessary imaging (preferably MRI), a careful review of these images along with preoperative planning and special care during surgery is recommended to identify popliteal artery variants and avoid iatrogenic vascular injury.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T lymphocytes associated with infection by human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1),^1-3 which is increasing in incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁴ Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 infection is asymptomatic in most patients and has been associated with ATLL as well as tropical spastic paraparesis.⁵ We present a case of rapid-onset ATLL in an 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States.

Case Report

An 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States presented with papules and nodules on the neck, trunk, and arms of 4 weeks’ duration. Minimal pruritus was associated with the lesions, which were otherwise asymptomatic. The patient reported that he was generally healthy, and a review of systems was negative.

Physical examination revealed numerous erythematous and violaceous papules and nodules on the right side of the neck (Figure 1A), chest, back, abdomen, groin, left arm (Figure 1B), and medial thighs. Bilateral axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy also was noted.

A biopsy from the abdomen revealed a dense, atypical, pandermal lymphoid infiltrate comprised of medium-sized lymphocytes with oval nuclei, fine chromatin, and pale cytoplasm (Figure 2). Mitotic figures and apoptotic cells also were observed. Immunostaining was strongly and diffusely positive for CD4 (Figure 3A), B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)(Figure 3B), CD3, and programmed death 1, and was negative for CD8, CD10, CD20, CD30, and myeloperoxidase.

A bone marrow biopsy revealed an atypical T-cell population on flow cytometry. Western blot analysis for HTLV-1 antibodies was positive. Complete blood cell count and complete metabolic panel were within reference range.

Clinical and histopathologic findings fit the diagnosis of ATLL. The patient was referred to hematology/oncology, but the rapid progression of lesions continued, and the patient died within 4 months of initial presentation.

Comment

Etiology
First described in 1977, ATLL is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T cells.⁶ The etiology is associated with infection by the retrovirus HTLV-1, which is endemic in Southern Japan, the Caribbean, Central and West Africa, and Central and South America, with increasing incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁷ The incidence of ATLL among all registered lymphoma cases from 2003 to 2008 in Japan was 8.3% compared to 0.2% in the United States.⁷

Transmission of HTLV-1
Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is a retrovirus most commonly found in CD4⁺T cells and can be transmitted through breast milk, sexual intercourse, and blood exposure (eg, blood transfusion), with breastfeeding and blood exposure being the most common.^8-10 Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 has been described as the causative agent for 3 entities: (1) ATLL, (2) a nervous system degenerative disorder known as HTLV-1–associated myelopathy or tropical spastic paraparesis, and (3) HTLV-1 uveitis.^5,11 It is thought that 10 to 20 million individuals worldwide are infected with HTLV-1.¹²

The evolution from infection with HTLV-1 to ATLL is thought to involve multiple steps.^13,14 Those who contract the virus later in life rarely, if ever, develop ATLL, suggesting that this progression requires considerable time to evolve to carcinogenesis. More than 90% of those infected with HTLV-1 remain asymptomatic, while only 2% to 3% of women and 6% to 7% of men develop ATLL with a median incubation period greater than 15 to 20 years.⁷

Subtypes
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma has been divided into 4 clinical subtypes based on clinical presentation and prognosis.¹⁵ The acute type is more aggressive and has a poorer prognosis, while the chronic and smoldering types have a more indolent course. The smoldering variant largely has only cutaneous involvement with less than 1% of the peripheral leukocytes being atypical lymphocytes.¹⁶ A cutaneous subtype in which few to no leukemic cells are present also has been described and may overlap with the smoldering variant.The cutaneous variant has been further classified into 2 subtypes, tumoral and erythematopapular, with the tumoral subtype carrying a worse prognosis.^17,18 Clinically, 39% to 57% of ATLL cases have skin involvement, with nearly one-third reporting skin manifestations as the first symptom.^19,20 The cutaneous manifestations vary greatly and may include papules, plaques, nodules, tumors, erythematous patches, or erythroderma.^4,21 In addition to skin manifestations, most patients with acute ATLL demonstrate leukemia, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and hypercalcemia.²²

Histopathology
Histologically, both the smoldering and chronic forms of tumoral or erythematopapular ATLL demonstrate a cutaneous, dermal, or subcutaneous infiltrate of small- to medium-sized CD4⁺ T cells with histiocytes and admixed granulomas.⁴ Epidermotropism and Pautrier microabscesses often are limited or absent but can be seen. The neoplastic T cells involved in ATLL commonly express CD3, CD4, CD25, CD30, and programmed death 1, and T-cell clonality frequently is present.^11,22 Even with staining, diagnosis of ATLL is difficult, as it requires positive testing for HTLV-1 antibody as well as monoclonal integration of HTLV-1 proviral DNA into tumor cells.¹¹ Clinical information is vital in coming to this diagnosis, as there is such great histopathologic overlap with other cutaneous T-cell lymphomas.²³

Differential Diagnosis
The differential diagnosis includes other small- or medium-sized T-cell lymphomas. The chronic and smoldering types can be difficult to distinguish from mycosis fungoides. Primary cutaneous CD4⁺ small- or medium-sized pleomorphic T-cell lymphoma also must be considered, though it often is confined to the skin and can be differentiated from ATLL, as systemic involvement is commonly present in the latter.

Treatment
Treatment decisions should be made based on the subclassification and prognostic factors at the time of diagnosis. High doses of interferon alfa and zidovudine may show some benefit, but many cases require multiagent chemotherapy.²² The only possible curative treatment is allogeneic stem cell transplant. Mogamulizumab, an antichemokine receptor 4 monoclonal antibody, has demonstrated some ATLL antitumor activity.²⁴

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T lymphocytes associated with infection by human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1),^1-3 which is increasing in incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁴ Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 infection is asymptomatic in most patients and has been associated with ATLL as well as tropical spastic paraparesis.⁵ We present a case of rapid-onset ATLL in an 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States.

Case Report

An 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States presented with papules and nodules on the neck, trunk, and arms of 4 weeks’ duration. Minimal pruritus was associated with the lesions, which were otherwise asymptomatic. The patient reported that he was generally healthy, and a review of systems was negative.

Physical examination revealed numerous erythematous and violaceous papules and nodules on the right side of the neck (Figure 1A), chest, back, abdomen, groin, left arm (Figure 1B), and medial thighs. Bilateral axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy also was noted.

A biopsy from the abdomen revealed a dense, atypical, pandermal lymphoid infiltrate comprised of medium-sized lymphocytes with oval nuclei, fine chromatin, and pale cytoplasm (Figure 2). Mitotic figures and apoptotic cells also were observed. Immunostaining was strongly and diffusely positive for CD4 (Figure 3A), B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)(Figure 3B), CD3, and programmed death 1, and was negative for CD8, CD10, CD20, CD30, and myeloperoxidase.

A bone marrow biopsy revealed an atypical T-cell population on flow cytometry. Western blot analysis for HTLV-1 antibodies was positive. Complete blood cell count and complete metabolic panel were within reference range.

Clinical and histopathologic findings fit the diagnosis of ATLL. The patient was referred to hematology/oncology, but the rapid progression of lesions continued, and the patient died within 4 months of initial presentation.

Comment

Etiology
First described in 1977, ATLL is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T cells.⁶ The etiology is associated with infection by the retrovirus HTLV-1, which is endemic in Southern Japan, the Caribbean, Central and West Africa, and Central and South America, with increasing incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁷ The incidence of ATLL among all registered lymphoma cases from 2003 to 2008 in Japan was 8.3% compared to 0.2% in the United States.⁷

Transmission of HTLV-1
Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is a retrovirus most commonly found in CD4⁺T cells and can be transmitted through breast milk, sexual intercourse, and blood exposure (eg, blood transfusion), with breastfeeding and blood exposure being the most common.^8-10 Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 has been described as the causative agent for 3 entities: (1) ATLL, (2) a nervous system degenerative disorder known as HTLV-1–associated myelopathy or tropical spastic paraparesis, and (3) HTLV-1 uveitis.^5,11 It is thought that 10 to 20 million individuals worldwide are infected with HTLV-1.¹²

The evolution from infection with HTLV-1 to ATLL is thought to involve multiple steps.^13,14 Those who contract the virus later in life rarely, if ever, develop ATLL, suggesting that this progression requires considerable time to evolve to carcinogenesis. More than 90% of those infected with HTLV-1 remain asymptomatic, while only 2% to 3% of women and 6% to 7% of men develop ATLL with a median incubation period greater than 15 to 20 years.⁷

Subtypes
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma has been divided into 4 clinical subtypes based on clinical presentation and prognosis.¹⁵ The acute type is more aggressive and has a poorer prognosis, while the chronic and smoldering types have a more indolent course. The smoldering variant largely has only cutaneous involvement with less than 1% of the peripheral leukocytes being atypical lymphocytes.¹⁶ A cutaneous subtype in which few to no leukemic cells are present also has been described and may overlap with the smoldering variant.The cutaneous variant has been further classified into 2 subtypes, tumoral and erythematopapular, with the tumoral subtype carrying a worse prognosis.^17,18 Clinically, 39% to 57% of ATLL cases have skin involvement, with nearly one-third reporting skin manifestations as the first symptom.^19,20 The cutaneous manifestations vary greatly and may include papules, plaques, nodules, tumors, erythematous patches, or erythroderma.^4,21 In addition to skin manifestations, most patients with acute ATLL demonstrate leukemia, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and hypercalcemia.²²

Histopathology
Histologically, both the smoldering and chronic forms of tumoral or erythematopapular ATLL demonstrate a cutaneous, dermal, or subcutaneous infiltrate of small- to medium-sized CD4⁺ T cells with histiocytes and admixed granulomas.⁴ Epidermotropism and Pautrier microabscesses often are limited or absent but can be seen. The neoplastic T cells involved in ATLL commonly express CD3, CD4, CD25, CD30, and programmed death 1, and T-cell clonality frequently is present.^11,22 Even with staining, diagnosis of ATLL is difficult, as it requires positive testing for HTLV-1 antibody as well as monoclonal integration of HTLV-1 proviral DNA into tumor cells.¹¹ Clinical information is vital in coming to this diagnosis, as there is such great histopathologic overlap with other cutaneous T-cell lymphomas.²³

Differential Diagnosis
The differential diagnosis includes other small- or medium-sized T-cell lymphomas. The chronic and smoldering types can be difficult to distinguish from mycosis fungoides. Primary cutaneous CD4⁺ small- or medium-sized pleomorphic T-cell lymphoma also must be considered, though it often is confined to the skin and can be differentiated from ATLL, as systemic involvement is commonly present in the latter.

Treatment
Treatment decisions should be made based on the subclassification and prognostic factors at the time of diagnosis. High doses of interferon alfa and zidovudine may show some benefit, but many cases require multiagent chemotherapy.²² The only possible curative treatment is allogeneic stem cell transplant. Mogamulizumab, an antichemokine receptor 4 monoclonal antibody, has demonstrated some ATLL antitumor activity.²⁴

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL) is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T lymphocytes associated with infection by human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1),^1-3 which is increasing in incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁴ Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 infection is asymptomatic in most patients and has been associated with ATLL as well as tropical spastic paraparesis.⁵ We present a case of rapid-onset ATLL in an 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States.

Case Report

An 82-year-old Japanese man who had immigrated to the United States presented with papules and nodules on the neck, trunk, and arms of 4 weeks’ duration. Minimal pruritus was associated with the lesions, which were otherwise asymptomatic. The patient reported that he was generally healthy, and a review of systems was negative.

Physical examination revealed numerous erythematous and violaceous papules and nodules on the right side of the neck (Figure 1A), chest, back, abdomen, groin, left arm (Figure 1B), and medial thighs. Bilateral axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy also was noted.

A biopsy from the abdomen revealed a dense, atypical, pandermal lymphoid infiltrate comprised of medium-sized lymphocytes with oval nuclei, fine chromatin, and pale cytoplasm (Figure 2). Mitotic figures and apoptotic cells also were observed. Immunostaining was strongly and diffusely positive for CD4 (Figure 3A), B-cell lymphoma 2 (Bcl-2)(Figure 3B), CD3, and programmed death 1, and was negative for CD8, CD10, CD20, CD30, and myeloperoxidase.

A bone marrow biopsy revealed an atypical T-cell population on flow cytometry. Western blot analysis for HTLV-1 antibodies was positive. Complete blood cell count and complete metabolic panel were within reference range.

Clinical and histopathologic findings fit the diagnosis of ATLL. The patient was referred to hematology/oncology, but the rapid progression of lesions continued, and the patient died within 4 months of initial presentation.

Comment

Etiology
First described in 1977, ATLL is an uncommon neoplasm of mature T cells.⁶ The etiology is associated with infection by the retrovirus HTLV-1, which is endemic in Southern Japan, the Caribbean, Central and West Africa, and Central and South America, with increasing incidence in areas of the United States with large immigrant populations.⁷ The incidence of ATLL among all registered lymphoma cases from 2003 to 2008 in Japan was 8.3% compared to 0.2% in the United States.⁷

Transmission of HTLV-1
Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is a retrovirus most commonly found in CD4⁺T cells and can be transmitted through breast milk, sexual intercourse, and blood exposure (eg, blood transfusion), with breastfeeding and blood exposure being the most common.^8-10 Human T-lymphotrophic virus 1 has been described as the causative agent for 3 entities: (1) ATLL, (2) a nervous system degenerative disorder known as HTLV-1–associated myelopathy or tropical spastic paraparesis, and (3) HTLV-1 uveitis.^5,11 It is thought that 10 to 20 million individuals worldwide are infected with HTLV-1.¹²

The evolution from infection with HTLV-1 to ATLL is thought to involve multiple steps.^13,14 Those who contract the virus later in life rarely, if ever, develop ATLL, suggesting that this progression requires considerable time to evolve to carcinogenesis. More than 90% of those infected with HTLV-1 remain asymptomatic, while only 2% to 3% of women and 6% to 7% of men develop ATLL with a median incubation period greater than 15 to 20 years.⁷

Subtypes
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma has been divided into 4 clinical subtypes based on clinical presentation and prognosis.¹⁵ The acute type is more aggressive and has a poorer prognosis, while the chronic and smoldering types have a more indolent course. The smoldering variant largely has only cutaneous involvement with less than 1% of the peripheral leukocytes being atypical lymphocytes.¹⁶ A cutaneous subtype in which few to no leukemic cells are present also has been described and may overlap with the smoldering variant.The cutaneous variant has been further classified into 2 subtypes, tumoral and erythematopapular, with the tumoral subtype carrying a worse prognosis.^17,18 Clinically, 39% to 57% of ATLL cases have skin involvement, with nearly one-third reporting skin manifestations as the first symptom.^19,20 The cutaneous manifestations vary greatly and may include papules, plaques, nodules, tumors, erythematous patches, or erythroderma.^4,21 In addition to skin manifestations, most patients with acute ATLL demonstrate leukemia, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, and hypercalcemia.²²

Histopathology
Histologically, both the smoldering and chronic forms of tumoral or erythematopapular ATLL demonstrate a cutaneous, dermal, or subcutaneous infiltrate of small- to medium-sized CD4⁺ T cells with histiocytes and admixed granulomas.⁴ Epidermotropism and Pautrier microabscesses often are limited or absent but can be seen. The neoplastic T cells involved in ATLL commonly express CD3, CD4, CD25, CD30, and programmed death 1, and T-cell clonality frequently is present.^11,22 Even with staining, diagnosis of ATLL is difficult, as it requires positive testing for HTLV-1 antibody as well as monoclonal integration of HTLV-1 proviral DNA into tumor cells.¹¹ Clinical information is vital in coming to this diagnosis, as there is such great histopathologic overlap with other cutaneous T-cell lymphomas.²³

Differential Diagnosis
The differential diagnosis includes other small- or medium-sized T-cell lymphomas. The chronic and smoldering types can be difficult to distinguish from mycosis fungoides. Primary cutaneous CD4⁺ small- or medium-sized pleomorphic T-cell lymphoma also must be considered, though it often is confined to the skin and can be differentiated from ATLL, as systemic involvement is commonly present in the latter.

Treatment
Treatment decisions should be made based on the subclassification and prognostic factors at the time of diagnosis. High doses of interferon alfa and zidovudine may show some benefit, but many cases require multiagent chemotherapy.²² The only possible curative treatment is allogeneic stem cell transplant. Mogamulizumab, an antichemokine receptor 4 monoclonal antibody, has demonstrated some ATLL antitumor activity.²⁴

ABSTRACT

A 23-year-old male active duty soldier presented with a biceps femoris tendon snapping over the fibular head with flexion of the knee beyond 90^°. Surgical release of anomalous anterolateral tibial and lateral fibular insertions provided relief of snapping with no other repair or reconstruction required. The soldier quickly returned to full running and active duty.

Snapping biceps femoris tendon is a rare but potential cause of pain and dysfunction in the lateral knee. The possible anatomical variations and the cause of snapping must be considered when determining the operative approaches to this condition.

Continue to: Snapping in the knee...

Snapping in the knee is not as common as in other joints, such as the hip or ankle. The snapping sensation can occur from several pathologies, including the following: lateral meniscal tears, iliotibial band syndrome, proximal tibiofibular instability, snapping popliteus, peroneal nerve compression/neuritis, lateral discoid meniscus, rheumatoid nodules, plicae, congenital snapping knee, exostoses, or previous trauma.^1,2 A detailed history must be provided, and physical examination and appropriate imaging must be performed to narrow down the differential diagnosis and prescribe the appropriate course of treatment for snapping.

Snapping biceps femoris syndrome is a rare cause of knee snapping. This condition has been described in various case reports.^2-13 The reasons for a snapping biceps femoris can vary, and the treating provider must be ready to accommodate and treat these causes. The symptoms typically include an audible, and usually visual, lateral snapping distal to the knee joint and over the fibular head. Imaging may reveal bony abnormalities such as fibular exostoses. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can aid in determining any anomalous or abnormal insertions of the biceps femoris tendon. The snapping can be debilitating, particularly in athletes or patients with high-demand occupations, and surgical intervention is often warranted. 

We present a case of an active-duty military service member with symptomatic unilateral snapping biceps femoris and review the literature for treatment of this condition. Surgical release allowed the patient a quick and unrestricted return to full mission capabilities.

The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

A 23-year-old active-duty soldier presented to the orthopedic clinic with several months of noticeable snapping and pain over the lateral knee with attempted running and deep squatting activities, resulting in difficulty to perform his army duties. The patient reported no history of antecedent trauma. No locking of the knee or paresthesia distally into the leg or foot was observed.

The physical examination revealed a palpable and observable snapping of the long head of the biceps tendon over the fibular head with squatting beyond 90^° in the left knee. The patient presented with full strength and no instability or joint line pain throughout the knee. Application of a posterior-to-anterior directed force over the biceps femoris proximal to the insertion allowed the patient to perform a deep squat without snapping. The radiographs demonstrated no abnormal fibular morphology (Figures 1A, 1B). Axial MRI images demonstrated an anomalous slip of the tendon inserting on the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia in addition to the normal insertion on the posterolateral and lateral edge of the fibular head (Figure 2) as described by Terry and LaPrade.¹⁴

Continue to: A conservative treatment with physical therapy...

A conservative treatment with physical therapy, activity modification, and a Cho-Pat knee strap (to provide a posterior-to-anterior buttress and to prevent snapping) was attempted for 4 weeks. However, the patient could not tolerate the strap, and the activity restraints prevented him from performing his job as an active-duty soldier. Given the failure of conservative treatment, operative intervention was elected.

Upon exploration of the biceps femoris insertion, the accessory anterolateral tibial insertion was readily identified (Figure 3). Notably, the expected normal lateral edge insertion was thickened and extended beyond the lateral edge, distal, and anterior on to the fibular head (Figure 4). The anterolateral tibial band was released first. However, the snapping remained evident. The thickened anterior fibular accessory band was then released back to its normal, lateral edge, and at this point, no further snapping was observed with deep flexion of the knee. Inspection of the remaining posterolateral and lateral edge insertion demonstrated a healthy, 1-cm thick tendinous insertion. The accessory slips were completely excised, and the incision was closed without any additional repair or re-insertion (Figure 5). The patient presented no complications postoperatively. He was allowed to bear weight as tolerated and was limited to stretching and gravity resistance training for 4 weeks. At 1 month, the patient was released to progress back to full activity. By 8 weeks postoperative, he remained free of snapping and resumed his regular running routine and military duties without restriction or pain.

DISCUSSION

Release of the anomalous bands with no further repair or re-insertion of the biceps femoris allowed this active-duty soldier to resume full running and duty-related activities in <2 months. In this particular patient, given his anatomy, the treatment was successful. The literature indicates that optimal results and surgical approach depend upon the pathological anatomy encountered.

Date and colleagues⁴ described a similar anatomical anomaly as with our patient, whom after the release of tibial insertion, snapping was still observed, thus requiring the release of anterior fibular insertion. They noted the necessity of suturing the accessory limbs onto the periosteum of the fibular head to achieve a stable biceps femoris.

In other cases, abnormal bony anatomy of the fibula has been shown to cause snapping. Vavalle and Capozzi⁵ described a case of snapping biceps in a marathon runner, who needed partial resection of the fibular head to eliminate snapping. The runner made a full return to the sport. Fung and colleagues² described a similar approach to a 17-year-old cyclist; however, this patient presented exostoses of the bilateral fibular heads. The exostoses were bilaterally excised, and the snapping ceased. Kristensen and colleagues¹³ described a patient with an anomalous tibial insertion. Rather than releasing the tibial insertion, a partial resection of the fibular head allowed for cessation of snapping.

Other authors advocate the detachment and anatomic re-insertion of the biceps femoris into the fibular head. Bernhardson and LaPrade⁶ reported a series of 3 patients requiring this approach with excellent results. Bansal and colleagues⁸ were the first to describe a soccer player with an isolated injury to the knee as a traumatic cause for a snapping biceps femoris. After failure of conservative treatment attempts, exploration and re-insertion through a bone tunnel allowed for return to the sport. Hernandez and colleagues¹¹ and Lokiec and colleagues¹² both described the reproduction of the normal biceps femoris anatomy through re-insertion procedures after identifying patients with abnormal anatomical insertions as causes for snapping.

CONCLUSION

We presented a case of an active military service member with a unilateral snapping biceps femoris tendon due to an anomalous distal insertion on both the proximal tibia and anterior fibular head. The release of abnormal insertions and maintenance of his normal anatomical insertion allowed for a quick and effective return to running and duty at full capacity. Although other surgical approaches have been described to include partial fibular head resection or anatomical re-insertion, we believe that the approach to this rare condition should be anatomy-based as the causes of snapping can significantly vary. We believe that if the normal posterolateral and lateral edge insertions of the biceps femoris are intact, removal of the abnormal anatomy without any repair or reconstruction can safely lead to successful surgical outcomes.        

ABSTRACT

A 23-year-old male active duty soldier presented with a biceps femoris tendon snapping over the fibular head with flexion of the knee beyond 90^°. Surgical release of anomalous anterolateral tibial and lateral fibular insertions provided relief of snapping with no other repair or reconstruction required. The soldier quickly returned to full running and active duty.

Snapping biceps femoris tendon is a rare but potential cause of pain and dysfunction in the lateral knee. The possible anatomical variations and the cause of snapping must be considered when determining the operative approaches to this condition.

Continue to: Snapping in the knee...

Snapping in the knee is not as common as in other joints, such as the hip or ankle. The snapping sensation can occur from several pathologies, including the following: lateral meniscal tears, iliotibial band syndrome, proximal tibiofibular instability, snapping popliteus, peroneal nerve compression/neuritis, lateral discoid meniscus, rheumatoid nodules, plicae, congenital snapping knee, exostoses, or previous trauma.^1,2 A detailed history must be provided, and physical examination and appropriate imaging must be performed to narrow down the differential diagnosis and prescribe the appropriate course of treatment for snapping.

Snapping biceps femoris syndrome is a rare cause of knee snapping. This condition has been described in various case reports.^2-13 The reasons for a snapping biceps femoris can vary, and the treating provider must be ready to accommodate and treat these causes. The symptoms typically include an audible, and usually visual, lateral snapping distal to the knee joint and over the fibular head. Imaging may reveal bony abnormalities such as fibular exostoses. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can aid in determining any anomalous or abnormal insertions of the biceps femoris tendon. The snapping can be debilitating, particularly in athletes or patients with high-demand occupations, and surgical intervention is often warranted. 

We present a case of an active-duty military service member with symptomatic unilateral snapping biceps femoris and review the literature for treatment of this condition. Surgical release allowed the patient a quick and unrestricted return to full mission capabilities.

The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

A 23-year-old active-duty soldier presented to the orthopedic clinic with several months of noticeable snapping and pain over the lateral knee with attempted running and deep squatting activities, resulting in difficulty to perform his army duties. The patient reported no history of antecedent trauma. No locking of the knee or paresthesia distally into the leg or foot was observed.

The physical examination revealed a palpable and observable snapping of the long head of the biceps tendon over the fibular head with squatting beyond 90^° in the left knee. The patient presented with full strength and no instability or joint line pain throughout the knee. Application of a posterior-to-anterior directed force over the biceps femoris proximal to the insertion allowed the patient to perform a deep squat without snapping. The radiographs demonstrated no abnormal fibular morphology (Figures 1A, 1B). Axial MRI images demonstrated an anomalous slip of the tendon inserting on the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia in addition to the normal insertion on the posterolateral and lateral edge of the fibular head (Figure 2) as described by Terry and LaPrade.¹⁴

Continue to: A conservative treatment with physical therapy...

A conservative treatment with physical therapy, activity modification, and a Cho-Pat knee strap (to provide a posterior-to-anterior buttress and to prevent snapping) was attempted for 4 weeks. However, the patient could not tolerate the strap, and the activity restraints prevented him from performing his job as an active-duty soldier. Given the failure of conservative treatment, operative intervention was elected.

Upon exploration of the biceps femoris insertion, the accessory anterolateral tibial insertion was readily identified (Figure 3). Notably, the expected normal lateral edge insertion was thickened and extended beyond the lateral edge, distal, and anterior on to the fibular head (Figure 4). The anterolateral tibial band was released first. However, the snapping remained evident. The thickened anterior fibular accessory band was then released back to its normal, lateral edge, and at this point, no further snapping was observed with deep flexion of the knee. Inspection of the remaining posterolateral and lateral edge insertion demonstrated a healthy, 1-cm thick tendinous insertion. The accessory slips were completely excised, and the incision was closed without any additional repair or re-insertion (Figure 5). The patient presented no complications postoperatively. He was allowed to bear weight as tolerated and was limited to stretching and gravity resistance training for 4 weeks. At 1 month, the patient was released to progress back to full activity. By 8 weeks postoperative, he remained free of snapping and resumed his regular running routine and military duties without restriction or pain.

DISCUSSION

Release of the anomalous bands with no further repair or re-insertion of the biceps femoris allowed this active-duty soldier to resume full running and duty-related activities in <2 months. In this particular patient, given his anatomy, the treatment was successful. The literature indicates that optimal results and surgical approach depend upon the pathological anatomy encountered.

Date and colleagues⁴ described a similar anatomical anomaly as with our patient, whom after the release of tibial insertion, snapping was still observed, thus requiring the release of anterior fibular insertion. They noted the necessity of suturing the accessory limbs onto the periosteum of the fibular head to achieve a stable biceps femoris.

In other cases, abnormal bony anatomy of the fibula has been shown to cause snapping. Vavalle and Capozzi⁵ described a case of snapping biceps in a marathon runner, who needed partial resection of the fibular head to eliminate snapping. The runner made a full return to the sport. Fung and colleagues² described a similar approach to a 17-year-old cyclist; however, this patient presented exostoses of the bilateral fibular heads. The exostoses were bilaterally excised, and the snapping ceased. Kristensen and colleagues¹³ described a patient with an anomalous tibial insertion. Rather than releasing the tibial insertion, a partial resection of the fibular head allowed for cessation of snapping.

Other authors advocate the detachment and anatomic re-insertion of the biceps femoris into the fibular head. Bernhardson and LaPrade⁶ reported a series of 3 patients requiring this approach with excellent results. Bansal and colleagues⁸ were the first to describe a soccer player with an isolated injury to the knee as a traumatic cause for a snapping biceps femoris. After failure of conservative treatment attempts, exploration and re-insertion through a bone tunnel allowed for return to the sport. Hernandez and colleagues¹¹ and Lokiec and colleagues¹² both described the reproduction of the normal biceps femoris anatomy through re-insertion procedures after identifying patients with abnormal anatomical insertions as causes for snapping.

CONCLUSION

We presented a case of an active military service member with a unilateral snapping biceps femoris tendon due to an anomalous distal insertion on both the proximal tibia and anterior fibular head. The release of abnormal insertions and maintenance of his normal anatomical insertion allowed for a quick and effective return to running and duty at full capacity. Although other surgical approaches have been described to include partial fibular head resection or anatomical re-insertion, we believe that the approach to this rare condition should be anatomy-based as the causes of snapping can significantly vary. We believe that if the normal posterolateral and lateral edge insertions of the biceps femoris are intact, removal of the abnormal anatomy without any repair or reconstruction can safely lead to successful surgical outcomes.        

ABSTRACT

A 23-year-old male active duty soldier presented with a biceps femoris tendon snapping over the fibular head with flexion of the knee beyond 90^°. Surgical release of anomalous anterolateral tibial and lateral fibular insertions provided relief of snapping with no other repair or reconstruction required. The soldier quickly returned to full running and active duty.

Snapping biceps femoris tendon is a rare but potential cause of pain and dysfunction in the lateral knee. The possible anatomical variations and the cause of snapping must be considered when determining the operative approaches to this condition.

Continue to: Snapping in the knee...

Snapping in the knee is not as common as in other joints, such as the hip or ankle. The snapping sensation can occur from several pathologies, including the following: lateral meniscal tears, iliotibial band syndrome, proximal tibiofibular instability, snapping popliteus, peroneal nerve compression/neuritis, lateral discoid meniscus, rheumatoid nodules, plicae, congenital snapping knee, exostoses, or previous trauma.^1,2 A detailed history must be provided, and physical examination and appropriate imaging must be performed to narrow down the differential diagnosis and prescribe the appropriate course of treatment for snapping.

Snapping biceps femoris syndrome is a rare cause of knee snapping. This condition has been described in various case reports.^2-13 The reasons for a snapping biceps femoris can vary, and the treating provider must be ready to accommodate and treat these causes. The symptoms typically include an audible, and usually visual, lateral snapping distal to the knee joint and over the fibular head. Imaging may reveal bony abnormalities such as fibular exostoses. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can aid in determining any anomalous or abnormal insertions of the biceps femoris tendon. The snapping can be debilitating, particularly in athletes or patients with high-demand occupations, and surgical intervention is often warranted. 

We present a case of an active-duty military service member with symptomatic unilateral snapping biceps femoris and review the literature for treatment of this condition. Surgical release allowed the patient a quick and unrestricted return to full mission capabilities.

The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

A 23-year-old active-duty soldier presented to the orthopedic clinic with several months of noticeable snapping and pain over the lateral knee with attempted running and deep squatting activities, resulting in difficulty to perform his army duties. The patient reported no history of antecedent trauma. No locking of the knee or paresthesia distally into the leg or foot was observed.

The physical examination revealed a palpable and observable snapping of the long head of the biceps tendon over the fibular head with squatting beyond 90^° in the left knee. The patient presented with full strength and no instability or joint line pain throughout the knee. Application of a posterior-to-anterior directed force over the biceps femoris proximal to the insertion allowed the patient to perform a deep squat without snapping. The radiographs demonstrated no abnormal fibular morphology (Figures 1A, 1B). Axial MRI images demonstrated an anomalous slip of the tendon inserting on the anterolateral aspect of the proximal tibia in addition to the normal insertion on the posterolateral and lateral edge of the fibular head (Figure 2) as described by Terry and LaPrade.¹⁴

Continue to: A conservative treatment with physical therapy...

A conservative treatment with physical therapy, activity modification, and a Cho-Pat knee strap (to provide a posterior-to-anterior buttress and to prevent snapping) was attempted for 4 weeks. However, the patient could not tolerate the strap, and the activity restraints prevented him from performing his job as an active-duty soldier. Given the failure of conservative treatment, operative intervention was elected.

Upon exploration of the biceps femoris insertion, the accessory anterolateral tibial insertion was readily identified (Figure 3). Notably, the expected normal lateral edge insertion was thickened and extended beyond the lateral edge, distal, and anterior on to the fibular head (Figure 4). The anterolateral tibial band was released first. However, the snapping remained evident. The thickened anterior fibular accessory band was then released back to its normal, lateral edge, and at this point, no further snapping was observed with deep flexion of the knee. Inspection of the remaining posterolateral and lateral edge insertion demonstrated a healthy, 1-cm thick tendinous insertion. The accessory slips were completely excised, and the incision was closed without any additional repair or re-insertion (Figure 5). The patient presented no complications postoperatively. He was allowed to bear weight as tolerated and was limited to stretching and gravity resistance training for 4 weeks. At 1 month, the patient was released to progress back to full activity. By 8 weeks postoperative, he remained free of snapping and resumed his regular running routine and military duties without restriction or pain.

DISCUSSION

Release of the anomalous bands with no further repair or re-insertion of the biceps femoris allowed this active-duty soldier to resume full running and duty-related activities in <2 months. In this particular patient, given his anatomy, the treatment was successful. The literature indicates that optimal results and surgical approach depend upon the pathological anatomy encountered.

Date and colleagues⁴ described a similar anatomical anomaly as with our patient, whom after the release of tibial insertion, snapping was still observed, thus requiring the release of anterior fibular insertion. They noted the necessity of suturing the accessory limbs onto the periosteum of the fibular head to achieve a stable biceps femoris.

In other cases, abnormal bony anatomy of the fibula has been shown to cause snapping. Vavalle and Capozzi⁵ described a case of snapping biceps in a marathon runner, who needed partial resection of the fibular head to eliminate snapping. The runner made a full return to the sport. Fung and colleagues² described a similar approach to a 17-year-old cyclist; however, this patient presented exostoses of the bilateral fibular heads. The exostoses were bilaterally excised, and the snapping ceased. Kristensen and colleagues¹³ described a patient with an anomalous tibial insertion. Rather than releasing the tibial insertion, a partial resection of the fibular head allowed for cessation of snapping.

Other authors advocate the detachment and anatomic re-insertion of the biceps femoris into the fibular head. Bernhardson and LaPrade⁶ reported a series of 3 patients requiring this approach with excellent results. Bansal and colleagues⁸ were the first to describe a soccer player with an isolated injury to the knee as a traumatic cause for a snapping biceps femoris. After failure of conservative treatment attempts, exploration and re-insertion through a bone tunnel allowed for return to the sport. Hernandez and colleagues¹¹ and Lokiec and colleagues¹² both described the reproduction of the normal biceps femoris anatomy through re-insertion procedures after identifying patients with abnormal anatomical insertions as causes for snapping.

CONCLUSION

We presented a case of an active military service member with a unilateral snapping biceps femoris tendon due to an anomalous distal insertion on both the proximal tibia and anterior fibular head. The release of abnormal insertions and maintenance of his normal anatomical insertion allowed for a quick and effective return to running and duty at full capacity. Although other surgical approaches have been described to include partial fibular head resection or anatomical re-insertion, we believe that the approach to this rare condition should be anatomy-based as the causes of snapping can significantly vary. We believe that if the normal posterolateral and lateral edge insertions of the biceps femoris are intact, removal of the abnormal anatomy without any repair or reconstruction can safely lead to successful surgical outcomes.        

Lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) individuals face significant difficulties in obtaining high-quality,compassionate medical care, much of which has been attributed to inadequate provider knowledge. In this article, the authors present a transgender patient seen in primary care and discuss the knowledge gleaned to inform future care of this patient as well as the care of other similar patients.

The following case discussion and review of the literature also seeks to improve the practice of other primary care providers (PCPs) who are inexperienced in this arena. This article aims to review the basics to permit PCPs to venture into transgender care, including a review of basic terminology; a few interactive tips; and basics in medical and hormonal treatment, follow-up, contraindications, and risk. More details can be obtained through electronic consultation (Transgender eConsult) in the VA.

Case Presentation

A 35-year-old patient who was assigned male sex at birth presented to the primary care clinic to discuss her desire to undergo male-to-female (MTF) transition. The patient stated that she had started taking female estrogen hormones 9 years previously purchased from craigslist without a prescription. She tried oral contraceptives as well as oral and injectable estradiol. While the patient was taking injectable estradiol she had breast growth, decreased anxiety, weight gain, and a feeling of peacefulness. The patient also reported that she had received several laser treatments for whole body hair removal, beginning 8 to 10 years before and more regularly in the past 2 to 3 years. She asked whether transition-related care could be provided, because she could no longer afford the hormones.

The patient wanted to transition because she felt that “Women are beautiful, the way they carry themselves, wear their hair, their nails, I want to be like that.” She also mentioned that when she watched TV, she envisioned herself as a woman. She reported that she enjoyed wearing her mother’s clothing since age 10, which made her feel more like herself. The patient noted that she had desired to remove her body hair since childhood but could not afford to do it until recently. She bought female clothing, shoes and makeup, and did her nails from a young age. The patient also reported that she did not “know what transgender was” until a decade ago.

The patient struggled with her identity growing up; however, she tried not to think about it or talk about it with anyone. She related that she was ashamed of her thoughts and that only recently had made peace with being transgender. Thus, she pursued talking to her medical provider about transitioning. The patient reported that she felt more energetic when taking female hormones and was better able to discuss the issue. Specifically, she noted that if she were not on estrogen now she would not be able to talk about transitioning.

The patient related that she has done extensive research about transitioning, including reading online about other transgender people. She noted that she was aware of “possible backlash with society,” but ultimately, she had decided that transitioning was the right decision for her.

She expressed a desire to have an orchiectomy and continue hormonal therapy to permit her “to have a more feminine face, soft skin, hairless body, big breasts, more fat around the hips, and a high-pitched voice.” She additionally related a desire to be in a stable relationship and be her true self. She also stated that she had not identified herself as a female to anyone yet but would like to soon. The patient reported a history of depression, especially during her military service when she wanted to be a woman but did not feel she understood what was going on or how to manage her feelings. She said that for the past 2 months she felt much happier since beginning to take estradiol 4 mg orally daily, which she had found online. She also tried to purchase anti-androgen medication but could not afford it. In addition, she said that she would like to eventually proceed with gender affirmation surgery.

She was currently having sex with men, primarily via anal receptive intercourse. She had no history of sexually transmitted infections but reported that she did not use condoms regularly. She had no history of physical or sexual abuse. The patient was offered referral to the HIV clinic to receive HIV preexposure prophylaxis therapy (emtricitabine + tenofovir), which she declined, but she was counseled on safe sex practice.

The patient was referred to psychiatry both for supportive mental health care and to clarify that her concomitant mental health issues would not preclude the prescription of gender-affirming hormone treatment. Based on the psychiatric evaluation, the patient was felt to be appropriate for treatment with feminizing hormone therapy. The psychiatric assessment also noted that although the patient had a history of psychosis, she was not exhibiting psychotic symptoms currently, and this would not be a contraindication to treatment.

After discussion of the risks and benefits of cross-sex hormone therapy, the patient was started on estradiol 4 mg orally daily, as well as spironolactone 50 mg daily. She was then switched to estradiol 10 mg intramuscular every 2 weeks with the aim of using a less thrombogenic route of administration.

Treatment Outcomes

The patient remains under care. She has had follow-up visits every 3 months to ensure appropriate signs of feminization and monitoring of adverse effects (AEs). The patient’s testosterone and estradiol levels are being checked every 3 months to ensure total testosterone is 1,2

After 12 months on therapy with estradiol and spironolactone, the patient notes that her mood has improved, she feels more energetic, she has gained some weight, and her skin is softer. Her voice pitch, with the help of speech therapy, is gradually changing to what she perceives as more feminine. Hormone levels and electrolytes are all in an acceptable range, and blood sugar and blood pressure (BP) are within normal range. The patient will be offered age-appropriate cancer screening at the appropriate time.

Discussion

The treatment of gender-nonconforming individuals has come a long way since Lili Elbe, the transgender artist depicted in The Danish Girl, underwent gender-affirmation surgery in the early 20th century. Lili and people like her paved the way for other transgender individuals by doggedly pursuing gender-affirming medical treatment although they faced rejection by society and forged a difficult path. In recent years, an increasing number of transgender individuals have begun to seek mainstream medical care; however, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients.^3,4

Terminology

Although someone’s sex is typically assigned at birth based on the external appearance of their genitalia, gender identity refers to a person’s internal sense of self and how they fit in to the world. People often use these 2 terms interchangeably in everyday language, but these terms are different.^1,2

Transgender refers to a person whose gender identity differs from the sex that was assigned at birth. A transgender man or transman, or female-to-male (FTM) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned female sex at birth but identifies as a male. A transgender woman, or transwoman or a male-to-female (MTF) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned male sex at birth but identifies as female. A nontransgender person may be referred to as cisgender.

Transsexual is a medical term and refers to a transgender individual who sought medical intervention to transition to their identified gender. 

Sexual orientation describes sexual attraction only and is not related to gender identity. The sexual orientation of a transgender person is determined by emotional and/or physical attraction and not gender identity.

Gender dysphoria refers to the distress experienced by an individual when one’s gender identity and sex are not completely congruent.

Improving Patient Interaction

Transgender patients might avoid seeking care due to previous negative experiences or a fear of being judged. It is very important to create a safe environment where the patients feel comfortable. Meeting patients “where they are” without judgment will enhance the patient-physician relationship. It is necessary to train all clinic staff about the importance of transgender health issues. All staff should address the patient with the name, pronouns, and gender identity that the patient prefers. For patients with a gender identity that is not strictly male or female (nonbinary patients), gender-neutral pronouns, such as they/them/their, may be chosen. It is helpful to be direct in asking: What is your preferred name? When I speak about you to other providers, what pronouns do you prefer I use, he, she, they? This information can then be documented in the electronic health record (EHR) so that all staff know from visit to visit. Thank the patient for the clarification.

The physical examination can be uncomfortable for both the patient and the physician. Experience and familiarity with the current recommendations can help. The physical examination should be relevant to the anatomy that is present, regardless of the gender presentation. An anatomic survey of the organs currently present in an individual can be useful.¹ The physician should be sensitive in examining and obtaining information from the patient, focusing on only those issues relevant to the presenting concern. Chest and genital examinations may be particularly distressing for patients. If a chest or genital examination is indicated, the provider and patient should have a discussion explaining the importance of the examination and how the patient’s comfort can be optimized.

Medical Treatment

Gender-affirmation treatment should be multidisciplinary and include some or all of the following: diagnostic assessment, psychotherapy or counseling, real-life experience (RLE), hormone therapy, and surgical therapy^..1,2,5 The World Professional Association for Transgender Health (WPATH) has established internationally accepted Standards of Care (SOC) for the treatment of gender dysphoria that provide detailed expert opinion reviewing the background and guidance for care of transgender individuals. Most commonly, the diagnosis of gender dysphoria is made by a mental health professional (MHP) based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM–5) criteria for gender dysphoria.^1,2 The involvement of a MHP can be crucial in assessing potential psychological and social risk factors for unfavorable outcomes of medical interventions. In case of severe psychopathology, which can interfere with diagnosis and treatment, the psychopathology should be addressed first.^1,2 The MHP also can confirm that the patient has the capacity to make an informed decision.

The 2017 Endocrine Society guidelines for the treatment of gender-dysphoric/gender-incongruent persons emphasize the utility of evaluation of these patients by an expert MHP before starting the treatment.² However, the guidelines from WPATH and the Center for Transgender Excellence at University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) have stipulated that any provider who feels comfortable assessing the informed decision-making process with a patient can make this determination.

The WPATH SOC states that RLE is essential to transition to the gender role that is congruent with the patient’s gender identity. The RLE is defined as the act of fully adopting a new or evolving gender role or gender presentation in everyday life. In the RLE, the person should fully experience life in the desired gender role before irreversible physical treatment is undertaken. Newer guidelines note that it may be too challenging to adopt the desired gender role without the benefit of feminizing or masculinizing treatment, and therefore, the treatment can be offered at the same time as adopting the new gender role.¹

Medical treatment involves administration of masculinizing or feminizing hormone therapy. There are 2 major goals of this hormonal therapy. 

For many transgender adults, genital reconstruction surgery and/or gonadectomy is a necessary step toward achieving their goal. 

Pretreatment screening and appropriate medical monitoring is recommended for both FTM and MTF transgender patients during the endocrine transition and periodically thereafter.² The physician should monitor the patient’s weight, BP, directed physical examinations, routine health questions focused on risk factors and medications, complete blood count, renal and liver functions, lipid and blood sugar.² 

Physical Changes With Hormone Therapy

Transgender men. Physical changes that are expected to occur during the first 1 to 6 months of testosterone therapy include cessation of menses, increased sexual desire, increased facial and body hair, increased oiliness of skin, increased muscle, and redistribution of fat mass. Changes that occur within the first year of testosterone therapy include deepening of the voice, clitoromegaly, and male pattern hair loss (in some cases). Deepening of the voice, and clitoromegaly are not reversible with discontinuation of hormonal therapy.²

Transgender women. Physical changes that may occur in transgender females in the first 3 to 12 months of estrogen and anti-androgen therapy include decreased sexual desire, decreased spontaneous erections, decreased facial and body hair (usually mild), decreased oiliness of skin, increased breast tissue growth, and redistribution of fat mass. Breast development is generally maximal at 2 years after initiating estrogen, and it is irreversible.² Effect on fertility may be permanent. Medical therapy has little effect on voice, and most transwomen will require speech therapy to achieve desired pitch.

Routine Health Maintenance

Breast Cancer Screening

Although there are limited data, it is thought that gender-affirming hormone therapy has similar risks as sex hormone replacement therapy in nontransgender males and females. Most AEs arise from use of supraphysiologic doses or inadequate doses.² Therefore, regular clinical and laboratory monitoring is essential to cross-sex hormone therapy. Treatment with exogenous estrogen and anti-androgens result in transgender women developing breast tissue with ducts, lobules, and acini that is histologically identical to breast tissue in nontransgender females.⁶

Breast cancer is a concern in transgender women due to prolonged exposure to estrogen. However, the relationship between breast cancer and cross-sex hormone therapy is controversial.

Many factors contribute to breast cancer risk in patients of all genders. Studies of premenopausal and menopausal women taking exogenous estrogen alone have not shown an increase in breast cancer risk. However, the combination of estrogen and progesterone has shown an association with a significant increase in the incidence of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.^2,7-10

A study of 5,136 veterans showed a statistically insignificant increased incidence of breast cancer in transgender women compared with data collected from the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database, although the sample size and duration of the observation were limiting factors.⁸ A European cohort study found decreased incidence of breast cancer in both MTF and FTM transgender patients, but these patients were an overall younger cohort with decreased risk in general. A cohort of 2,236 MTF individuals in the Netherlands in 1997 showed no increase in all-cause mortality related to hormone therapy at 30-year follow-up. Patients were exposed to exogenous estrogen from 2 months to 41 years.⁹ A follow-up of this study published in 2013, which included 2,307 MTF individuals taking estrogen for 5 years to > 30 years, revealed only 2 cases of breast cancer, which was the same incidence rate (4.1 per 100,000 person-years) as that of nontransgender women.¹⁰

In general, the incidence of breast cancer is rare in nontransgender men, and therefore there have not been a lot of clinical studies to assess risk factors and detection methods. The following risk factors can increase the risk of breast cancer in nontransgender patients: known presence of BRCA mutation, estrogen exposure/androgen insufficiency, Klinefelter syndrome, liver cirrhosis, and obesity.¹¹

Guidelines from the Endocrine Society, WPATH, and UCSF suggest that MTF transgender individuals who have a known increased risk for breast cancer should follow screening guidelines recommended for nontransgender women if they are aged > 50 years and have had more than 5 years of hormone use.² For FTM patients who have not had chest surgery, screening guidelines should follow those for nontransgender women. For those patients who have had chest reconstruction, small residual amounts of breast tissue may remain. Screening guidelines for these patients do not exist. For these patients, mammography can be technically difficult. Clinical chest wall examination, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and/or ultrasound may be helpful modalities. An individual risk vs benefit discussion with the patient is recommended.

Prostate Cancer Screening

Although the prostate gland will undergo atrophy with extended treatment with feminizing hormone therapy, there are case reports of prostate cancer in transgender women.^12,13 Usually these patients have started hormone treatment after age 50 years. Therefore, prostate cancer screening is recommended in transgender women as per general guidelines. Because the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is expected to be reduced, a PSA > 1.0 should be considered abnormal.¹

Cervical Cancer Screening

When a transgender man has a pap smear, it is essential to make it clear to the laboratory that the sample is a cervical pap smear (especially if the gender is marked as male) to avoid the sample being run incorrectly as an anal pap. Also, it is essential to indicate on the pap smear request form that the patient is on testosterone therapy and amenorrhea is present, because the lack of the female hormone can cause atrophy of cervix. This population has a high rate of inadequate specimens. Pretreatment with 1 to 2 weeks of vaginal estrogen can improve the success rate of inadequate specimens. Transgender women who have undergone vaginoplasty do not have a cervix, therefore, cervical cancer screening is not recommended. The anatomy of the neovagina has a more posterior orientation, and an anoscope is a more appropriate tool to examine the neovagina when necessary.

Hematology Health

Transgender women on cross-sex hormone therapy with estrogens may be at increased risk for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). In 2 European studies, patients treated with oral ethinyl estradiol as well as the anti-androgen cyproterone acetate were found to have up to 20 times increased risk of VTE. However, in later studies, oral ethinyl estradiol was changed to either oral conjugated estrogens or transdermal/intramuscular estradiol, and these studies did not show a significant increase in VTE risk.^14-16 Tobacco use in combination with estrogen therapy is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).¹ All transgender women who smoke should be counseled on tobacco risks and cessation options at every visit.¹ The transgender individuals who are not willing to quit smoking may be offered transdermal estrogen, which has lower risk of DVT.^14-16

Sexual Health

Clinicians should assess the risks for sexually transmitted infection (STIs) or HIV for transgender patients based on current anatomy and sexual behaviors. Presentations of STIs can be atypical due to varied sexual practices and gender-affirming surgeries. Thus, providers must remain vigilant for symptoms consistent with common STIs and screen for asymptomatic STIs on the basis of behavior history and sexual practices.¹⁷ Preexposure prophylaxis for HIV should be considered when appropriate. Serologic screening recommendations for transgender people (eg, HIV, hepatitis B and C, syphilis) do not differ in recommendations from those for nontransgender people.

Cardiovascular Health

The effect of cross-hormone treatment on cardiovascular (CV) health is still unknown. There are no randomized controlled trials that have investigated the relationship between cross-hormone treatment and CV health. Evidence from several studies suggests that CV risk is unchanged among transgender men using testosterone compared with that of nontransgender women.^18,19 There is conflicting evidence for transgender women with respect to CV risk and cross-sex hormone treatment.^1,18,19 The current American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guideline advises using the ASCVD risk calculator to determine the need for aspirin and statin treatment based on race, age, gender, and risk factors. There is no guideline on whether to use natal sex or affirmed gender while using the ASCVD calculator. It is reasonable to use the calculator based on natal sex if the cross-hormone treatment has started later in life, but if the cross-sex hormone treatment started at a young age, then one should consider using the affirmed gender to calculate the risk.

As with all patients, life style modifications, including smoking cessation, weight loss, physical activity, and management of BP and blood sugar, are important for CV health. For transgender women with CV risk factors or known CV disease, transdermal route of estrogen is preferred due to lower rates of VTE.^18,19

Conclusion

In recent years, an increased number of transgender individuals are seeking mainstream medical care. However, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients. It is critical that clinicians understand the difference between sex, gender, and sexuality. For patients who desire transgender care, providers must be able to comfortably ask the patient about their preferred name and prior care, know the basics in cross-sex hormone therapy, including appropriate follow-up of hormonal levels as well as laboratory tests that delineate risk, and know possible complications and AEs. The VA offers significant resources, including electronic transgender care consultation for cases where the provider does not have adequate expertise in the care of these patients.

Both medical schools and residency training programs are starting to incorporate curricula regarding LGBT care. For those who have already completed training, this article serves as a brief guide to terminology, interactive tips, and management of this growing and underserved group of individuals.

Lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) individuals face significant difficulties in obtaining high-quality,compassionate medical care, much of which has been attributed to inadequate provider knowledge. In this article, the authors present a transgender patient seen in primary care and discuss the knowledge gleaned to inform future care of this patient as well as the care of other similar patients.

The following case discussion and review of the literature also seeks to improve the practice of other primary care providers (PCPs) who are inexperienced in this arena. This article aims to review the basics to permit PCPs to venture into transgender care, including a review of basic terminology; a few interactive tips; and basics in medical and hormonal treatment, follow-up, contraindications, and risk. More details can be obtained through electronic consultation (Transgender eConsult) in the VA.

Case Presentation

A 35-year-old patient who was assigned male sex at birth presented to the primary care clinic to discuss her desire to undergo male-to-female (MTF) transition. The patient stated that she had started taking female estrogen hormones 9 years previously purchased from craigslist without a prescription. She tried oral contraceptives as well as oral and injectable estradiol. While the patient was taking injectable estradiol she had breast growth, decreased anxiety, weight gain, and a feeling of peacefulness. The patient also reported that she had received several laser treatments for whole body hair removal, beginning 8 to 10 years before and more regularly in the past 2 to 3 years. She asked whether transition-related care could be provided, because she could no longer afford the hormones.

The patient wanted to transition because she felt that “Women are beautiful, the way they carry themselves, wear their hair, their nails, I want to be like that.” She also mentioned that when she watched TV, she envisioned herself as a woman. She reported that she enjoyed wearing her mother’s clothing since age 10, which made her feel more like herself. The patient noted that she had desired to remove her body hair since childhood but could not afford to do it until recently. She bought female clothing, shoes and makeup, and did her nails from a young age. The patient also reported that she did not “know what transgender was” until a decade ago.

The patient struggled with her identity growing up; however, she tried not to think about it or talk about it with anyone. She related that she was ashamed of her thoughts and that only recently had made peace with being transgender. Thus, she pursued talking to her medical provider about transitioning. The patient reported that she felt more energetic when taking female hormones and was better able to discuss the issue. Specifically, she noted that if she were not on estrogen now she would not be able to talk about transitioning.

The patient related that she has done extensive research about transitioning, including reading online about other transgender people. She noted that she was aware of “possible backlash with society,” but ultimately, she had decided that transitioning was the right decision for her.

She expressed a desire to have an orchiectomy and continue hormonal therapy to permit her “to have a more feminine face, soft skin, hairless body, big breasts, more fat around the hips, and a high-pitched voice.” She additionally related a desire to be in a stable relationship and be her true self. She also stated that she had not identified herself as a female to anyone yet but would like to soon. The patient reported a history of depression, especially during her military service when she wanted to be a woman but did not feel she understood what was going on or how to manage her feelings. She said that for the past 2 months she felt much happier since beginning to take estradiol 4 mg orally daily, which she had found online. She also tried to purchase anti-androgen medication but could not afford it. In addition, she said that she would like to eventually proceed with gender affirmation surgery.

She was currently having sex with men, primarily via anal receptive intercourse. She had no history of sexually transmitted infections but reported that she did not use condoms regularly. She had no history of physical or sexual abuse. The patient was offered referral to the HIV clinic to receive HIV preexposure prophylaxis therapy (emtricitabine + tenofovir), which she declined, but she was counseled on safe sex practice.

The patient was referred to psychiatry both for supportive mental health care and to clarify that her concomitant mental health issues would not preclude the prescription of gender-affirming hormone treatment. Based on the psychiatric evaluation, the patient was felt to be appropriate for treatment with feminizing hormone therapy. The psychiatric assessment also noted that although the patient had a history of psychosis, she was not exhibiting psychotic symptoms currently, and this would not be a contraindication to treatment.

After discussion of the risks and benefits of cross-sex hormone therapy, the patient was started on estradiol 4 mg orally daily, as well as spironolactone 50 mg daily. She was then switched to estradiol 10 mg intramuscular every 2 weeks with the aim of using a less thrombogenic route of administration.

Treatment Outcomes

The patient remains under care. She has had follow-up visits every 3 months to ensure appropriate signs of feminization and monitoring of adverse effects (AEs). The patient’s testosterone and estradiol levels are being checked every 3 months to ensure total testosterone is 1,2

After 12 months on therapy with estradiol and spironolactone, the patient notes that her mood has improved, she feels more energetic, she has gained some weight, and her skin is softer. Her voice pitch, with the help of speech therapy, is gradually changing to what she perceives as more feminine. Hormone levels and electrolytes are all in an acceptable range, and blood sugar and blood pressure (BP) are within normal range. The patient will be offered age-appropriate cancer screening at the appropriate time.

Discussion

The treatment of gender-nonconforming individuals has come a long way since Lili Elbe, the transgender artist depicted in The Danish Girl, underwent gender-affirmation surgery in the early 20th century. Lili and people like her paved the way for other transgender individuals by doggedly pursuing gender-affirming medical treatment although they faced rejection by society and forged a difficult path. In recent years, an increasing number of transgender individuals have begun to seek mainstream medical care; however, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients.^3,4

Terminology

Although someone’s sex is typically assigned at birth based on the external appearance of their genitalia, gender identity refers to a person’s internal sense of self and how they fit in to the world. People often use these 2 terms interchangeably in everyday language, but these terms are different.^1,2

Transgender refers to a person whose gender identity differs from the sex that was assigned at birth. A transgender man or transman, or female-to-male (FTM) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned female sex at birth but identifies as a male. A transgender woman, or transwoman or a male-to-female (MTF) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned male sex at birth but identifies as female. A nontransgender person may be referred to as cisgender.

Transsexual is a medical term and refers to a transgender individual who sought medical intervention to transition to their identified gender. 

Sexual orientation describes sexual attraction only and is not related to gender identity. The sexual orientation of a transgender person is determined by emotional and/or physical attraction and not gender identity.

Gender dysphoria refers to the distress experienced by an individual when one’s gender identity and sex are not completely congruent.

Improving Patient Interaction

Transgender patients might avoid seeking care due to previous negative experiences or a fear of being judged. It is very important to create a safe environment where the patients feel comfortable. Meeting patients “where they are” without judgment will enhance the patient-physician relationship. It is necessary to train all clinic staff about the importance of transgender health issues. All staff should address the patient with the name, pronouns, and gender identity that the patient prefers. For patients with a gender identity that is not strictly male or female (nonbinary patients), gender-neutral pronouns, such as they/them/their, may be chosen. It is helpful to be direct in asking: What is your preferred name? When I speak about you to other providers, what pronouns do you prefer I use, he, she, they? This information can then be documented in the electronic health record (EHR) so that all staff know from visit to visit. Thank the patient for the clarification.

The physical examination can be uncomfortable for both the patient and the physician. Experience and familiarity with the current recommendations can help. The physical examination should be relevant to the anatomy that is present, regardless of the gender presentation. An anatomic survey of the organs currently present in an individual can be useful.¹ The physician should be sensitive in examining and obtaining information from the patient, focusing on only those issues relevant to the presenting concern. Chest and genital examinations may be particularly distressing for patients. If a chest or genital examination is indicated, the provider and patient should have a discussion explaining the importance of the examination and how the patient’s comfort can be optimized.

Medical Treatment

Gender-affirmation treatment should be multidisciplinary and include some or all of the following: diagnostic assessment, psychotherapy or counseling, real-life experience (RLE), hormone therapy, and surgical therapy^..1,2,5 The World Professional Association for Transgender Health (WPATH) has established internationally accepted Standards of Care (SOC) for the treatment of gender dysphoria that provide detailed expert opinion reviewing the background and guidance for care of transgender individuals. Most commonly, the diagnosis of gender dysphoria is made by a mental health professional (MHP) based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM–5) criteria for gender dysphoria.^1,2 The involvement of a MHP can be crucial in assessing potential psychological and social risk factors for unfavorable outcomes of medical interventions. In case of severe psychopathology, which can interfere with diagnosis and treatment, the psychopathology should be addressed first.^1,2 The MHP also can confirm that the patient has the capacity to make an informed decision.

The 2017 Endocrine Society guidelines for the treatment of gender-dysphoric/gender-incongruent persons emphasize the utility of evaluation of these patients by an expert MHP before starting the treatment.² However, the guidelines from WPATH and the Center for Transgender Excellence at University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) have stipulated that any provider who feels comfortable assessing the informed decision-making process with a patient can make this determination.

The WPATH SOC states that RLE is essential to transition to the gender role that is congruent with the patient’s gender identity. The RLE is defined as the act of fully adopting a new or evolving gender role or gender presentation in everyday life. In the RLE, the person should fully experience life in the desired gender role before irreversible physical treatment is undertaken. Newer guidelines note that it may be too challenging to adopt the desired gender role without the benefit of feminizing or masculinizing treatment, and therefore, the treatment can be offered at the same time as adopting the new gender role.¹

Medical treatment involves administration of masculinizing or feminizing hormone therapy. There are 2 major goals of this hormonal therapy. 

For many transgender adults, genital reconstruction surgery and/or gonadectomy is a necessary step toward achieving their goal. 

Pretreatment screening and appropriate medical monitoring is recommended for both FTM and MTF transgender patients during the endocrine transition and periodically thereafter.² The physician should monitor the patient’s weight, BP, directed physical examinations, routine health questions focused on risk factors and medications, complete blood count, renal and liver functions, lipid and blood sugar.² 

Physical Changes With Hormone Therapy

Transgender men. Physical changes that are expected to occur during the first 1 to 6 months of testosterone therapy include cessation of menses, increased sexual desire, increased facial and body hair, increased oiliness of skin, increased muscle, and redistribution of fat mass. Changes that occur within the first year of testosterone therapy include deepening of the voice, clitoromegaly, and male pattern hair loss (in some cases). Deepening of the voice, and clitoromegaly are not reversible with discontinuation of hormonal therapy.²

Transgender women. Physical changes that may occur in transgender females in the first 3 to 12 months of estrogen and anti-androgen therapy include decreased sexual desire, decreased spontaneous erections, decreased facial and body hair (usually mild), decreased oiliness of skin, increased breast tissue growth, and redistribution of fat mass. Breast development is generally maximal at 2 years after initiating estrogen, and it is irreversible.² Effect on fertility may be permanent. Medical therapy has little effect on voice, and most transwomen will require speech therapy to achieve desired pitch.

Routine Health Maintenance

Breast Cancer Screening

Although there are limited data, it is thought that gender-affirming hormone therapy has similar risks as sex hormone replacement therapy in nontransgender males and females. Most AEs arise from use of supraphysiologic doses or inadequate doses.² Therefore, regular clinical and laboratory monitoring is essential to cross-sex hormone therapy. Treatment with exogenous estrogen and anti-androgens result in transgender women developing breast tissue with ducts, lobules, and acini that is histologically identical to breast tissue in nontransgender females.⁶

Breast cancer is a concern in transgender women due to prolonged exposure to estrogen. However, the relationship between breast cancer and cross-sex hormone therapy is controversial.

Many factors contribute to breast cancer risk in patients of all genders. Studies of premenopausal and menopausal women taking exogenous estrogen alone have not shown an increase in breast cancer risk. However, the combination of estrogen and progesterone has shown an association with a significant increase in the incidence of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.^2,7-10

A study of 5,136 veterans showed a statistically insignificant increased incidence of breast cancer in transgender women compared with data collected from the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database, although the sample size and duration of the observation were limiting factors.⁸ A European cohort study found decreased incidence of breast cancer in both MTF and FTM transgender patients, but these patients were an overall younger cohort with decreased risk in general. A cohort of 2,236 MTF individuals in the Netherlands in 1997 showed no increase in all-cause mortality related to hormone therapy at 30-year follow-up. Patients were exposed to exogenous estrogen from 2 months to 41 years.⁹ A follow-up of this study published in 2013, which included 2,307 MTF individuals taking estrogen for 5 years to > 30 years, revealed only 2 cases of breast cancer, which was the same incidence rate (4.1 per 100,000 person-years) as that of nontransgender women.¹⁰

In general, the incidence of breast cancer is rare in nontransgender men, and therefore there have not been a lot of clinical studies to assess risk factors and detection methods. The following risk factors can increase the risk of breast cancer in nontransgender patients: known presence of BRCA mutation, estrogen exposure/androgen insufficiency, Klinefelter syndrome, liver cirrhosis, and obesity.¹¹

Guidelines from the Endocrine Society, WPATH, and UCSF suggest that MTF transgender individuals who have a known increased risk for breast cancer should follow screening guidelines recommended for nontransgender women if they are aged > 50 years and have had more than 5 years of hormone use.² For FTM patients who have not had chest surgery, screening guidelines should follow those for nontransgender women. For those patients who have had chest reconstruction, small residual amounts of breast tissue may remain. Screening guidelines for these patients do not exist. For these patients, mammography can be technically difficult. Clinical chest wall examination, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and/or ultrasound may be helpful modalities. An individual risk vs benefit discussion with the patient is recommended.

Prostate Cancer Screening

Although the prostate gland will undergo atrophy with extended treatment with feminizing hormone therapy, there are case reports of prostate cancer in transgender women.^12,13 Usually these patients have started hormone treatment after age 50 years. Therefore, prostate cancer screening is recommended in transgender women as per general guidelines. Because the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is expected to be reduced, a PSA > 1.0 should be considered abnormal.¹

Cervical Cancer Screening

When a transgender man has a pap smear, it is essential to make it clear to the laboratory that the sample is a cervical pap smear (especially if the gender is marked as male) to avoid the sample being run incorrectly as an anal pap. Also, it is essential to indicate on the pap smear request form that the patient is on testosterone therapy and amenorrhea is present, because the lack of the female hormone can cause atrophy of cervix. This population has a high rate of inadequate specimens. Pretreatment with 1 to 2 weeks of vaginal estrogen can improve the success rate of inadequate specimens. Transgender women who have undergone vaginoplasty do not have a cervix, therefore, cervical cancer screening is not recommended. The anatomy of the neovagina has a more posterior orientation, and an anoscope is a more appropriate tool to examine the neovagina when necessary.

Hematology Health

Transgender women on cross-sex hormone therapy with estrogens may be at increased risk for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). In 2 European studies, patients treated with oral ethinyl estradiol as well as the anti-androgen cyproterone acetate were found to have up to 20 times increased risk of VTE. However, in later studies, oral ethinyl estradiol was changed to either oral conjugated estrogens or transdermal/intramuscular estradiol, and these studies did not show a significant increase in VTE risk.^14-16 Tobacco use in combination with estrogen therapy is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).¹ All transgender women who smoke should be counseled on tobacco risks and cessation options at every visit.¹ The transgender individuals who are not willing to quit smoking may be offered transdermal estrogen, which has lower risk of DVT.^14-16

Sexual Health

Clinicians should assess the risks for sexually transmitted infection (STIs) or HIV for transgender patients based on current anatomy and sexual behaviors. Presentations of STIs can be atypical due to varied sexual practices and gender-affirming surgeries. Thus, providers must remain vigilant for symptoms consistent with common STIs and screen for asymptomatic STIs on the basis of behavior history and sexual practices.¹⁷ Preexposure prophylaxis for HIV should be considered when appropriate. Serologic screening recommendations for transgender people (eg, HIV, hepatitis B and C, syphilis) do not differ in recommendations from those for nontransgender people.

Cardiovascular Health

The effect of cross-hormone treatment on cardiovascular (CV) health is still unknown. There are no randomized controlled trials that have investigated the relationship between cross-hormone treatment and CV health. Evidence from several studies suggests that CV risk is unchanged among transgender men using testosterone compared with that of nontransgender women.^18,19 There is conflicting evidence for transgender women with respect to CV risk and cross-sex hormone treatment.^1,18,19 The current American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guideline advises using the ASCVD risk calculator to determine the need for aspirin and statin treatment based on race, age, gender, and risk factors. There is no guideline on whether to use natal sex or affirmed gender while using the ASCVD calculator. It is reasonable to use the calculator based on natal sex if the cross-hormone treatment has started later in life, but if the cross-sex hormone treatment started at a young age, then one should consider using the affirmed gender to calculate the risk.

As with all patients, life style modifications, including smoking cessation, weight loss, physical activity, and management of BP and blood sugar, are important for CV health. For transgender women with CV risk factors or known CV disease, transdermal route of estrogen is preferred due to lower rates of VTE.^18,19

Conclusion

In recent years, an increased number of transgender individuals are seeking mainstream medical care. However, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients. It is critical that clinicians understand the difference between sex, gender, and sexuality. For patients who desire transgender care, providers must be able to comfortably ask the patient about their preferred name and prior care, know the basics in cross-sex hormone therapy, including appropriate follow-up of hormonal levels as well as laboratory tests that delineate risk, and know possible complications and AEs. The VA offers significant resources, including electronic transgender care consultation for cases where the provider does not have adequate expertise in the care of these patients.

Both medical schools and residency training programs are starting to incorporate curricula regarding LGBT care. For those who have already completed training, this article serves as a brief guide to terminology, interactive tips, and management of this growing and underserved group of individuals.

Lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) individuals face significant difficulties in obtaining high-quality,compassionate medical care, much of which has been attributed to inadequate provider knowledge. In this article, the authors present a transgender patient seen in primary care and discuss the knowledge gleaned to inform future care of this patient as well as the care of other similar patients.

The following case discussion and review of the literature also seeks to improve the practice of other primary care providers (PCPs) who are inexperienced in this arena. This article aims to review the basics to permit PCPs to venture into transgender care, including a review of basic terminology; a few interactive tips; and basics in medical and hormonal treatment, follow-up, contraindications, and risk. More details can be obtained through electronic consultation (Transgender eConsult) in the VA.

Case Presentation

A 35-year-old patient who was assigned male sex at birth presented to the primary care clinic to discuss her desire to undergo male-to-female (MTF) transition. The patient stated that she had started taking female estrogen hormones 9 years previously purchased from craigslist without a prescription. She tried oral contraceptives as well as oral and injectable estradiol. While the patient was taking injectable estradiol she had breast growth, decreased anxiety, weight gain, and a feeling of peacefulness. The patient also reported that she had received several laser treatments for whole body hair removal, beginning 8 to 10 years before and more regularly in the past 2 to 3 years. She asked whether transition-related care could be provided, because she could no longer afford the hormones.

The patient wanted to transition because she felt that “Women are beautiful, the way they carry themselves, wear their hair, their nails, I want to be like that.” She also mentioned that when she watched TV, she envisioned herself as a woman. She reported that she enjoyed wearing her mother’s clothing since age 10, which made her feel more like herself. The patient noted that she had desired to remove her body hair since childhood but could not afford to do it until recently. She bought female clothing, shoes and makeup, and did her nails from a young age. The patient also reported that she did not “know what transgender was” until a decade ago.

The patient struggled with her identity growing up; however, she tried not to think about it or talk about it with anyone. She related that she was ashamed of her thoughts and that only recently had made peace with being transgender. Thus, she pursued talking to her medical provider about transitioning. The patient reported that she felt more energetic when taking female hormones and was better able to discuss the issue. Specifically, she noted that if she were not on estrogen now she would not be able to talk about transitioning.

The patient related that she has done extensive research about transitioning, including reading online about other transgender people. She noted that she was aware of “possible backlash with society,” but ultimately, she had decided that transitioning was the right decision for her.

She expressed a desire to have an orchiectomy and continue hormonal therapy to permit her “to have a more feminine face, soft skin, hairless body, big breasts, more fat around the hips, and a high-pitched voice.” She additionally related a desire to be in a stable relationship and be her true self. She also stated that she had not identified herself as a female to anyone yet but would like to soon. The patient reported a history of depression, especially during her military service when she wanted to be a woman but did not feel she understood what was going on or how to manage her feelings. She said that for the past 2 months she felt much happier since beginning to take estradiol 4 mg orally daily, which she had found online. She also tried to purchase anti-androgen medication but could not afford it. In addition, she said that she would like to eventually proceed with gender affirmation surgery.

She was currently having sex with men, primarily via anal receptive intercourse. She had no history of sexually transmitted infections but reported that she did not use condoms regularly. She had no history of physical or sexual abuse. The patient was offered referral to the HIV clinic to receive HIV preexposure prophylaxis therapy (emtricitabine + tenofovir), which she declined, but she was counseled on safe sex practice.

The patient was referred to psychiatry both for supportive mental health care and to clarify that her concomitant mental health issues would not preclude the prescription of gender-affirming hormone treatment. Based on the psychiatric evaluation, the patient was felt to be appropriate for treatment with feminizing hormone therapy. The psychiatric assessment also noted that although the patient had a history of psychosis, she was not exhibiting psychotic symptoms currently, and this would not be a contraindication to treatment.

After discussion of the risks and benefits of cross-sex hormone therapy, the patient was started on estradiol 4 mg orally daily, as well as spironolactone 50 mg daily. She was then switched to estradiol 10 mg intramuscular every 2 weeks with the aim of using a less thrombogenic route of administration.

Treatment Outcomes

The patient remains under care. She has had follow-up visits every 3 months to ensure appropriate signs of feminization and monitoring of adverse effects (AEs). The patient’s testosterone and estradiol levels are being checked every 3 months to ensure total testosterone is 1,2

After 12 months on therapy with estradiol and spironolactone, the patient notes that her mood has improved, she feels more energetic, she has gained some weight, and her skin is softer. Her voice pitch, with the help of speech therapy, is gradually changing to what she perceives as more feminine. Hormone levels and electrolytes are all in an acceptable range, and blood sugar and blood pressure (BP) are within normal range. The patient will be offered age-appropriate cancer screening at the appropriate time.

Discussion

The treatment of gender-nonconforming individuals has come a long way since Lili Elbe, the transgender artist depicted in The Danish Girl, underwent gender-affirmation surgery in the early 20th century. Lili and people like her paved the way for other transgender individuals by doggedly pursuing gender-affirming medical treatment although they faced rejection by society and forged a difficult path. In recent years, an increasing number of transgender individuals have begun to seek mainstream medical care; however, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients.^3,4

Terminology

Although someone’s sex is typically assigned at birth based on the external appearance of their genitalia, gender identity refers to a person’s internal sense of self and how they fit in to the world. People often use these 2 terms interchangeably in everyday language, but these terms are different.^1,2

Transgender refers to a person whose gender identity differs from the sex that was assigned at birth. A transgender man or transman, or female-to-male (FTM) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned female sex at birth but identifies as a male. A transgender woman, or transwoman or a male-to-female (MTF) transgender person, is an individual who is assigned male sex at birth but identifies as female. A nontransgender person may be referred to as cisgender.

Transsexual is a medical term and refers to a transgender individual who sought medical intervention to transition to their identified gender. 

Sexual orientation describes sexual attraction only and is not related to gender identity. The sexual orientation of a transgender person is determined by emotional and/or physical attraction and not gender identity.

Gender dysphoria refers to the distress experienced by an individual when one’s gender identity and sex are not completely congruent.

Improving Patient Interaction

Transgender patients might avoid seeking care due to previous negative experiences or a fear of being judged. It is very important to create a safe environment where the patients feel comfortable. Meeting patients “where they are” without judgment will enhance the patient-physician relationship. It is necessary to train all clinic staff about the importance of transgender health issues. All staff should address the patient with the name, pronouns, and gender identity that the patient prefers. For patients with a gender identity that is not strictly male or female (nonbinary patients), gender-neutral pronouns, such as they/them/their, may be chosen. It is helpful to be direct in asking: What is your preferred name? When I speak about you to other providers, what pronouns do you prefer I use, he, she, they? This information can then be documented in the electronic health record (EHR) so that all staff know from visit to visit. Thank the patient for the clarification.

The physical examination can be uncomfortable for both the patient and the physician. Experience and familiarity with the current recommendations can help. The physical examination should be relevant to the anatomy that is present, regardless of the gender presentation. An anatomic survey of the organs currently present in an individual can be useful.¹ The physician should be sensitive in examining and obtaining information from the patient, focusing on only those issues relevant to the presenting concern. Chest and genital examinations may be particularly distressing for patients. If a chest or genital examination is indicated, the provider and patient should have a discussion explaining the importance of the examination and how the patient’s comfort can be optimized.

Medical Treatment

Gender-affirmation treatment should be multidisciplinary and include some or all of the following: diagnostic assessment, psychotherapy or counseling, real-life experience (RLE), hormone therapy, and surgical therapy^..1,2,5 The World Professional Association for Transgender Health (WPATH) has established internationally accepted Standards of Care (SOC) for the treatment of gender dysphoria that provide detailed expert opinion reviewing the background and guidance for care of transgender individuals. Most commonly, the diagnosis of gender dysphoria is made by a mental health professional (MHP) based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM–5) criteria for gender dysphoria.^1,2 The involvement of a MHP can be crucial in assessing potential psychological and social risk factors for unfavorable outcomes of medical interventions. In case of severe psychopathology, which can interfere with diagnosis and treatment, the psychopathology should be addressed first.^1,2 The MHP also can confirm that the patient has the capacity to make an informed decision.

The 2017 Endocrine Society guidelines for the treatment of gender-dysphoric/gender-incongruent persons emphasize the utility of evaluation of these patients by an expert MHP before starting the treatment.² However, the guidelines from WPATH and the Center for Transgender Excellence at University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) have stipulated that any provider who feels comfortable assessing the informed decision-making process with a patient can make this determination.

The WPATH SOC states that RLE is essential to transition to the gender role that is congruent with the patient’s gender identity. The RLE is defined as the act of fully adopting a new or evolving gender role or gender presentation in everyday life. In the RLE, the person should fully experience life in the desired gender role before irreversible physical treatment is undertaken. Newer guidelines note that it may be too challenging to adopt the desired gender role without the benefit of feminizing or masculinizing treatment, and therefore, the treatment can be offered at the same time as adopting the new gender role.¹

Medical treatment involves administration of masculinizing or feminizing hormone therapy. There are 2 major goals of this hormonal therapy. 

For many transgender adults, genital reconstruction surgery and/or gonadectomy is a necessary step toward achieving their goal. 

Pretreatment screening and appropriate medical monitoring is recommended for both FTM and MTF transgender patients during the endocrine transition and periodically thereafter.² The physician should monitor the patient’s weight, BP, directed physical examinations, routine health questions focused on risk factors and medications, complete blood count, renal and liver functions, lipid and blood sugar.² 

Physical Changes With Hormone Therapy

Transgender men. Physical changes that are expected to occur during the first 1 to 6 months of testosterone therapy include cessation of menses, increased sexual desire, increased facial and body hair, increased oiliness of skin, increased muscle, and redistribution of fat mass. Changes that occur within the first year of testosterone therapy include deepening of the voice, clitoromegaly, and male pattern hair loss (in some cases). Deepening of the voice, and clitoromegaly are not reversible with discontinuation of hormonal therapy.²

Transgender women. Physical changes that may occur in transgender females in the first 3 to 12 months of estrogen and anti-androgen therapy include decreased sexual desire, decreased spontaneous erections, decreased facial and body hair (usually mild), decreased oiliness of skin, increased breast tissue growth, and redistribution of fat mass. Breast development is generally maximal at 2 years after initiating estrogen, and it is irreversible.² Effect on fertility may be permanent. Medical therapy has little effect on voice, and most transwomen will require speech therapy to achieve desired pitch.

Routine Health Maintenance

Breast Cancer Screening

Although there are limited data, it is thought that gender-affirming hormone therapy has similar risks as sex hormone replacement therapy in nontransgender males and females. Most AEs arise from use of supraphysiologic doses or inadequate doses.² Therefore, regular clinical and laboratory monitoring is essential to cross-sex hormone therapy. Treatment with exogenous estrogen and anti-androgens result in transgender women developing breast tissue with ducts, lobules, and acini that is histologically identical to breast tissue in nontransgender females.⁶

Breast cancer is a concern in transgender women due to prolonged exposure to estrogen. However, the relationship between breast cancer and cross-sex hormone therapy is controversial.

Many factors contribute to breast cancer risk in patients of all genders. Studies of premenopausal and menopausal women taking exogenous estrogen alone have not shown an increase in breast cancer risk. However, the combination of estrogen and progesterone has shown an association with a significant increase in the incidence of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.^2,7-10

A study of 5,136 veterans showed a statistically insignificant increased incidence of breast cancer in transgender women compared with data collected from the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database, although the sample size and duration of the observation were limiting factors.⁸ A European cohort study found decreased incidence of breast cancer in both MTF and FTM transgender patients, but these patients were an overall younger cohort with decreased risk in general. A cohort of 2,236 MTF individuals in the Netherlands in 1997 showed no increase in all-cause mortality related to hormone therapy at 30-year follow-up. Patients were exposed to exogenous estrogen from 2 months to 41 years.⁹ A follow-up of this study published in 2013, which included 2,307 MTF individuals taking estrogen for 5 years to > 30 years, revealed only 2 cases of breast cancer, which was the same incidence rate (4.1 per 100,000 person-years) as that of nontransgender women.¹⁰

In general, the incidence of breast cancer is rare in nontransgender men, and therefore there have not been a lot of clinical studies to assess risk factors and detection methods. The following risk factors can increase the risk of breast cancer in nontransgender patients: known presence of BRCA mutation, estrogen exposure/androgen insufficiency, Klinefelter syndrome, liver cirrhosis, and obesity.¹¹

Guidelines from the Endocrine Society, WPATH, and UCSF suggest that MTF transgender individuals who have a known increased risk for breast cancer should follow screening guidelines recommended for nontransgender women if they are aged > 50 years and have had more than 5 years of hormone use.² For FTM patients who have not had chest surgery, screening guidelines should follow those for nontransgender women. For those patients who have had chest reconstruction, small residual amounts of breast tissue may remain. Screening guidelines for these patients do not exist. For these patients, mammography can be technically difficult. Clinical chest wall examination, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and/or ultrasound may be helpful modalities. An individual risk vs benefit discussion with the patient is recommended.

Prostate Cancer Screening

Although the prostate gland will undergo atrophy with extended treatment with feminizing hormone therapy, there are case reports of prostate cancer in transgender women.^12,13 Usually these patients have started hormone treatment after age 50 years. Therefore, prostate cancer screening is recommended in transgender women as per general guidelines. Because the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is expected to be reduced, a PSA > 1.0 should be considered abnormal.¹

Cervical Cancer Screening

When a transgender man has a pap smear, it is essential to make it clear to the laboratory that the sample is a cervical pap smear (especially if the gender is marked as male) to avoid the sample being run incorrectly as an anal pap. Also, it is essential to indicate on the pap smear request form that the patient is on testosterone therapy and amenorrhea is present, because the lack of the female hormone can cause atrophy of cervix. This population has a high rate of inadequate specimens. Pretreatment with 1 to 2 weeks of vaginal estrogen can improve the success rate of inadequate specimens. Transgender women who have undergone vaginoplasty do not have a cervix, therefore, cervical cancer screening is not recommended. The anatomy of the neovagina has a more posterior orientation, and an anoscope is a more appropriate tool to examine the neovagina when necessary.

Hematology Health

Transgender women on cross-sex hormone therapy with estrogens may be at increased risk for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). In 2 European studies, patients treated with oral ethinyl estradiol as well as the anti-androgen cyproterone acetate were found to have up to 20 times increased risk of VTE. However, in later studies, oral ethinyl estradiol was changed to either oral conjugated estrogens or transdermal/intramuscular estradiol, and these studies did not show a significant increase in VTE risk.^14-16 Tobacco use in combination with estrogen therapy is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).¹ All transgender women who smoke should be counseled on tobacco risks and cessation options at every visit.¹ The transgender individuals who are not willing to quit smoking may be offered transdermal estrogen, which has lower risk of DVT.^14-16

Sexual Health

Clinicians should assess the risks for sexually transmitted infection (STIs) or HIV for transgender patients based on current anatomy and sexual behaviors. Presentations of STIs can be atypical due to varied sexual practices and gender-affirming surgeries. Thus, providers must remain vigilant for symptoms consistent with common STIs and screen for asymptomatic STIs on the basis of behavior history and sexual practices.¹⁷ Preexposure prophylaxis for HIV should be considered when appropriate. Serologic screening recommendations for transgender people (eg, HIV, hepatitis B and C, syphilis) do not differ in recommendations from those for nontransgender people.

Cardiovascular Health

The effect of cross-hormone treatment on cardiovascular (CV) health is still unknown. There are no randomized controlled trials that have investigated the relationship between cross-hormone treatment and CV health. Evidence from several studies suggests that CV risk is unchanged among transgender men using testosterone compared with that of nontransgender women.^18,19 There is conflicting evidence for transgender women with respect to CV risk and cross-sex hormone treatment.^1,18,19 The current American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guideline advises using the ASCVD risk calculator to determine the need for aspirin and statin treatment based on race, age, gender, and risk factors. There is no guideline on whether to use natal sex or affirmed gender while using the ASCVD calculator. It is reasonable to use the calculator based on natal sex if the cross-hormone treatment has started later in life, but if the cross-sex hormone treatment started at a young age, then one should consider using the affirmed gender to calculate the risk.

As with all patients, life style modifications, including smoking cessation, weight loss, physical activity, and management of BP and blood sugar, are important for CV health. For transgender women with CV risk factors or known CV disease, transdermal route of estrogen is preferred due to lower rates of VTE.^18,19

Conclusion

In recent years, an increased number of transgender individuals are seeking mainstream medical care. However, PCPs often lack the knowledge and training to properly interact with and care for transgender patients. It is critical that clinicians understand the difference between sex, gender, and sexuality. For patients who desire transgender care, providers must be able to comfortably ask the patient about their preferred name and prior care, know the basics in cross-sex hormone therapy, including appropriate follow-up of hormonal levels as well as laboratory tests that delineate risk, and know possible complications and AEs. The VA offers significant resources, including electronic transgender care consultation for cases where the provider does not have adequate expertise in the care of these patients.

Both medical schools and residency training programs are starting to incorporate curricula regarding LGBT care. For those who have already completed training, this article serves as a brief guide to terminology, interactive tips, and management of this growing and underserved group of individuals.

Delay in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal epidural abscess (SEA) increases the likelihood of permanent disability (eg, residual motor weakness) or even death.^1-5 Studies suggest that the incidence of SEA may be on the rise,^6,7 which is especially troubling in an era of emerging antibiotic resistance.⁸ The pervasive theme among the medical literature stresses the challenges with early recognition; however, missed SEA is a theoretical mishap in a manner akin to Schrödinger’s cat or Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.^9,10

One will recall Erwin Schrödinger’s thought experiment of 1935 when he challenged the theory of quantum mechanics by asking whether or not the cat in a box is still alive if there is a 50/50 chance poisonous gas has been released. He suggested that before one looks in the box, the cat is both alive and dead—a state of superposition.

Unfortunately, medical diagnoses do not exist in dual states. Tests are either positive or negative; disease is either present or absent; and in medicine, the cat is either alive or dead. Moreover, when SEA is diagnosed after the initial presentation and workup, (ie, the “bounce-back”), the clinician cannot categorically assume the condition was present, but missed, at the initial evaluation. We present the following case, not as a miraculous catch, or a “zebra-hunting guide” but rather as a rare glimpse into the evolution of a disease process.

Case

A 55-year-old man with history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presented to the ED with a 2-day history of progressively worsening left lower back pain. Although the patient denied a recent history of trauma, he did state that he helped one of his friends move furniture 1 day prior to presentation and had attributed the worsening pain to this event. The patient described his pain as mild and dull when he was at rest, rating it as a 2 on a pain scale of 1 to 10; and sharp-feeling and at its worst upon movement, rating it as a 9 on a pain scale of 1 to 10. The patient noted experiencing only mild relief when he shifted to certain positions.

The patient’s pain was nonradiating and associated with dull pain in the left anterior proximal thigh. The patient denied any numbness or weakness in any of his extremities. He also denied any perineal numbness or urinary or bowel incontinence; however, he did note experiencing a sense of incomplete evacuation of stools over the past 5 mornings.

The patient denied any recent history of fever, chills, numbness, weakness, difficulty with balance, direct trauma, instrumentation or chiropractic manipulation, or unexplained or unintentional weight loss. He had no history of malignancy and vehemently denied intravenous (IV) drug use.

On physical examination, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 143/93 mm Hg; heart rate, 108 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.6°F. Oxygen saturation was 95% on room air. Upon examination, the patient was in no acute distress and was resting comfortably and quietly. Pertinent findings included a supple neck examination, without lymphadenopathy or meningismus. There was no midline tenderness to palpation of the cervical spine and no step-off deformities. The lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and without wheezing, rhonchi, or rales. Examination of the heart revealed a regular rhythm with borderline tachycardia, but without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The patient had 2+ pulses in all four extremities, and capillary refill was less than 2 seconds. The abdomen was soft and nontender, without rebound, guarding, or rigidity. There were no pulsatile abdominal masses or bruits, and bowel sounds were present. The patient had no costovertebral angle tenderness on percussion, and had full range of motion of all four extremities, with no tenderness to palpation and no bony deformities.

Examination of the back revealed a positive straight leg raise on the right, but there was no midline tenderness to palpation or step-off deformity of the thoracic or lumbar spine. The patient exhibited mild left-sided upper lumbar paraspinal tenderness to palpation, but had no associated muscle spasm or overlying skin changes. On neurological assessment, the patient was alert and oriented with cranial nerves II-XII intact. He had 5/5 motor strength in all four extremities, with careful attention to hip flexion and extension, knee flexion and extension, and dorsiflexion and plantar flexion at the ankle. The sensory examination was normal, as were patella and ankle reflexes. The patient was able to ambulate with a steady gait.  

Laboratory evaluation included a complete blood count, basic metabolic profile (BMP), urinalysis, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. The urinalysis was negative for blood or signs of infection. The BMP demonstrated hyperglycemia without acidosis, but no additional electrolyte abnormalities or renal insufficiency. The patient did have leukocytosis (white blood cell [WBC], 19.8×10⁹/L) with a left shift. The ESR was within normal limits (14 mm/h), but the CRP was mildly elevated (37.33 nmol/L).

Blood cultures were ordered, and the patient was given 2,500 mg vancomycin and 2,000 mg ceftriaxone IV. Given the patient’s abnormal back examination and the presence of a leukocytosis, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study of the thoracic and lumbar spine was ordered. Radiology services reported the following findings from the MRI:

• Unremarkable thoracic spine MRI. No evidence of thoracic spine infection or significant degenerative changes.
• No evidence of infection involving the lumbar spine.
• L3-4 and L4-5 disc bulges and posterior element degenerative changes with moderate canal stenoses.
• Edema in the posterior paraspinous musculature on the left at the L3 and L4 levels.

The patient had DM with multiple systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria and was admitted to the hospital for undifferentiated sepsis, clinical uncertainty, and pain control. Within 24 hours, blood cultures were positive for gram-positive cocci, later identified as methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. However, despite treatment with antibiotics and analgesics, the patient’s back pain persisted. A repeat MRI of the lumbar spine obtained on hospital day 4 revealed the following:

At L3-4, since the comparison study, there has been development of two epidural abscesses with abnormal peripheral enhancement, one located dorsally measuring 6.8 x 8.1 x 14 mm and another located in the left lateral recess measuring 8.1 x 9.7 x 10.9 mm. The combination of the broad-based disk bulge, epidural abscesses, and hypertrophic facets resulted in severe spinal canal stenosis.

Discussion

Only a minority of patients with SEA present with the classic triad of back pain, fever, and progressive neurological findings associated with this condition.¹Careful history-taking therefore is essential to identify high-risk patients. Risk factors for SEA include diabetes, IV drug abuse, immunosuppression, chronic renal failure, liver disease, alcoholism, indwelling catheter, recent invasive spinal procedure, recent vertebral fracture, cancer, and distant site of infection.^1-3,5,7,11

Leukocytosis (WBC >10×10⁹/L) is only found in two-thirds or less of patients with SEA at the time of admission.^1,3,12 Inflammatory markers such as CRP and ESR are more sensitive but not specific to SEAs.^{1,2,5,7,11-13}

An MRI study with gadolinium is the diagnostic modality of choice over computed tomography myelography to assess for SEAs due to its noninvasive nature and ability to better delineate the extent of disease.^5,7,14 An MRI of the entire spine is recommended to delineate longitudinal and paraspinal extension as SEA can traverse multiple vertebral levels.¹⁵ While awaiting the results of blood cultures, patients should be treated with broad spectrum antibiotics that include coverage of the most common etiology of SEA, S aureus.^{1,3,4,7,11,13} While some cases of SEA may be managed medically, the emergency physician should always treat SEA as a neurosurgical emergency and obtain consultation with the appropriate services (eg, neurosurgery, infectious disease, neurology radiology).^1,5

Our patient represents an unusual case of SEAs in that he presented with S aureus bacteremia while afebrile, along with back pain and tachycardia. He subsequently developed SEA, which was recognized only through serial MRI studies. The patient’s tachycardia alone could have been easily attributed to pain and anxiety associated with the ED environment. As such, he could have easily been discharged home with a prescription [for] nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and/or muscle relaxers for pain management—though it is likely that he would have returned to the ED 3 days later with persistent and even worsening symptoms, during which he would have undergone additional testing, possibly MRI, which would have revealed the missed SEA.

Our case clearly demonstrates that no SEA was present at the time of the patient’s visit. Thus, the proverbial “missed SEA” may not have been overlooked but rather had not yet developed.

Studies show that half of all patients with SEAs are not diagnosed until after two or more visits to the ED.^1,11 The literature posits that most cases are misdiagnosed at the time of initial evaluation. It has even been postulated that “misdiagnosis of spinal epidural abscess is the rule rather than the exception.”¹ Although our patient was eventually diagnosed with a SEA, it was not present on the first MRI taken during the initial evaluation.

Summary

Unlike the rules of quantum mechanics and the paradox of Schrödinger’s cat, SEA follows a progression of disease.^3,7,16 There is no superposition—the MRI is either positive or negative. However, excellent care requires the practitioner to know the risk factors of SEA, apply the appropriate screening tests, obtain MRI when necessary, and if diagnostic uncertainty remains, discuss with the patient or family signs and symptoms to monitor as well as reasons to return for re-evaluation.

Delay in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal epidural abscess (SEA) increases the likelihood of permanent disability (eg, residual motor weakness) or even death.^1-5 Studies suggest that the incidence of SEA may be on the rise,^6,7 which is especially troubling in an era of emerging antibiotic resistance.⁸ The pervasive theme among the medical literature stresses the challenges with early recognition; however, missed SEA is a theoretical mishap in a manner akin to Schrödinger’s cat or Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.^9,10

One will recall Erwin Schrödinger’s thought experiment of 1935 when he challenged the theory of quantum mechanics by asking whether or not the cat in a box is still alive if there is a 50/50 chance poisonous gas has been released. He suggested that before one looks in the box, the cat is both alive and dead—a state of superposition.

Unfortunately, medical diagnoses do not exist in dual states. Tests are either positive or negative; disease is either present or absent; and in medicine, the cat is either alive or dead. Moreover, when SEA is diagnosed after the initial presentation and workup, (ie, the “bounce-back”), the clinician cannot categorically assume the condition was present, but missed, at the initial evaluation. We present the following case, not as a miraculous catch, or a “zebra-hunting guide” but rather as a rare glimpse into the evolution of a disease process.

Case

A 55-year-old man with history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presented to the ED with a 2-day history of progressively worsening left lower back pain. Although the patient denied a recent history of trauma, he did state that he helped one of his friends move furniture 1 day prior to presentation and had attributed the worsening pain to this event. The patient described his pain as mild and dull when he was at rest, rating it as a 2 on a pain scale of 1 to 10; and sharp-feeling and at its worst upon movement, rating it as a 9 on a pain scale of 1 to 10. The patient noted experiencing only mild relief when he shifted to certain positions.

The patient’s pain was nonradiating and associated with dull pain in the left anterior proximal thigh. The patient denied any numbness or weakness in any of his extremities. He also denied any perineal numbness or urinary or bowel incontinence; however, he did note experiencing a sense of incomplete evacuation of stools over the past 5 mornings.

The patient denied any recent history of fever, chills, numbness, weakness, difficulty with balance, direct trauma, instrumentation or chiropractic manipulation, or unexplained or unintentional weight loss. He had no history of malignancy and vehemently denied intravenous (IV) drug use.

On physical examination, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 143/93 mm Hg; heart rate, 108 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.6°F. Oxygen saturation was 95% on room air. Upon examination, the patient was in no acute distress and was resting comfortably and quietly. Pertinent findings included a supple neck examination, without lymphadenopathy or meningismus. There was no midline tenderness to palpation of the cervical spine and no step-off deformities. The lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and without wheezing, rhonchi, or rales. Examination of the heart revealed a regular rhythm with borderline tachycardia, but without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The patient had 2+ pulses in all four extremities, and capillary refill was less than 2 seconds. The abdomen was soft and nontender, without rebound, guarding, or rigidity. There were no pulsatile abdominal masses or bruits, and bowel sounds were present. The patient had no costovertebral angle tenderness on percussion, and had full range of motion of all four extremities, with no tenderness to palpation and no bony deformities.

Examination of the back revealed a positive straight leg raise on the right, but there was no midline tenderness to palpation or step-off deformity of the thoracic or lumbar spine. The patient exhibited mild left-sided upper lumbar paraspinal tenderness to palpation, but had no associated muscle spasm or overlying skin changes. On neurological assessment, the patient was alert and oriented with cranial nerves II-XII intact. He had 5/5 motor strength in all four extremities, with careful attention to hip flexion and extension, knee flexion and extension, and dorsiflexion and plantar flexion at the ankle. The sensory examination was normal, as were patella and ankle reflexes. The patient was able to ambulate with a steady gait.  

Laboratory evaluation included a complete blood count, basic metabolic profile (BMP), urinalysis, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. The urinalysis was negative for blood or signs of infection. The BMP demonstrated hyperglycemia without acidosis, but no additional electrolyte abnormalities or renal insufficiency. The patient did have leukocytosis (white blood cell [WBC], 19.8×10⁹/L) with a left shift. The ESR was within normal limits (14 mm/h), but the CRP was mildly elevated (37.33 nmol/L).

Blood cultures were ordered, and the patient was given 2,500 mg vancomycin and 2,000 mg ceftriaxone IV. Given the patient’s abnormal back examination and the presence of a leukocytosis, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study of the thoracic and lumbar spine was ordered. Radiology services reported the following findings from the MRI:

• Unremarkable thoracic spine MRI. No evidence of thoracic spine infection or significant degenerative changes.
• No evidence of infection involving the lumbar spine.
• L3-4 and L4-5 disc bulges and posterior element degenerative changes with moderate canal stenoses.
• Edema in the posterior paraspinous musculature on the left at the L3 and L4 levels.

The patient had DM with multiple systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria and was admitted to the hospital for undifferentiated sepsis, clinical uncertainty, and pain control. Within 24 hours, blood cultures were positive for gram-positive cocci, later identified as methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. However, despite treatment with antibiotics and analgesics, the patient’s back pain persisted. A repeat MRI of the lumbar spine obtained on hospital day 4 revealed the following:

At L3-4, since the comparison study, there has been development of two epidural abscesses with abnormal peripheral enhancement, one located dorsally measuring 6.8 x 8.1 x 14 mm and another located in the left lateral recess measuring 8.1 x 9.7 x 10.9 mm. The combination of the broad-based disk bulge, epidural abscesses, and hypertrophic facets resulted in severe spinal canal stenosis.

Discussion

Only a minority of patients with SEA present with the classic triad of back pain, fever, and progressive neurological findings associated with this condition.¹Careful history-taking therefore is essential to identify high-risk patients. Risk factors for SEA include diabetes, IV drug abuse, immunosuppression, chronic renal failure, liver disease, alcoholism, indwelling catheter, recent invasive spinal procedure, recent vertebral fracture, cancer, and distant site of infection.^1-3,5,7,11

Leukocytosis (WBC >10×10⁹/L) is only found in two-thirds or less of patients with SEA at the time of admission.^1,3,12 Inflammatory markers such as CRP and ESR are more sensitive but not specific to SEAs.^{1,2,5,7,11-13}

An MRI study with gadolinium is the diagnostic modality of choice over computed tomography myelography to assess for SEAs due to its noninvasive nature and ability to better delineate the extent of disease.^5,7,14 An MRI of the entire spine is recommended to delineate longitudinal and paraspinal extension as SEA can traverse multiple vertebral levels.¹⁵ While awaiting the results of blood cultures, patients should be treated with broad spectrum antibiotics that include coverage of the most common etiology of SEA, S aureus.^{1,3,4,7,11,13} While some cases of SEA may be managed medically, the emergency physician should always treat SEA as a neurosurgical emergency and obtain consultation with the appropriate services (eg, neurosurgery, infectious disease, neurology radiology).^1,5

Our patient represents an unusual case of SEAs in that he presented with S aureus bacteremia while afebrile, along with back pain and tachycardia. He subsequently developed SEA, which was recognized only through serial MRI studies. The patient’s tachycardia alone could have been easily attributed to pain and anxiety associated with the ED environment. As such, he could have easily been discharged home with a prescription [for] nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and/or muscle relaxers for pain management—though it is likely that he would have returned to the ED 3 days later with persistent and even worsening symptoms, during which he would have undergone additional testing, possibly MRI, which would have revealed the missed SEA.

Our case clearly demonstrates that no SEA was present at the time of the patient’s visit. Thus, the proverbial “missed SEA” may not have been overlooked but rather had not yet developed.

Studies show that half of all patients with SEAs are not diagnosed until after two or more visits to the ED.^1,11 The literature posits that most cases are misdiagnosed at the time of initial evaluation. It has even been postulated that “misdiagnosis of spinal epidural abscess is the rule rather than the exception.”¹ Although our patient was eventually diagnosed with a SEA, it was not present on the first MRI taken during the initial evaluation.

Summary

Unlike the rules of quantum mechanics and the paradox of Schrödinger’s cat, SEA follows a progression of disease.^3,7,16 There is no superposition—the MRI is either positive or negative. However, excellent care requires the practitioner to know the risk factors of SEA, apply the appropriate screening tests, obtain MRI when necessary, and if diagnostic uncertainty remains, discuss with the patient or family signs and symptoms to monitor as well as reasons to return for re-evaluation.

Delay in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal epidural abscess (SEA) increases the likelihood of permanent disability (eg, residual motor weakness) or even death.^1-5 Studies suggest that the incidence of SEA may be on the rise,^6,7 which is especially troubling in an era of emerging antibiotic resistance.⁸ The pervasive theme among the medical literature stresses the challenges with early recognition; however, missed SEA is a theoretical mishap in a manner akin to Schrödinger’s cat or Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.^9,10

One will recall Erwin Schrödinger’s thought experiment of 1935 when he challenged the theory of quantum mechanics by asking whether or not the cat in a box is still alive if there is a 50/50 chance poisonous gas has been released. He suggested that before one looks in the box, the cat is both alive and dead—a state of superposition.

Unfortunately, medical diagnoses do not exist in dual states. Tests are either positive or negative; disease is either present or absent; and in medicine, the cat is either alive or dead. Moreover, when SEA is diagnosed after the initial presentation and workup, (ie, the “bounce-back”), the clinician cannot categorically assume the condition was present, but missed, at the initial evaluation. We present the following case, not as a miraculous catch, or a “zebra-hunting guide” but rather as a rare glimpse into the evolution of a disease process.

Case

A 55-year-old man with history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presented to the ED with a 2-day history of progressively worsening left lower back pain. Although the patient denied a recent history of trauma, he did state that he helped one of his friends move furniture 1 day prior to presentation and had attributed the worsening pain to this event. The patient described his pain as mild and dull when he was at rest, rating it as a 2 on a pain scale of 1 to 10; and sharp-feeling and at its worst upon movement, rating it as a 9 on a pain scale of 1 to 10. The patient noted experiencing only mild relief when he shifted to certain positions.

The patient’s pain was nonradiating and associated with dull pain in the left anterior proximal thigh. The patient denied any numbness or weakness in any of his extremities. He also denied any perineal numbness or urinary or bowel incontinence; however, he did note experiencing a sense of incomplete evacuation of stools over the past 5 mornings.

The patient denied any recent history of fever, chills, numbness, weakness, difficulty with balance, direct trauma, instrumentation or chiropractic manipulation, or unexplained or unintentional weight loss. He had no history of malignancy and vehemently denied intravenous (IV) drug use.

On physical examination, the patient’s vital signs were: blood pressure, 143/93 mm Hg; heart rate, 108 beats/min; respiratory rate, 16 breaths/min; and temperature, 97.6°F. Oxygen saturation was 95% on room air. Upon examination, the patient was in no acute distress and was resting comfortably and quietly. Pertinent findings included a supple neck examination, without lymphadenopathy or meningismus. There was no midline tenderness to palpation of the cervical spine and no step-off deformities. The lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally and without wheezing, rhonchi, or rales. Examination of the heart revealed a regular rhythm with borderline tachycardia, but without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The patient had 2+ pulses in all four extremities, and capillary refill was less than 2 seconds. The abdomen was soft and nontender, without rebound, guarding, or rigidity. There were no pulsatile abdominal masses or bruits, and bowel sounds were present. The patient had no costovertebral angle tenderness on percussion, and had full range of motion of all four extremities, with no tenderness to palpation and no bony deformities.

Examination of the back revealed a positive straight leg raise on the right, but there was no midline tenderness to palpation or step-off deformity of the thoracic or lumbar spine. The patient exhibited mild left-sided upper lumbar paraspinal tenderness to palpation, but had no associated muscle spasm or overlying skin changes. On neurological assessment, the patient was alert and oriented with cranial nerves II-XII intact. He had 5/5 motor strength in all four extremities, with careful attention to hip flexion and extension, knee flexion and extension, and dorsiflexion and plantar flexion at the ankle. The sensory examination was normal, as were patella and ankle reflexes. The patient was able to ambulate with a steady gait.  

Laboratory evaluation included a complete blood count, basic metabolic profile (BMP), urinalysis, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. The urinalysis was negative for blood or signs of infection. The BMP demonstrated hyperglycemia without acidosis, but no additional electrolyte abnormalities or renal insufficiency. The patient did have leukocytosis (white blood cell [WBC], 19.8×10⁹/L) with a left shift. The ESR was within normal limits (14 mm/h), but the CRP was mildly elevated (37.33 nmol/L).

Blood cultures were ordered, and the patient was given 2,500 mg vancomycin and 2,000 mg ceftriaxone IV. Given the patient’s abnormal back examination and the presence of a leukocytosis, a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study of the thoracic and lumbar spine was ordered. Radiology services reported the following findings from the MRI:

• Unremarkable thoracic spine MRI. No evidence of thoracic spine infection or significant degenerative changes.
• No evidence of infection involving the lumbar spine.
• L3-4 and L4-5 disc bulges and posterior element degenerative changes with moderate canal stenoses.
• Edema in the posterior paraspinous musculature on the left at the L3 and L4 levels.

The patient had DM with multiple systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria and was admitted to the hospital for undifferentiated sepsis, clinical uncertainty, and pain control. Within 24 hours, blood cultures were positive for gram-positive cocci, later identified as methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. However, despite treatment with antibiotics and analgesics, the patient’s back pain persisted. A repeat MRI of the lumbar spine obtained on hospital day 4 revealed the following:

At L3-4, since the comparison study, there has been development of two epidural abscesses with abnormal peripheral enhancement, one located dorsally measuring 6.8 x 8.1 x 14 mm and another located in the left lateral recess measuring 8.1 x 9.7 x 10.9 mm. The combination of the broad-based disk bulge, epidural abscesses, and hypertrophic facets resulted in severe spinal canal stenosis.

Discussion

Only a minority of patients with SEA present with the classic triad of back pain, fever, and progressive neurological findings associated with this condition.¹Careful history-taking therefore is essential to identify high-risk patients. Risk factors for SEA include diabetes, IV drug abuse, immunosuppression, chronic renal failure, liver disease, alcoholism, indwelling catheter, recent invasive spinal procedure, recent vertebral fracture, cancer, and distant site of infection.^1-3,5,7,11

Leukocytosis (WBC >10×10⁹/L) is only found in two-thirds or less of patients with SEA at the time of admission.^1,3,12 Inflammatory markers such as CRP and ESR are more sensitive but not specific to SEAs.^{1,2,5,7,11-13}

An MRI study with gadolinium is the diagnostic modality of choice over computed tomography myelography to assess for SEAs due to its noninvasive nature and ability to better delineate the extent of disease.^5,7,14 An MRI of the entire spine is recommended to delineate longitudinal and paraspinal extension as SEA can traverse multiple vertebral levels.¹⁵ While awaiting the results of blood cultures, patients should be treated with broad spectrum antibiotics that include coverage of the most common etiology of SEA, S aureus.^{1,3,4,7,11,13} While some cases of SEA may be managed medically, the emergency physician should always treat SEA as a neurosurgical emergency and obtain consultation with the appropriate services (eg, neurosurgery, infectious disease, neurology radiology).^1,5

Our patient represents an unusual case of SEAs in that he presented with S aureus bacteremia while afebrile, along with back pain and tachycardia. He subsequently developed SEA, which was recognized only through serial MRI studies. The patient’s tachycardia alone could have been easily attributed to pain and anxiety associated with the ED environment. As such, he could have easily been discharged home with a prescription [for] nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and/or muscle relaxers for pain management—though it is likely that he would have returned to the ED 3 days later with persistent and even worsening symptoms, during which he would have undergone additional testing, possibly MRI, which would have revealed the missed SEA.

Our case clearly demonstrates that no SEA was present at the time of the patient’s visit. Thus, the proverbial “missed SEA” may not have been overlooked but rather had not yet developed.

Studies show that half of all patients with SEAs are not diagnosed until after two or more visits to the ED.^1,11 The literature posits that most cases are misdiagnosed at the time of initial evaluation. It has even been postulated that “misdiagnosis of spinal epidural abscess is the rule rather than the exception.”¹ Although our patient was eventually diagnosed with a SEA, it was not present on the first MRI taken during the initial evaluation.

Summary

Unlike the rules of quantum mechanics and the paradox of Schrödinger’s cat, SEA follows a progression of disease.^3,7,16 There is no superposition—the MRI is either positive or negative. However, excellent care requires the practitioner to know the risk factors of SEA, apply the appropriate screening tests, obtain MRI when necessary, and if diagnostic uncertainty remains, discuss with the patient or family signs and symptoms to monitor as well as reasons to return for re-evaluation.

ABSTRACT

Antegrade reamed intramedullary nailing has the advantages of high fracture union and early weight-bearing, making it the gold standard for fixation of diaphyseal femur fractures. However, knowledge of distal femoral anatomy may mitigate the risk of secondary complications.

We present a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing in which a 23-year-old man sustained iatrogenic rupture of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) caused by the distal interlocking screw of the femoral nail. The patient had a history of antegrade intramedullary nailing that was revised for rotational malalignment, after which he began experiencing recurrent episodes of atraumatic bloody joint effusion and swelling of the right knee with associated patellar instability. Plain radiographs and magnetic resonance imaging revealed a large effusion with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL. The patient underwent a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability, and was able to return to his activities.

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

Continue to: Reamed intramedullary nails...

Reamed intramedullary nails are the gold standard for fixation of femoral diaphyseal fractures.¹ Antegrade or retrograde nails are effective options, with the choice of technique based on factors including surgeon preference, patient factors, and concomitant injuries.² Interlocking screws are generally placed to allow control of both rotation and length.¹ Advantages of intramedullary treatment of femoral diaphyseal fractures compared with plate fixation include low rates of infection, lower nonunion rate, and faster patient mobilization and weight-bearing.³

Complications of antegrade intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures include infection, nonunion, malunion, anterior cortical perforation, heterotopic ossification, abductor weakness, and soft tissue irritation from interlocking screws.^2-4 Femoral intramedullary nails are not routinely removed because the hardware is rarely symptomatic and removing the nail involves additional surgical morbidity with the potential for complications.⁵ Interlocking screws are removed in select cases due to soft tissue irritation, generally after fracture union. Although hardware removal may help in select cases, removal of intramedullary nails is associated with low rates of symptom resolution.^6-8

We present a case of iatrogenic medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) disruption by the distal interlocking screw leading to patellar instability, a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing for femoral diaphyseal fractures. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

We present a case of a 23-year-old man whose status was 2 years post antegrade reamed femoral intramedullary nailing at an outside institution for a right diaphyseal femur fracture. This issue was revised for external rotational malalignment, and he presented with right anterior knee pain, recurrent patellar subluxation, and recurrent effusions. The extent of external rotational malalignment and subsequent rotational correction were not evident from the available outside institution records. These symptoms began after his femoral nail revision for malalignment, and he had no subsequent trauma. The femoral fracture healed uneventfully. The patient denied any history of knee pain, swelling, or patellar instability before his femoral nail revision for malalignment. These episodes of effusion, instability, and pain occurred several times per year, generally with activities of daily living (ADL). On one occasion, he presented to a local emergency room where knee aspiration revealed no evidence of crystals or infection. The patient was referred to the senior author (Dr. Nho) for consultation.

Physical examination revealed right knee full extension with flexion to 80°. A moderate right knee effusion was present. The patient was tender over the medial femoral epicondyle and the superomedial aspect of the patella without joint line tenderness. Lateral patellar instability was present with 2 quadrants of translation (compared with 1 on the contralateral side) and patellar apprehension. The patient’s knee was ligamentously stable, and meniscal signs were absent. His lower extremity rotational profile was symmetric to the contralateral uninjured side.

Right femur and knee X-rays showed an antegrade intramedullary nail with a well-healed diaphyseal fracture and a single distal interlocking screw oriented from posterolateral to anteromedial (Figures 1A-1G). The screw tip was prominent on sunrise X-ray view anterior to the medial femoral epicondyle (Figure 1C). Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a large effusion and lateral patellar subluxation with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL near the femoral attachment (Figure 2). Patellar height, trochlear morphology, and tibial tubercle-trochlear groove distance were assessed and found to be normal.

Continue to: The patient elected...

The patient elected to have a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Diagnostic arthroscopy revealed the distal interlocking screw to be intra-articular medially, prominent by 3 mm causing attritional disruption of the mid-substance MPFL (Figure 3A). The patella was noted to be subluxated and tracking laterally (Figure 3B). Both the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament were intact, and menisci and articular cartilage were normal. The distal interlocking screw was removed under fluoroscopic guidance through a small lateral incision (Figure 3C).

Due to the nature of the longstanding attritional disruption of the MPFL in this case with associated patellar instability over a 2-year period, the decision was made to proceed with formal MPFL reconstruction as opposed to repair. A 2-cm incision was made at the medial aspect of the patella. The proximal half of the patella was decorticated. Guide pins were placed within the proximal half of the patella, ensuring at least a 1-cm bone bridge between them, and two 4.75-mm SwiveLock suture anchors (Arthrex) were inserted. A semitendinosus graft was used for MPFL reconstruction with the 2 ends of the graft secured to 2 suture anchors with a whipstitch. Lateral fluoroscopy was used to identify Schöttle’s point, denoting the femoral origin of the MPFL⁹ (Figure 3D). A 2-cm incision was made at this location. A guide pin was then placed at Schöttle’s point under fluoroscopic guidance, aimed proximally, and the knee was brought through a range of motion (ROM), to verify graft isometry. Once verified, the guide pin was over-reamed to 8 mm. The layer between the retinaculum and the capsule was carefully dissected, and the graft was passed extra-articularly in the plane between the retinaculum and the capsule, out through the medial incision, and docked into the bone tunnel. An 8-mm BioComposite interference screw (Arthrex) was then placed with the knee flexed to 30°. The knee was then passed through a ROM and an arthroscopic evaluation confirmed that the patella was no longer subluxated laterally. There was normal tracking of the patellofemoral joint on arthroscopic evaluation.

Postoperatively, the patient was maintained in a hinged knee brace for 6 weeks. He was weight-bearing as tolerated when locked in full extension beginning immediately postoperatively, and allowed to unlock the brace to start non-weight-bearing active flexion and extension with therapy on postoperative day 1. Radiographs confirmed removal of the distal interlocking screw (Figures 4A, 4B). Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability at 1-year postoperative, and was able to return to his ADL and recreational sporting activities (Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score [KOOS] ADL, 100; KOOS sporting and recreational activities, 95; quality of life, 100; Marx Activity Rating Scale, 12).

DISCUSSION

The MPFL connects the superomedial edge of the patella to the medial femur and is injured in nearly 100% of patellar dislocations.⁶ The femoral origin lies between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle.⁷ The MPFL prevents lateral subluxation of the patella and acts as the major restraint during the first 20° of knee flexion. Although radiographic parameters for identifying the MPFL femoral origin have been defined by both Schöttle and colleagues⁹ and Stephen and colleagues¹⁰, it is important to check the isometry intraoperatively through a ROM when performing MPFL reconstruction. In this case, the patient’s history and physical examination showed patellar instability, which was determined to be iatrogenically related to the distal interlocking screw rupture of the MPFL. Following screw removal and MPFL reconstruction, the patient had no further symptoms of pain, effusion, or patellar instability and returned to his normal activities.

Femoral malrotation following intramedullary nailing of femoral shaft fractures is a common complication,⁴ with a 22% incidence of malrotation of at least 15° in 1 series from an academic trauma center.¹¹ There are mixed data as to whether malrotation is more common in complex fracture patterns, in cases performed during night hours, and in cases performed by non-trauma fellowship-trained surgeons.^11-13 The natural history of malrotation is not well elucidated, but there is some suggestion that it alters load bearing in the distal joints of the involved leg including the patellofemoral joint. Patients also may not tolerate malrotation due to the abnormal foot progression angle, particularly with malrotation >15°.⁴ In this case, the patient’s initial femoral nail was placed in an externally rotated position, requiring revision. The result of this was an unusual trajectory of the distal interlocking screw from posterolateral to anteromedial. Combined with the prominent screw tip, the trajectory of this distal interlocking screw likely contributed to the injury to the MPFL observed in this case. This trajectory would also pose potential risk to the common peroneal nerve, which is usually situated posterior to the insertion point for distal femoral interlocking screws. The prominent distal interlock screw is a well-recognized problem with femoral intramedullary nails. This issue results from the tapering of the width of the distal femur from being larger posteriorly to being smaller anteriorly. To avoid placement of a prominent distal interlocking screw, surgeons often will obtain an intraoperative anterior-posterior radiograph with the lower extremity in 30° of internal rotation to account for the angle of the medial aspect of the distal femur.

This practice represents, to our knowledge, a previously unreported cause of patellar instability as well as an unreported complication of antegrade femoral intramedullary nailing. Surgeons treating these conditions should consider this potential complication and pursue advanced imaging if patients present with these complaints after femoral intramedullary nail placement. Knowledge of both MPFL origin and insertional anatomy and avoidance of prominent distal interlocking screws in the region of the MPFL, if possible, would likely prevent this complication.

Limitations of this study include the case report design, which makes it impossible to comment on the incidence of this complication or to make comparisons regarding treatment options. There is, of course, the possibility that the patient had a concurrent MPFL injury from the injury in which he sustained the femur fracture. Nevertheless, the clinical history, examination, imaging, and arthroscopic findings all strongly suggest that the prominent distal interlocking screw was the cause of his MPFL injury and patellar instability. Finally, the point widely defined by Schöttle and colleagues¹² was used for MPFL reconstruction in this case based on an intraoperative true lateral radiograph of the distal femur. It should be noted that recent literature has debated the accuracy of this method for determining the femoral origin, the anatomy of the MPFL in relation to the quadriceps, and type of fixation for MPFL reconstruction with some advocating soft tissue only fixation.^14-17 For purposes of this case report, we focused on a different cause of MPFL disruption in this patient and our technique for MPFL reconstruction.

CONCLUSION

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

Antegrade reamed intramedullary nailing has the advantages of high fracture union and early weight-bearing, making it the gold standard for fixation of diaphyseal femur fractures. However, knowledge of distal femoral anatomy may mitigate the risk of secondary complications.

We present a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing in which a 23-year-old man sustained iatrogenic rupture of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) caused by the distal interlocking screw of the femoral nail. The patient had a history of antegrade intramedullary nailing that was revised for rotational malalignment, after which he began experiencing recurrent episodes of atraumatic bloody joint effusion and swelling of the right knee with associated patellar instability. Plain radiographs and magnetic resonance imaging revealed a large effusion with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL. The patient underwent a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability, and was able to return to his activities.

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

Continue to: Reamed intramedullary nails...

Reamed intramedullary nails are the gold standard for fixation of femoral diaphyseal fractures.¹ Antegrade or retrograde nails are effective options, with the choice of technique based on factors including surgeon preference, patient factors, and concomitant injuries.² Interlocking screws are generally placed to allow control of both rotation and length.¹ Advantages of intramedullary treatment of femoral diaphyseal fractures compared with plate fixation include low rates of infection, lower nonunion rate, and faster patient mobilization and weight-bearing.³

Complications of antegrade intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures include infection, nonunion, malunion, anterior cortical perforation, heterotopic ossification, abductor weakness, and soft tissue irritation from interlocking screws.^2-4 Femoral intramedullary nails are not routinely removed because the hardware is rarely symptomatic and removing the nail involves additional surgical morbidity with the potential for complications.⁵ Interlocking screws are removed in select cases due to soft tissue irritation, generally after fracture union. Although hardware removal may help in select cases, removal of intramedullary nails is associated with low rates of symptom resolution.^6-8

We present a case of iatrogenic medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) disruption by the distal interlocking screw leading to patellar instability, a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing for femoral diaphyseal fractures. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

We present a case of a 23-year-old man whose status was 2 years post antegrade reamed femoral intramedullary nailing at an outside institution for a right diaphyseal femur fracture. This issue was revised for external rotational malalignment, and he presented with right anterior knee pain, recurrent patellar subluxation, and recurrent effusions. The extent of external rotational malalignment and subsequent rotational correction were not evident from the available outside institution records. These symptoms began after his femoral nail revision for malalignment, and he had no subsequent trauma. The femoral fracture healed uneventfully. The patient denied any history of knee pain, swelling, or patellar instability before his femoral nail revision for malalignment. These episodes of effusion, instability, and pain occurred several times per year, generally with activities of daily living (ADL). On one occasion, he presented to a local emergency room where knee aspiration revealed no evidence of crystals or infection. The patient was referred to the senior author (Dr. Nho) for consultation.

Physical examination revealed right knee full extension with flexion to 80°. A moderate right knee effusion was present. The patient was tender over the medial femoral epicondyle and the superomedial aspect of the patella without joint line tenderness. Lateral patellar instability was present with 2 quadrants of translation (compared with 1 on the contralateral side) and patellar apprehension. The patient’s knee was ligamentously stable, and meniscal signs were absent. His lower extremity rotational profile was symmetric to the contralateral uninjured side.

Right femur and knee X-rays showed an antegrade intramedullary nail with a well-healed diaphyseal fracture and a single distal interlocking screw oriented from posterolateral to anteromedial (Figures 1A-1G). The screw tip was prominent on sunrise X-ray view anterior to the medial femoral epicondyle (Figure 1C). Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a large effusion and lateral patellar subluxation with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL near the femoral attachment (Figure 2). Patellar height, trochlear morphology, and tibial tubercle-trochlear groove distance were assessed and found to be normal.

Continue to: The patient elected...

The patient elected to have a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Diagnostic arthroscopy revealed the distal interlocking screw to be intra-articular medially, prominent by 3 mm causing attritional disruption of the mid-substance MPFL (Figure 3A). The patella was noted to be subluxated and tracking laterally (Figure 3B). Both the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament were intact, and menisci and articular cartilage were normal. The distal interlocking screw was removed under fluoroscopic guidance through a small lateral incision (Figure 3C).

Due to the nature of the longstanding attritional disruption of the MPFL in this case with associated patellar instability over a 2-year period, the decision was made to proceed with formal MPFL reconstruction as opposed to repair. A 2-cm incision was made at the medial aspect of the patella. The proximal half of the patella was decorticated. Guide pins were placed within the proximal half of the patella, ensuring at least a 1-cm bone bridge between them, and two 4.75-mm SwiveLock suture anchors (Arthrex) were inserted. A semitendinosus graft was used for MPFL reconstruction with the 2 ends of the graft secured to 2 suture anchors with a whipstitch. Lateral fluoroscopy was used to identify Schöttle’s point, denoting the femoral origin of the MPFL⁹ (Figure 3D). A 2-cm incision was made at this location. A guide pin was then placed at Schöttle’s point under fluoroscopic guidance, aimed proximally, and the knee was brought through a range of motion (ROM), to verify graft isometry. Once verified, the guide pin was over-reamed to 8 mm. The layer between the retinaculum and the capsule was carefully dissected, and the graft was passed extra-articularly in the plane between the retinaculum and the capsule, out through the medial incision, and docked into the bone tunnel. An 8-mm BioComposite interference screw (Arthrex) was then placed with the knee flexed to 30°. The knee was then passed through a ROM and an arthroscopic evaluation confirmed that the patella was no longer subluxated laterally. There was normal tracking of the patellofemoral joint on arthroscopic evaluation.

Postoperatively, the patient was maintained in a hinged knee brace for 6 weeks. He was weight-bearing as tolerated when locked in full extension beginning immediately postoperatively, and allowed to unlock the brace to start non-weight-bearing active flexion and extension with therapy on postoperative day 1. Radiographs confirmed removal of the distal interlocking screw (Figures 4A, 4B). Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability at 1-year postoperative, and was able to return to his ADL and recreational sporting activities (Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score [KOOS] ADL, 100; KOOS sporting and recreational activities, 95; quality of life, 100; Marx Activity Rating Scale, 12).

DISCUSSION

The MPFL connects the superomedial edge of the patella to the medial femur and is injured in nearly 100% of patellar dislocations.⁶ The femoral origin lies between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle.⁷ The MPFL prevents lateral subluxation of the patella and acts as the major restraint during the first 20° of knee flexion. Although radiographic parameters for identifying the MPFL femoral origin have been defined by both Schöttle and colleagues⁹ and Stephen and colleagues¹⁰, it is important to check the isometry intraoperatively through a ROM when performing MPFL reconstruction. In this case, the patient’s history and physical examination showed patellar instability, which was determined to be iatrogenically related to the distal interlocking screw rupture of the MPFL. Following screw removal and MPFL reconstruction, the patient had no further symptoms of pain, effusion, or patellar instability and returned to his normal activities.

Femoral malrotation following intramedullary nailing of femoral shaft fractures is a common complication,⁴ with a 22% incidence of malrotation of at least 15° in 1 series from an academic trauma center.¹¹ There are mixed data as to whether malrotation is more common in complex fracture patterns, in cases performed during night hours, and in cases performed by non-trauma fellowship-trained surgeons.^11-13 The natural history of malrotation is not well elucidated, but there is some suggestion that it alters load bearing in the distal joints of the involved leg including the patellofemoral joint. Patients also may not tolerate malrotation due to the abnormal foot progression angle, particularly with malrotation >15°.⁴ In this case, the patient’s initial femoral nail was placed in an externally rotated position, requiring revision. The result of this was an unusual trajectory of the distal interlocking screw from posterolateral to anteromedial. Combined with the prominent screw tip, the trajectory of this distal interlocking screw likely contributed to the injury to the MPFL observed in this case. This trajectory would also pose potential risk to the common peroneal nerve, which is usually situated posterior to the insertion point for distal femoral interlocking screws. The prominent distal interlock screw is a well-recognized problem with femoral intramedullary nails. This issue results from the tapering of the width of the distal femur from being larger posteriorly to being smaller anteriorly. To avoid placement of a prominent distal interlocking screw, surgeons often will obtain an intraoperative anterior-posterior radiograph with the lower extremity in 30° of internal rotation to account for the angle of the medial aspect of the distal femur.

This practice represents, to our knowledge, a previously unreported cause of patellar instability as well as an unreported complication of antegrade femoral intramedullary nailing. Surgeons treating these conditions should consider this potential complication and pursue advanced imaging if patients present with these complaints after femoral intramedullary nail placement. Knowledge of both MPFL origin and insertional anatomy and avoidance of prominent distal interlocking screws in the region of the MPFL, if possible, would likely prevent this complication.

Limitations of this study include the case report design, which makes it impossible to comment on the incidence of this complication or to make comparisons regarding treatment options. There is, of course, the possibility that the patient had a concurrent MPFL injury from the injury in which he sustained the femur fracture. Nevertheless, the clinical history, examination, imaging, and arthroscopic findings all strongly suggest that the prominent distal interlocking screw was the cause of his MPFL injury and patellar instability. Finally, the point widely defined by Schöttle and colleagues¹² was used for MPFL reconstruction in this case based on an intraoperative true lateral radiograph of the distal femur. It should be noted that recent literature has debated the accuracy of this method for determining the femoral origin, the anatomy of the MPFL in relation to the quadriceps, and type of fixation for MPFL reconstruction with some advocating soft tissue only fixation.^14-17 For purposes of this case report, we focused on a different cause of MPFL disruption in this patient and our technique for MPFL reconstruction.

CONCLUSION

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.

ABSTRACT

Antegrade reamed intramedullary nailing has the advantages of high fracture union and early weight-bearing, making it the gold standard for fixation of diaphyseal femur fractures. However, knowledge of distal femoral anatomy may mitigate the risk of secondary complications.

We present a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing in which a 23-year-old man sustained iatrogenic rupture of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) caused by the distal interlocking screw of the femoral nail. The patient had a history of antegrade intramedullary nailing that was revised for rotational malalignment, after which he began experiencing recurrent episodes of atraumatic bloody joint effusion and swelling of the right knee with associated patellar instability. Plain radiographs and magnetic resonance imaging revealed a large effusion with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL. The patient underwent a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability, and was able to return to his activities.

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

Continue to: Reamed intramedullary nails...

Reamed intramedullary nails are the gold standard for fixation of femoral diaphyseal fractures.¹ Antegrade or retrograde nails are effective options, with the choice of technique based on factors including surgeon preference, patient factors, and concomitant injuries.² Interlocking screws are generally placed to allow control of both rotation and length.¹ Advantages of intramedullary treatment of femoral diaphyseal fractures compared with plate fixation include low rates of infection, lower nonunion rate, and faster patient mobilization and weight-bearing.³

Complications of antegrade intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures include infection, nonunion, malunion, anterior cortical perforation, heterotopic ossification, abductor weakness, and soft tissue irritation from interlocking screws.^2-4 Femoral intramedullary nails are not routinely removed because the hardware is rarely symptomatic and removing the nail involves additional surgical morbidity with the potential for complications.⁵ Interlocking screws are removed in select cases due to soft tissue irritation, generally after fracture union. Although hardware removal may help in select cases, removal of intramedullary nails is associated with low rates of symptom resolution.^6-8

We present a case of iatrogenic medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) disruption by the distal interlocking screw leading to patellar instability, a previously unrecognized complication of antegrade femoral nailing for femoral diaphyseal fractures. The patient provided written informed consent for print and electronic publication of this case report.

CASE REPORT

We present a case of a 23-year-old man whose status was 2 years post antegrade reamed femoral intramedullary nailing at an outside institution for a right diaphyseal femur fracture. This issue was revised for external rotational malalignment, and he presented with right anterior knee pain, recurrent patellar subluxation, and recurrent effusions. The extent of external rotational malalignment and subsequent rotational correction were not evident from the available outside institution records. These symptoms began after his femoral nail revision for malalignment, and he had no subsequent trauma. The femoral fracture healed uneventfully. The patient denied any history of knee pain, swelling, or patellar instability before his femoral nail revision for malalignment. These episodes of effusion, instability, and pain occurred several times per year, generally with activities of daily living (ADL). On one occasion, he presented to a local emergency room where knee aspiration revealed no evidence of crystals or infection. The patient was referred to the senior author (Dr. Nho) for consultation.

Physical examination revealed right knee full extension with flexion to 80°. A moderate right knee effusion was present. The patient was tender over the medial femoral epicondyle and the superomedial aspect of the patella without joint line tenderness. Lateral patellar instability was present with 2 quadrants of translation (compared with 1 on the contralateral side) and patellar apprehension. The patient’s knee was ligamentously stable, and meniscal signs were absent. His lower extremity rotational profile was symmetric to the contralateral uninjured side.

Right femur and knee X-rays showed an antegrade intramedullary nail with a well-healed diaphyseal fracture and a single distal interlocking screw oriented from posterolateral to anteromedial (Figures 1A-1G). The screw tip was prominent on sunrise X-ray view anterior to the medial femoral epicondyle (Figure 1C). Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a large effusion and lateral patellar subluxation with a prominent intra-articular distal interlocking screw disrupting the MPFL near the femoral attachment (Figure 2). Patellar height, trochlear morphology, and tibial tubercle-trochlear groove distance were assessed and found to be normal.

Continue to: The patient elected...

The patient elected to have a right knee arthroscopic-assisted MPFL reconstruction and removal of the distal interlocking screw. Diagnostic arthroscopy revealed the distal interlocking screw to be intra-articular medially, prominent by 3 mm causing attritional disruption of the mid-substance MPFL (Figure 3A). The patella was noted to be subluxated and tracking laterally (Figure 3B). Both the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament were intact, and menisci and articular cartilage were normal. The distal interlocking screw was removed under fluoroscopic guidance through a small lateral incision (Figure 3C).

Due to the nature of the longstanding attritional disruption of the MPFL in this case with associated patellar instability over a 2-year period, the decision was made to proceed with formal MPFL reconstruction as opposed to repair. A 2-cm incision was made at the medial aspect of the patella. The proximal half of the patella was decorticated. Guide pins were placed within the proximal half of the patella, ensuring at least a 1-cm bone bridge between them, and two 4.75-mm SwiveLock suture anchors (Arthrex) were inserted. A semitendinosus graft was used for MPFL reconstruction with the 2 ends of the graft secured to 2 suture anchors with a whipstitch. Lateral fluoroscopy was used to identify Schöttle’s point, denoting the femoral origin of the MPFL⁹ (Figure 3D). A 2-cm incision was made at this location. A guide pin was then placed at Schöttle’s point under fluoroscopic guidance, aimed proximally, and the knee was brought through a range of motion (ROM), to verify graft isometry. Once verified, the guide pin was over-reamed to 8 mm. The layer between the retinaculum and the capsule was carefully dissected, and the graft was passed extra-articularly in the plane between the retinaculum and the capsule, out through the medial incision, and docked into the bone tunnel. An 8-mm BioComposite interference screw (Arthrex) was then placed with the knee flexed to 30°. The knee was then passed through a ROM and an arthroscopic evaluation confirmed that the patella was no longer subluxated laterally. There was normal tracking of the patellofemoral joint on arthroscopic evaluation.

Postoperatively, the patient was maintained in a hinged knee brace for 6 weeks. He was weight-bearing as tolerated when locked in full extension beginning immediately postoperatively, and allowed to unlock the brace to start non-weight-bearing active flexion and extension with therapy on postoperative day 1. Radiographs confirmed removal of the distal interlocking screw (Figures 4A, 4B). Following surgery, the patient experienced resolution of his effusions, no recurrent patellar instability at 1-year postoperative, and was able to return to his ADL and recreational sporting activities (Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score [KOOS] ADL, 100; KOOS sporting and recreational activities, 95; quality of life, 100; Marx Activity Rating Scale, 12).

DISCUSSION

The MPFL connects the superomedial edge of the patella to the medial femur and is injured in nearly 100% of patellar dislocations.⁶ The femoral origin lies between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle.⁷ The MPFL prevents lateral subluxation of the patella and acts as the major restraint during the first 20° of knee flexion. Although radiographic parameters for identifying the MPFL femoral origin have been defined by both Schöttle and colleagues⁹ and Stephen and colleagues¹⁰, it is important to check the isometry intraoperatively through a ROM when performing MPFL reconstruction. In this case, the patient’s history and physical examination showed patellar instability, which was determined to be iatrogenically related to the distal interlocking screw rupture of the MPFL. Following screw removal and MPFL reconstruction, the patient had no further symptoms of pain, effusion, or patellar instability and returned to his normal activities.

Femoral malrotation following intramedullary nailing of femoral shaft fractures is a common complication,⁴ with a 22% incidence of malrotation of at least 15° in 1 series from an academic trauma center.¹¹ There are mixed data as to whether malrotation is more common in complex fracture patterns, in cases performed during night hours, and in cases performed by non-trauma fellowship-trained surgeons.^11-13 The natural history of malrotation is not well elucidated, but there is some suggestion that it alters load bearing in the distal joints of the involved leg including the patellofemoral joint. Patients also may not tolerate malrotation due to the abnormal foot progression angle, particularly with malrotation >15°.⁴ In this case, the patient’s initial femoral nail was placed in an externally rotated position, requiring revision. The result of this was an unusual trajectory of the distal interlocking screw from posterolateral to anteromedial. Combined with the prominent screw tip, the trajectory of this distal interlocking screw likely contributed to the injury to the MPFL observed in this case. This trajectory would also pose potential risk to the common peroneal nerve, which is usually situated posterior to the insertion point for distal femoral interlocking screws. The prominent distal interlock screw is a well-recognized problem with femoral intramedullary nails. This issue results from the tapering of the width of the distal femur from being larger posteriorly to being smaller anteriorly. To avoid placement of a prominent distal interlocking screw, surgeons often will obtain an intraoperative anterior-posterior radiograph with the lower extremity in 30° of internal rotation to account for the angle of the medial aspect of the distal femur.

This practice represents, to our knowledge, a previously unreported cause of patellar instability as well as an unreported complication of antegrade femoral intramedullary nailing. Surgeons treating these conditions should consider this potential complication and pursue advanced imaging if patients present with these complaints after femoral intramedullary nail placement. Knowledge of both MPFL origin and insertional anatomy and avoidance of prominent distal interlocking screws in the region of the MPFL, if possible, would likely prevent this complication.

Limitations of this study include the case report design, which makes it impossible to comment on the incidence of this complication or to make comparisons regarding treatment options. There is, of course, the possibility that the patient had a concurrent MPFL injury from the injury in which he sustained the femur fracture. Nevertheless, the clinical history, examination, imaging, and arthroscopic findings all strongly suggest that the prominent distal interlocking screw was the cause of his MPFL injury and patellar instability. Finally, the point widely defined by Schöttle and colleagues¹² was used for MPFL reconstruction in this case based on an intraoperative true lateral radiograph of the distal femur. It should be noted that recent literature has debated the accuracy of this method for determining the femoral origin, the anatomy of the MPFL in relation to the quadriceps, and type of fixation for MPFL reconstruction with some advocating soft tissue only fixation.^14-17 For purposes of this case report, we focused on a different cause of MPFL disruption in this patient and our technique for MPFL reconstruction.

CONCLUSION

This case demonstrates that iatrogenic MPFL injury is a potential complication of antegrade femoral nailing and a previously unrecognized cause of patellar instability. Surgeons should be aware of this potential complication and strive to avoid the MPFL origin when placing their distal interlocking screw.

This paper will be judged for the Resident Writer’s Award.